Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Pharmacology - Exam 3 > Opportunistic Infections > Flashcards

Opportunistic Infections Flashcards

1
Q

What are superficial infections also known as?

A

Dermatophytic infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are superficial fungal infections usually treated with?

A

Topical antifungals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are five superificial sites often treated with topical antifungals?

A
  • Hair
  • Scalp
  • Skin
  • Nails
  • Mucosa (oral, vaginal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Antifungal therapy is used to treat what two types of infections?

A
  • Superficial infections
  • Systemic infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Systemic antifungals are mostly used for patients with what disease?

A

AIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Other than patient AIDs paitents, what other high risk patients are treated with systemic antifungals?

A
  • Chemotherapy
  • Burn patients
  • Organ transplants
  • Systemic steroid therapy (long-term)
  • Some cancers (bone marrow suppression)
  • Diabetics (sometimes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A wide, diverse group of dermatophytes are collectively called what?

A

Tinea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What would you treat this condition with?

A

Nizoral Shampoo bid

(Tinea Versicolor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Candida albicans is secondary to what three things?

A
  • Antibiotic therapy
  • Antineoplastics
  • Immunosuppressants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Candida albicans may result in what?

A

Overgrowth and systemic infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who can get oral thrush?

A
  • Healthy neonates
  • Immunocompromised patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are three kinds of candidal infections?

A
  • Oral thrush
  • Cutaneous
  • Vaginal (“yeast infection”)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are two types of cutaneous candidal infections?

A
  • Diaper dermatitis in healthy babies
  • Intertriginous rashes - (especially immune compromised)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Who can get yeast infection?

A
  • Pregnancy
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Oral contraceptives
  • Antibiotic therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

True or False:

A person with a healthy immune system wouldn’t normally get a systemic fungal infection.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How are systemic fungal infections most often acquired?

A

Inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or false:

Systemic fungal infections are potentially fatal to immunocompromised.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Systemic fungal infections are treated with drugs that administered by what two routes?

A

Oral / parenteral drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are six common systemic fungal infections?

A
  1. Histoplasmosis
  2. Coccidiodomycosis
  3. Blastomycosis
  4. Aspergillosis
  5. Cryptococcosis
  6. Systemic Candidiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the risk factors for developing histomplasmosis?

A

Exposure to bird or bat droppings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What can occur as an infection with pneumonia that spreads to heart, lungs, brain, and kidneys via the bloodstream?

A

Invasive aspergillosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a fungus ball that colonizes in a healed lung scar or abscess from a previous disease?

A

Aspergilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are two antifungal polyenes?

A
  • Amphotericin B - S
  • Nyastatin (Mycostatin) - S / T
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are seven topical imidazoles?

