OPP Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four principles of osteopathic medicine

A

body is a unit, mind body and spirit. Body is capable of self regulation, self-healing, and health maintenance. Structure and function are reciprocally interdependent rational care involves all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is TART

A

Tissue textures changes
Asymmetry
Restriction of motion
Tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is found in acute TART

A

Warm, boggy, sharp, moist, edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is found in chronic TART

A

Cool , ropey, dull, dry, minimal edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the facet orientations

A

BUM-cervical
BUL-thoracic
BM-lumbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the law of threes

A

T1-3 and T12 SP is same level as TP
T4-6 and T11 SP is 1/2 level below TP
T7-9 and T10 SP is 1 level below TP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does the OA and AA move

A

Opposite freyettes 2 laws
rotate and side bend to opposite sides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Freyette’s law 1

A

neutro
group curve
opposite sides for SB and rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Fryette’s law 2

A

flexed or extended
individual segment
Same sides for SB and rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is freyette’s law 3

A

Motion in one direction, decreases motion in other directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What treatments always use an indirect approach

A

counter strain, FPR, BLT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What treatments can use direct or indirect approach

A

cranial, myofascial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What treatments use active participation

A

muscle energy, myofascial, BLT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the atypical ribs

A

Ribs missing a primary component (1,2,11,12)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What ribs have pump handle motion

A

Ribs 1-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What ribs have bucket handle motion

A

Ribs 6-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What ribs have caliper motion

A

Ribs 11-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

On an inhalation dysfunction, which rib is the key rib

A

lowest rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

On an exhalation dysfunction, which rib is the key rib

A

Highest rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is scoliosis

A

Lateral curvature of the spine >10degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is scoliosis named

A

for angle of curvature (convexity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the cobb angle

A

degree of scoliosis from extremes of curves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

At what degree of scoliosis is conservative treatment used

A

5-15 degrees (mild)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

At what degree of scoliosis is bracing added to conservative treatment

A

20-49 degrees (moderate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
At what degree of scoliosis is surgery considered
>50 degrees (severe)
26
At what degree of scoliosis is respiratory function affected
>50 degrees (severe)
27
At what degree of scoliosis is cardiac function affected
>75 degrees (severe)
28
What comprises conservative treatment
PT, Konstantin exercises, OMT
29
What causes an anterior innominate
Tight quadriceps
30
what causes a posterior innominate
tight hamstrings
31
What causes an innominate upshear
fall on buttock or misstep
32
A short leg is caused by an innominate rotated in which direction
posteriorly
33
What are the rules of sacral torsions
Named for rotation on axis axis is oblique and opposite SFT Axis if same as L5 SB Spring test positive on nonphysiologic torsions
34
What do you find on a L of L (anterior flexed) torsion
R-Seated flexion R-deep sulcus L-posterior innominate Negative-spring test L5 - NSLRR Sacrotuberous ligament taught on left
35
What do you find on a R on R torsion
L-seated flexion L-deep sulcus R-posterior innominate Negative - spring test L5-NSRRL
36
What do you find on a L on R torsion
L-seated flexion R-Deep sulcus L-posterior innominate Positive spring test L5-FSRRR
37
What do you find on a R on L (posterior extended) torsion
R-seated flexion L-deep sulcus R-posterior innominate Positive spring test L5-ESRRR Sacrotuberous ligament taught on right
38
What do you find on a bilateral flexed sacrum
Negative-seated flexion bilateral-deep sulcus Bilateral-posterior ILA Negative spring test (key indicator)
39
What do you find on a bilateral extended sacrum
Negative-seated flexion Bilateral-shallow sulcus LA bilateral-anterior ILA Positive spring test (key indicator)
40
What is the normal range of carrying angle for men and women
Men: 5 Women: 10-12 (abnormal is below 3 and above 15)
41
What direction does the wrist move when the carrying angle increased
ADDuction
42
What direction does the ulna move when the carrying angle increases
ABDuction
43
What direction does a radial head glide on supination
anteriorly
44
What direction does a radial head glide on pronation
posteriorly
45
What direction does a radial head move on a fall forward on outstretched hands
posteriorly
46
What direction does a radial head move on a fall backward on outstretched hands
anteriorly
47
What movement is caused by a pronated ankle
Dorsiflex, eversion, ABDuction and anterior glide of fibular head
48
What movement is caused by the anterior glide of the fibular head
posterior tibia distally, talus externally rotated and eversion of dorsiflexed foot
49
What is the most common injured ankle ligament
ATF - anterior talofibular (always tears first)
50
What is PRM
primary respiratory mechanism
51
What is the rate of PRM
10-14 cycles per minute
52
What regulates PRM
CNS, CSF, dural membranes, cranial bones, and sacrum
53
What is the fulcrum of PRM
The meninges
54
What are the goals of CRI
Decrease venous congestion, mobilize articular restriction, balance SBS enhance rate of CRI
55
What are the five cranial techniques
venous sinus, CV4 bulb decompression, vault hold, V spread, lift technique
56
What is the purpose of venous sinus technique
increase flow
57
What is the purpose of CV4 technique
Increase CRI amplitude
58
What is the purpose of the vault hold
fox strains
59
What is the purpose of the V spread technique
separate restricted impact of sutures
60
Trigger points are
A hypersensitive focus, has sharp local and referred pain, is a somatic representation of viscera-somatic or somato-somato pain
61
Tender points are?
Small hypersensitive points in myofascia, local non-radiating pain, and used to monitor counter strain effectiveness
62
What is the chapmans points for the appendix
Tip of rib 12 anterior Laminal of T11 posterior
63
What is the chapman's point for the prostate
lateral and posterior margin of ITB
64
What is the chapman's point for cardiac
2nd ICS near sternum and possibly 3
65
What is the chapman's point for respiratory
2nd and 3rd ICS for upper lung, 4th ICS for lower lung (anterior)
66
What is the chapmans point for HEENT
3 are on first ribs and 2 are on second rib
67
What plane separates left from right
sagittal
68
What plan separates front from back
coronal
69
What plane separates top from bottom
transverse
70
What axis does flexion and extension have
transverse
71
What axis does rotation have
vertical
72
What axis does side bending have
anterior-posterior
73
In the upper thoracic, identify the movement that is greatest (primary) Middle>Least
Rotation>F/E>SB
74
In the middle thoracic, identify the movement that is greatest (primary) >middle>least
Rotation>F/E>SB
75
In the lower thoracic, identify the movement that is greatest (primary) >middle>least
F/E>SB>rotation
76
In the lumbar, identify the movement that is greatest (Primary) >Middle>least
F/E>SB>Rotation
77
What are the physiologic boundaries based on
muscles, ligaments or tendon ligaments
78
What are the physiologic boundaries barriers
active movement
79
What are the anatomic boundaries based on
anatomy (bone to bone)
80
What are the anatomic boundary barriers
passive movement
81
What are the pathologic boundaries based on
pathology where pain limits movement
82
What are pathologic boundary barriers
pain due to somatic dysfunction
83
What is the primary movement of the OA and identify the direction of side bending and rotation
flexion and extension opposite
84
What is the primary movement of the AA and identify the direction of side bending and rotation
rotation opposite
85
What is the primary movement of C2-C4 and identify the direction of side bending and rotation
rotation same sides
86
What is the primary movement of C5-C7 and identify the direction of side bending and rotation
side bending same sides
87
What three movements of the foot occurs with ankle supination
plantarflexion, inversion and ADDuction
88
What direction does the fibular head glide in ankle supination
anterior
89
what direction does the fibular head glide in ankle pronation
posterior
90
A posterior fibular head proximally leads to what changes distally
anterior fibula, internally rotated talus, food inversion and plantarflexion
91
Where are you fingers places for the vault hold
index finger: greater wing of sphenoid middle finger: temporal bone (front of ear) Ring finger: Mastoid region of the temporal Little finger: Squamous portion of the occiput
92
on flexion, the cranium moves
midline bones flex paired bones externally rotate AP decreases Sacrum moves posterior (counternutates)
93
On extension, the cranium moves
midline bones extend paired bones internally rotate AP increases sacrum moves anterior (nutates)
94
What are the physiologic cranial strains
torsion and SB/rotation
95
What are the non-physiologic cranial strains
lateral, vertical compression, and flexion and extension if they move unequally
96
What is cranial torsion
physiologic AP axis sphenoid and occiput rotate in opposite directions names for superior greater wing of the sphenoid
97
What is cranial lateral strain
non-physiologic two vertical axes named for deviation of the sphenoid (left or right) Rhomboid shape (parallelogram)
98
What is cranial vertical strain
non-physiologic on two transverse axes superior-sphenoid is cephalad and occiput is caudad inferior-sphenoid is caudad and occiput is cephalad
99
What is the cranial compression strain
non-physiologic sphenoid and occiput compress together
100
What is a cranial flexion and extension strain
Non-physiologic when not moving equally named for the greater movement flexio=SBS cephalad and decreased extension extension=SBS caudad and decreased flexion
101
An infant with a history of poor suckling since birth is likely to have which CN impinged
hypoglossal
102
Where would treatment be to improve suckling
condylar decompression
103
What bones is targeted in this treatment
occiput
104
What is the chapmans point for otitis media
mid clavicular ipsilaterally
105
What is the chapmans point for the eye
anterior humerus (mid-aspect of surgical neck and occipital bones)
106
What is the chapmans point for the stoman
5-6 ICS L (lamina T5 L)
107