A
  1. Butoconazole (Gynazole-1)
  2. Econazole (Spectazole)
  3. Clotrimazole (Gyne-Lotrimin, Lotrizone)
  4. Oxiconazole (Oxistat)
  5. Sertraconazole (Ertaczo)
  6. Terconazole (Terazol)
  7. Tioconazole (Monistat-1 Day)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are three systemic imidazoles?
1. Voriconazole (Vfend) 2. Posaconazole (Noxafil) 3. Itraconazole (Sporanox)
26
What are two imidazoles that are both systemic and topical?
1. Ketoconazole (Nizoral) 2. Fluconazole (Diflucan)
27
What are four topical misc. antifungal agents?
* Ciclopirox (Loprox) * Butenafine (Mentax) * Tolnaftate (Tinactin) * Naftifine (Naftin)
28
What are two systemic misc. antifungal agents?
1. Flucytosine (Ancobon) 2. Griseofulvin
29
What is a misc. antifungal agent that is both systemic and topical?
Terbinafine (Lamisil)
30
What are seven topical antifungal agents that treat tinea?
1. Ciclopirox (Loprox) 2. Ketoconazole (Nizoral) 3. Oxiconazole (Oxistat) 4. Sertraconazole (Ertaczo) 5. Terbinafine (Lamisil) 6. Butrenafine (Mentax) 7. Tolnaftate (Tinactin)
31
What are eight topical antifungal agents that treat candida?
1. Nystatin (Mycostatin) 2. Butoconazole (Gynazole-1) 3. Clotrimazole (Gyne-Lortimin, Lotrizone) 4. Terconzaole (Terazol) 5. Tioconazole (Monistat-1 Day) 6. Fluconazole (Diflucan) 7. Econazole (Spectazole) - **Both** 8. Naftifine (Naftin) - **Both**
32
What is the MOA for polyenes?
Drugs bind irreversibly to sterols in fungus cell membrane lining ↓ ↓ **Allow K+ and Mg++ to leak out** ↓ ↓ Alters fungal cell metabolism ↓ ↓ Fungal cell death (fungicidal)
33
What is the MOA for imidazoles?
**Inhibit sterol synthesis** in cell membrane ↓ ↓ Damage cell membrane ↓ ↓ Fungal cell death (fungicidal)
34
What is the polyene prototype?
Amphotericin B
35
What is the route for Amphotericin B?
IV Infusion
36
What is the usual dose for Amphotericin B?
0.25 - 1 mg/kg/d OR 1 mg/kg q.o.d.
37
What is the max dose for Amphotericin B?
1.5 mg/kg/d
38
What are the indications for Amphotericin B?
Progressive, potentially life threatning systemic fungal infections.
39
How is Amphotericin B metabolized?
Unknown
40
How is Amphotericin B excreted?
Renal
41
What is the half-life for Amphotericin B?
15 days
42
What is the precaution for Amphotericin B?
Under no circumstances should a total daily dose of 1.5 mg/kg be exceeded ↓ ↓ **Risk of cardiorespiratory arrest**
43
What is the absolute contraindication of Amphotericin B?
* Streptozocin * Cidofovir
44
What tests must you use to monitor a patient on Amphotericin B?
* BUN, Cr at baseline / then frequently * CBC * Lytes * LFTs
45
What are the side / adverse effects of Amphotericin B?
**"Shake and Bake"** * Renal toxicity * Nurotoxicity (seizures / paresthesias) (These are two out of 14 but Shake and Bake describes most of them.)
46
What is the imidazole prototype?
Fluconazole (Diflucan)
47
What is the route for Fluconazole (Diflucan)?
PO and IV
48
What are the indications for Fluconazole (Diflucan)?
Systemic infections (especially candidiasis) * Oropharyngeal candidiases * Esophageal candidiases * Vaginal candidiases
49
What is the usual dose of Fluconazole (Diflucan) for oropharyngeal / esophageal candidiases?
100 mg PO/IV q.d
50
What is the usual dose of Fluconazole (Diflucan) for vaginal candidiases?
150 mg PO x 1
51
What is the usual dose of Fluconazole (Diflucan) for systemic infections?
Varies
52
How is Fluconazole (Diflucan) metabolized?
Liver
53
How is Fluconazole (Diflucan) excreted?
Renal
54
What are the select side / adverse effects of Fluconazole (Diflucan)?
* Nausea and vomiting * Increase LFTs * Diarrhea * Abdominal pain (more long term...)
55
What are the drug interactions for Fluconazole (Diflucan)?
Multiple... LOOK it up
56
What tests do you use to monitor a patient who is taking Fluconazole (Diflucan)?
Create a baseline → LFTs
57
What are six non-malarial protozoal infections?
* Amebiasis * Giardiasis * Pneumocystosis * Toxoplasmosis * Trichnomoniases * Leishmaniasis
58
What are four ways that protozoal infections are transmitted?
* Person-to-person * Ingestion of contaminated water or food * Direct contact with parasite * Insect bite (mosquito or tick)
59
What are three things amebiases causes?
* Dysentery * Hepatitis * Liver abscess
60
What does giardiases cause?
Diarrhea
61
What does trichomoniases cause?
STD | (cervicitis in woman)
62
What are two illnesses caused by toxoplasmosis?
* Encephalitis in immune suppressed patients * **Brain / retina birth defects in pregnancy **
63
True or false: Toxo is not routinely screened in neonates.
True
64
How can women prevent getting toxoplasmosis?
They should not touch cat litter box.
65
Leischmaniases can be what kinds of disease?
Cutaneous and visceral
66
What happens to a person with visceral form of Leishmaniasis?
* Fever * Weight loss * Hepatosplenomegaly * Anemia
67
True or False: Leishmaniasis is commonly seen in the U.S.
False
68
What is a special case of protozoal illnesses?
Pneumocystosis
69
Pnuemocystosis was formerly believed to have what kind of etiology? What kind of etiology do we know it to have now?
Protozoal Fungal
70
The causative agent of Pneumocystosis was formerly known as *Pneumocystis carinii (PCP)*. What is it called now?
*Pneumocystis jiroveci*
71
What did we think that Pneumocystosis was fungal?
It responds to antiprotozoal drugs
72
A patient presents with intestinal amebiasis. What should you give them?
Iodoquinol (Yodoxin)
73
A patient presents with PCP (*Pneumocystosis jiroveci*). What is the primary drug you treat them with?
Pentamidine (Pentam)
74
A patient presentes with an intestinal protozoal infection. What two drugs can you treat them with?
* Paromomycin * Metronidazole (Flagyl)
75
What drug has an orphan status for leishmaniasis?
Paromomycin
76
What drug is used as adjunct therapy in hepatic coma?
Paromomycin
77
A patient presents with extraintestinal amebiases. What do you treat them with?
Chloroquine (Aralen)
78
A patient presents with toxoplasmosis. What do you treat them with?
Daraprim
79
Which antiprotozoal drug could also be used to treat malaria?
Chloroquine (Aralen)
80
Which protozoal drug could be used as a malaria prophylaxis?
Pyrimethamine (Daraprim)
81
A patient presents with amebiases, giardiases, or trichomoniasis. What could you treat them with?
Tinidazole (Tindamax)
82
A patient presents with bacterial vaginosis. She is not pregnant. What do you treat her with?
Tinidazole (Tindamax)
83
Atovaquone (Mepron) can be used to treat what three things?
* Mild to moderate PCP * PCP prophylaxis * Toxoplasmosis prophylaxis
84
What is the protozoal prototype?
Metronidazole (Flagyl)
85
What are nine indications for Metronidazole (Flagyl)?
1. Trichomoniasis (STD) 2. Intestinal amebiasis 3. Amebic liver abscess 4. Giardiasis 5. PID (pelvic abscess) 6. Anaerobic bacterial infections 7. Peri-op prophylaxis 8. Bacterial vaginosis (BV) 9. Pseudomembranous colitis (*C. diff)*
86
What are the routes for Metronidazole (Flagyl)?
PO and IV
87
What is the usual dose for Metronidazole (Flagyl)?
1.5 - 2.5 gram/d in divided doses
88
How is Metronidazole (Flagyl) excreted?
Renal
89
Metronidazole (Flagyl) is contraindicated during what trimester of pregnancy? What category is this?
1st trimester Category B
90
What is the MOA of Metronidazole (Flagyl)?
Disrupts nucleic acid synthesis in protozoa ↓ ↓ Bactericidial / Amebicidial / Trichomonacidal
91
What are the side / adverse effects of Metronidazole (Flagyl)?
* Metallic taste * Nausea and vomiting * Diarrhea * Abdominal cramps * Potential for serious neurological adverse effects
92
What would happen if a patient drank alcohol within 48 hours of completing the course of Flagyl?
They would get really sick. * Nausea and vomiting * Skin flushing * Tachycardia * SOB
93
What is an older medication used in alcoholism treatment?
Disulfiram (Antabuse)
94
What are the drug interactions of Metronidazole (Flagyl)?
* ETOH * Any drug that contains ETOH * Busulfan (acute toxicity) - CML drug
95
True or false: Trichomoniasis has symptoms more prominent in males.
False
96
A patient presents with greenish to gray, frothy, malodorous vaginal discharge. Her cervix looks like a strawberry. What does she have? What do you treat her with?
Trichomoniasis Metronidazole (Flagyl)
97
A patient presents with trichomoniasis. What must you advise her to do about her partner?
Have him get treated as well.
98
What are characteristics of helminths?
Large with complex cellular structures
99
True or False: Drug treatment for helminths is very specific.
True
100
What is very important before prescribing an antihelminthic?
Identify the causative worm
101
What are three pathogenic helmninths?
* Cestodes (tapeworms) * Nematodes (roundworms) * Trematodes (flukes)
102
When diagnosis a helminthic infection, where must you search for ova or larvae?
* Feces * Urine * Blood * Sputum * Tissue
103
What are four antiheminthics? What route are they all administered by?
* Mebendazole (Vermox) * Praziquantel (Biltricide) * Pyrantel (Pin-X) * Albendazole (Albenza) **PO**
104
A patient presents with nematode infestation (pinworm). What do you treat them with?
Pyrantel (Pin-X)
105
A patient presents with trematode infestation. What do you treat them with?
Praziquantel (Biltricide)
106
A patient presents with cestode infestation. What do you treat them with?
Praziquantel (Biltricide)
107
A patient presents with headaches, seizures, ataxia, dementia, and hydrocephalus. What is this? What is it caused by? What do you treat them with?
CNS disease Larva of Taenia solium Albendazole (Albenza)
108
A mother comes into your office with a piece of scotch tape full of worms. What kind of worms are these and what do you treat the son with?
Mebendazole (Vermox)
109
What is the antihelminthic prototype?
Mebendazole (Vermox)
110
What are the indications for Mebendazole (Vermox)?
* Cestode infestation * Nematode infestation
111
Mebendazole (Vermox) is the drug of choice for what kind of helminth?
Pinworm
112
What is the MOA for Mebendazole (Vermox)?
Inhibits uptake of glucose and other nutrients ↓ ↓ Autolysis and death of the parasitic worm
113
How is Mebendazole (Vermox) administered?
PO
114
How is Mebendazole (Vermox) metabolized?
Liver
115
How is Mebendazole (Vermox) excreted?
Feces
116
What is the usual dose of Mebendazole (Vermox) for pinworms?
100 mg PO one time | (tablet / chewable)
117
What is the usual dose of Mebendazole (Vermox) for helminthic infections other than pinworms?
100 mg bid x 3 days
118
What are the three adverse / side effects of Mebendazole (Vermox)?
* Diarrhea * Abdominal pain * TISSUE NECROSIS
119
What is an acid fast aerobic bacillus conveyed by respiratory secretions?
Tuberculosis
120
What are tubercles?
Calcified fibrous tissue
121
True or False: Tuberculosis is highly contagious.
True
122
What are common infection sites for tuberculosis? Which one is the primary site?
* **Lung (primary site)** * Brain * Bone * Liver * Kidney
123
What percentage of tuberculosis is extrapulmonary?
15%
124
How does tuberculosis gain entry into the body?
Inhalation
125
How does tubercle bacilli spread to body organs?
Via blood and lymphatic systems
126
How does disseminated TB begin?
With 1o lung lesion Then it spreads basically everywhere...
127
Effectiveness of antitubercular therapy depends on what?
* Site of infection * Adequate dosing * Sufficient duration of treatment * Drug compliance * Selection of an effective drug combination
128
How long is TB therapy? Why does it take this long?
**6-12 months** Cell wall is resistant to drug penetration
129
If patients develop multidrug-resistant infections with TB, how long must their therapy be?
24 months
130
True or False: TB therapy can be stopped if the patient is asymptomatic.
False (Therapy must continue even if asymptomatic the entire time)
131
What is the drug minimum for treating TB?
Up to 2 - 4 drugs
132
When are second-choice drugs used for treatment of TB?
When resistance develops * They are more toxic * Less effective than first-choice
133
When does therapy begin for family members of TB patients?
Immediately after positive TB skin test (PPD)
134
What are the first line drugs for TB?
* Isoniazid (INH) * Ethambutol (EMB) * Pyrazinamide (PZA) * Rifampin (RIF) * Rifapentine (RPT)
135
What are the second line drugs for TB?
* Streptomycin (SM) * Cycloserine * P-aminosalicylic acid * Ethiomonide * Amikacin or Kaanamycin * Capreomycin
136
What is the prototype for TB?
Isoniazid (INH)
137
How is Isoniazid (INH) administered?
PO and IM
138
What is the MOA for Isoniazid (INH)?
Inhibits lipid and nucleic acid synthesis
139
What are the indications for Isoniazid (INH)?
* Active disease * Prophylactic
140
What is the adult dosage for Isoniazid (INH)?
5 mg / kg q.d.
141
What is the max adult dosage for Isoniazid (INH)?
300 mg/d
142
Where is Isoniazid (INH) metabolized?
Liver
143
How is Isoniazid (INH) excreted?
Renal
144
What are drug interactions for Isoniazid (INH)?
* Mefloquine (Lariam) * Multiple (LOOK UP!)
145
What tests should you use to monitor a patient on Isoniazid (INH)?
Creat and LFTs
146
When administering Isoniazid (INH), what vitamin must be given as well? Why must you give it?
B6 To combat peripheral neuritis associated with INH therapy
147
What could happen to diabetic patients taking Isoniazid (INH)?
Rise in glucose
148
What is the Black Box Warning for Isoniazid (INH)?
Potentially fatal hepatotoxicity
149
What are eight adverse / side effects for Isoniazid (INH)?
1. **HEPATOTXICITY** 2. Nausea and vomiting 3. Fatigue 4. Paresthesias 5. Fever 6. Anorexia 7. Depression 8. Jaundice
150
What studies must you do before starting TB therapy?
Baseline liver function (LFTs) | (Especially for INF and Rifampin)
151
True or False: It is OK for TB patients to drink ETHOH during therapy.
False | (Patients should NOT consume ETOH)
152
What does INH and Rifampin do to oral contraceptives?
Causes them to become ineffective
153
What could ethambutol cause?
Retrobulbar neuritis and blindness
154
What causes reddish-orange staining in urine, stool, saliva, sputum, sweat, tears, and contact lenses?
Rifampin
155
What do IGRAs measure?
How strongly the immune system reacts to the mycobacterium
156
What are the two IGRAs approved by FDA and which available in the US?
1. QuantiFERON 2. T-SPOT
157
What does a positive IGRA mean?
* Infected with TB bacteria * Additional tests needed to determine if latent infection or active disease
158
What does a negative IGRA mean?
* Blood did not react to the test * Latent TB infection or TB disease not likely
159
When are IGRAs the preferred testing method for TB?
* Persons who have the BCG vaccine * Persons who are not compliant with returning for the F/U reading of TB skin test
160
What are two diseases caused by non-tuberculosis mycobacterium?
* *Mycobacterium leprae* * *Mycobacterium avium*
161
*Mycobacterium leprae* is also known as what disease?
Leprosy
162
Mycobacterium Avium Complex (MAC) is most often the cause of what type of infection?
Lung infections
163
What kind of drugs treat all forms of TB?
Antitubercular
164
Non-tuberculous mycobacterium have been isolated from what seven places?
1. Animals 2. Plants 3. Soil 4. Ice 5. **HOT TUBS** 6. Industrial waters (rare) 7. Pet fish tanks
165
What bacteria does this sound like? * Rapidple growing mycobacterium * Common water contaminant * Found in water, soil, and dust * Can contaminate medications and medical devices
Mycobacterium Abscessus
166
What are the causes of Mycobacterium Abscessus?
* Chronic lung disease * Post-traumatic wound infection * Disseminated cutaneous disease
167
What do you treat this with? What dose would you give them?
Fluconazole (Diflucan) 150 mg PO x 1
168
What do you treat this with?
Amphotericin B
169
What do you treat this with?
Metronidazole (Flagyl)
170
What do you treat this with?
Mebendazole (Vermox)
171
What do you treat this with?
Isoniazid (INH)

Pharmacology - Exam 3 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions