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Small Animal Medicine II > Ophthamology > Flashcards

Ophthamology Flashcards

1
Q

Commonly available and projects light of adequate brightness to effectively assess cranial nerve function. LED lights are discouraged as they can harm the retina

A

Finoff Transilluminator

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2
Q

Topical anitcholinergic that has a short duration of action (2-4 hours) used to facilitate examination of the posterior segment of the eye by dilating the pupil

A

Tropicamide

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3
Q

Tests for an intact affront trigeminal nerve (CN V) and efferent facial nerve (CN VII). Medial and lateral aspect of eyelid needs to be touched as these areas are inner gated by two distinct branches of trigeminal nerve.

A

Palpebral reflex

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4
Q

Evaluates for an intact affect optic nerve (CN II), cortical vision processing, and intact efferent (CN VII) by creating a menacing gesture near the eye and eliciting a blink response. Young animals develop the response between 12-16 weeks

A

Menace response

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5
Q

Tests for intact affront (CN II) and efferent oculomotor nerve (CN III) and is elicited by a bright light source observing constitution of pupil

A

Pupillary light reflex (PLR)

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6
Q

Evaluates an intact affront (CN II) and efferent facial nerve (CN VII) and is elicited using a very bright light source placed close to the eye. You should see your patient blink or move away from the light.

A

Dazzle reflex

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7
Q

Used to evaluate an intact peripheral and central vestibular apparatus including CN VIII, II, IV, and VI by briskly moving the patients head up and down observing eye movement.

A

Oculocephalic reflex

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8
Q

Assesses for an intact afferent CN V and efferent CN VI and VII by touching the corneal surface and looking for globe retraction

A

Corneal reflex

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9
Q

Nasolacrimal patency can be confirmed by observing fluorescein stain emerging from the nostril. False negatives are common

A

Jones test

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10
Q

Stains that can be used to highlight abnormalities of the tear film, corneal epithelium or conjunctival epithelium.

A

Rose bengal and lissamine green

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11
Q

Normal eye pressure with tonometry in dogs and cats

A

12-18mmHg

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12
Q

When eye pressures are greater than 25 mmHg accompanying vision loss

A

Glaucoma

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13
Q

Reduces the intraocular pressure via a break down of the blood ocular barrier. Differences of pressure >8mmHg between eyes is considered abnormal and can be helpful in diagnosing this

A

Uveitis

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14
Q

Refers to everything that supports the eye such as the orbit, periocular skin, eyelids, third eyelid, conjunctiva

A

Adnexa

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15
Q

Most commonly used to discriminate dark funds lesions were blood or hemorrhage is equivocally present. Hemorrhage will appear black

A

Red free light (green on direct ophthalmoscope)

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16
Q

On off switch used to adjust light intensity on the direct ophthalmoscope

A

Rheostat

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17
Q

The higher this is the greater the refraction of light off the lens and greater field of view during indirect exam. This is inversely related to the length of the focal point.

A

Diopter

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18
Q

When selecting a lens for indirect exams the examiner balances these two factors

A

Field of view and magnification

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19
Q

Protrusion or anterior displacement of the globe relative to it’s normal position within the orbit. Caused by space occupying orbital lesions

A

Exophthalmos

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20
Q

Common in working dogs and dogs who are prone to chewing ons ticks. Signs include acute, painful, unilateral exophthalmos. Dogs often febrile and show leukocytosis on CBC

A

Retrobulbar cellulitis/ Abscessation

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21
Q

Caused by leakage of ALI a from the gland or duct with subsequent inflammation and fibrous tissue reaction

A

Zygomatic salivary gland mucocele

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22
Q

Typically found in younger dogs and can cause unilateral or bilateral exophthalmos. Masseter and temoralis muscles are typically swollen and painful when palpated. Type IIM fiber autoantibodies found with biopsy is diagnosic

A

Masticatory muscle myositis

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23
Q

Often occurs in Golden retrievers and Labs. Classic bilateral exophthalmos with prominent scleral showing

A

Extraocular myositis

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24
Q

Abnormal recession of the eye within the orbit. Caused by pain, dehydration, emaciation, horners syndrome

A

Exophthalmos

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25
Q

Small shrunken globe caused by severe and chronic inflammation

A

Phthisis bulbi

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26
Q

Sphincter like muscle that closes the eyelid. Innervated by CN VII

A

Orbicularis oculi

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27
Q

Sphincter like muscle that closes the eyelid. Innervated by CN VII

A

Orbicularis oculi

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28
Q

Opens the upper eyelid. Innervated by CN III

A

Lavatory palpebral superioris

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29
Q

Smooth muscle that opens the upper eyelid. Innervated by GVE sympathetic efferent and responsible for ptosis seen in Horners syndrome

A

Mullers muscle

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30
Q

Fibrous plate that surrounds the tarsal or meibomian glands and provides structural rigidity to the eyelids and is important for surgical closure of lid lacerations

A

Tarsus

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31
Q

Sebaceous glands that exit in an orderly row at the eyelid margin and provide the outermost stabilizing layer of the tear film.

A

Meibomian glands

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32
Q

Inward rolling of the eyelid margin. Common in brachycephalics.

A

Entropion

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33
Q

Eyelids are not appropriately conformed to the eye as a primary condition. Unrelated to ocular surface pain

A

An atomic entropion

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34
Q

Most common surgical method of entropion repair. Important to incise close to the eyelid margin in order to effectively evert the tissue

A

Modified Hotz Celsus

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35
Q

Incomplete eyelid closure and globe coverage or the inability to completely close the eyelids. Caused by brachycephalic breeds, buphthalmos, neurological dysfunction, retrobulbar masses

A

Lagophthalmus

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36
Q

Facial hairs or eyelashes growing in a normal location but make contact with the eye. Often a result of abnormal facial conformation with prominent exposed eyes and either long facial hair or prominent nasal folds.

A

Trichiasis

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37
Q

Cilia emerging from the meibomian gland ducts.

A

Distichia

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38
Q

Common therapy for distichia. Two freeze thaw cycles are applied to palpebral conjunctiva surface until the ice ball crosses the lid margin destroying the hair follicle.

A

Cryoepilation

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39
Q

Variant of distichia. These cilia emerge through the palpebral conjunctiva and are more often associated with corneal ulceration and severe pain.

A

Ectopic cilia

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40
Q

Benign and involve the meibomian glands and secondary gland impaction. A canine eyelid tumor

A

Chalazion

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41
Q

Individual swollen meibomian glans seen when the lid margin is everted

A

Internal Hordeolum (meibominanitis)

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42
Q

Junction between palpebral and bulbar conjunctiva

A

Fornix

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43
Q

Pathological diffuse reddening of the conjunctiva. Often suggests the presence of inflammation of the ocular surface or a disorder of the tear film.

A

Hyperemia

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44
Q

Fibrovascular tissue that lies deep to the conjunctiva and superficial to the sclera. Facilitates movements of the extraocular muscles

A

Episclera (Tenon’s Capsule)

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45
Q

Refers to the pathological presence of coarse ropes vessels that travel perpendicular to the limbus and can be identified individually. Suggests deep pathology of deep structures, including glaucoma and uveitis.

A

Episcleral injection

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46
Q

Most common cause of conjunctivitis

A

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

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47
Q

Very common in dogs <2 years of age. Many dogs dont need therapy and the condition is self-limiting. Clinical signs are blepharospasm, epiphora, and conjunctival hyperemia with discharge

A

Allergic conjunctivitis

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48
Q

Most critical test to be performed in dogs with conjunctival abnormalities

A

Schirmer Tear Test. Should be greater than 15mm

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49
Q

Used for its steroid not antibiotics. Ointment has longer retention time and dosages of 3-4 times daily up to 3 weeks are sufficient. Dont use with ulcer patients.

A

Neomycin Polumixin Dexamethasone

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50
Q

NSAID. Labeled for twice daily application. Less potent than steroids but indicated for less severe cases. Caution in cases with corneal ulcers

A

Diclofenac 0.1% solution

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51
Q

Labeled for twice daily application. Immunomodulatory drug. Indicated in chronic conjunctivitis that fails steroid therapy. Slow to reach maximal efficacy but not as bad for ulcers

A

Cyclosporine 0.2% ointment (Optimmune)

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52
Q

Rarely indicated as therapy for conjunctivitis except in cases of KCS with secondary bacterial conjunctivitis due to tear film dysfunction

A

Neomycin Polymixin Bacitracin

53
Q

Not a common virus but can accompany severe KCS along with systemic concerns

A

Canine Distemper Virus

54
Q

These infections closely resemble allergic conjunctivitis and can be treated similar

A

Adenovirus and Herpesvirus

55
Q

Life long infection. 80% of infected cats the virus becomes latent in the CN V ganglion. 50% of cats shed virus during health or stress which is the most significant factor (recrudescence) Target tissue is epithelial tissue associated with ocular surface causing ulcers. Hyperemia is the predominant feature of the virus. Only this virus causes dendritic corneal ulceration and symblepharon (conjunctival adhesions). Conjunctival cytology is most useful test. Treat with 0.5% cidofovir solution and erythromycin ointment

A

Feline Herpesvirus 1

56
Q

Etiology is unknown though suspected to be an autoimmune disease that has a relationship to FHV-1. Signs include blepharospasm, mucoid discharge, hyperemia, and raised white/yellow plaques. Finding eosinophils on cytology is diagnostic. Treat with topical steroids, immunomodulation, and supportive care

A

Feline Eosinophilic Keratoconjunctivitis

57
Q

Common infection in shelters. Signs are conjunctival ulceration and oral ulceration. Treatment is supportive with erythromycin

A

Calicivirus conjunctivitis

58
Q

Caused by obligate intracellular bacteria. Phases of bacterial life cycle can be resistant to treatment. Signs include chemosis (conjunctival edema). Infection does not cause ulceration. Diagnosis by intracytoplasmic inclusions within conjunctival epithelial cells on cytology. Treatment with marcrolides (erythromycin) and tetracyclines or fluoroquinolones

A

Chlamydial conjunctivitis

59
Q

Controversial association with conjunctivitis as many healthy cats have this amongst normal ocular flora. Signs include Epiphora, chemosis, and hyperemia. Treat similar to chlamydia

A

Mycoplasma conjunctivitis

60
Q

Outermost layer of tear film. Produced by meibomian glands and provides surface coating to the tear film preventing evaporation. Deficiency causes qualitative KCS

A

Lipid layer

61
Q

The middle layer of the tear film. Produced by lacrimal gland and third eye lid gland. Most substantial layer and contains nutrients and anti bacterial components to protect ocular surface. Continuously flushes foreign material away from surface. Deficiencies can be measures with Schirmer Tear Test. Epiphora is a common disorder of this layer

A

Aqueous layer

62
Q

Deepest layer of the tear film. Produced by the conjunctival goblet cells. Generates surface tension and creates interface between the corneal epithelium and the other two layers of the tear film preventing the film from sliding off the cornea.

A

Mucinous layer

63
Q

Parts of the lacrimal drainage apparatus

A

Two nasolacrimal punctuation, two nasolacrimal canaliculi, lacrimal sac, and nasolacrimal duct

64
Q

Deficiency of the aqueous layer of the tear film with concurrent corneal and conjunctival inflammation.

A

Quantitative KCS

65
Q

Most common cause of KCS in which the lacrimal gland and third eyelid gland are attacked by autoantibodies.

A

Immune mediated quantitative KCS

66
Q

Known as neurogenic KCS. Dysfunction of CN VII by inner ear infections. Causes ipsilateral dry eye and dry nose

A

Parasympathetic nerve lesion quantitative KCS

67
Q

Deficiency of mucin or lipid layers of the tear film with concurrent corneal and conjunctival inflammation. STT is normal but same clinical signs

A

Qualitative KCS

68
Q

Junction between the cornea and the sclera

A

Limbus

69
Q

Thickest layer of the cornea and composed of fibrocytes which produce ordered collagen fibers arranged in lamellar. This layer is hydrophilic so retains fluorescein stain and is highly susceptible to infection

A

Storms

70
Q

Cornea is innervated by

A

Ophthalmic branch of CN V

71
Q

Time for epithelial ulceration of the cornea takes to heal

A

Less than 7 days

72
Q

Time for stromal ulceration to heal

A

Days to weeks.

73
Q

Stromal ulcer that healed with epitheliazation leaving a fluorescein negative divot in the cornea

A

Facet

74
Q

Focal complete loss of stroma and wound contraction is not possible. Heals through vascular ingrowth and the production of granulation tissue. Takes weeks to months to heal

A

Descemetocele

75
Q

Only cause of blue corneal opacity. Edema is result of fluid from tear film hydrating the corneal stroma. Can result from epithelial disorders and endothelial disorders

A

Corneal Edema

76
Q

Only cause of red opacity within the cornea. Caused by new vessel formation on the cornea. Can be seen with KCS, Pannus, and uveitis

A

Corneal neovasculatization

77
Q

Corneal opacity caused by white blood cells or abscess. This is painful

A

White with yellow or green hue

78
Q

Corneal opacity cause by stromal scar or fibrosis. Not associated with pain

A

White and gray or wispy features

79
Q

Corneal opacity caused by minerals or lipid. Often bright and can sparkle. Not associated with pain unless ulcer is present.

A

Crystalline white

80
Q

Corneal opacity caused by epithelial pigment, endothelial pigment, or feline sequestrum from necrosis of corneal stroma.

A

Brown or black

81
Q

Corneal opacity caused by accumulations of proteins and white blood cells that adhere to the endothelial surface. Small at the midpoint of the cornea and become larger and denser at the ventral cornea

A

Tan or greasy

82
Q

Superficial corneal ulcers should heal in less than 7 days

A

Uncomplicated corneal ulcers

83
Q

Three reasons a corneal ulcer will not heal

A

Indolent ulceration (boxer ulcer), Infection, and underlying irritant hasn’t been addressed.

84
Q

Most common cause of feline ulcerative keratitis

A

FHV 1

85
Q

Softening or melting of the corneal stroma due to collagenolysis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common bacterial culprit in cases where this is present. Can use chelating agents and serum to treat

A

Malacia

86
Q

Autoimmune condition that effects German Shepherds and Greyhounds. UV light exacerbates lesions. Signs include granulation tissue and pigment. Biopsy is confirmatory. Treatment is lifelong anti-inflammatory therapy.

A

Pannus (Chronic superficial keratitis)

87
Q

Function of the uvea

A

Aqueous production and formation of the blood aqueous barrier

88
Q

Adhesion of iris to the cornea

A

Anterior synechia

89
Q

Adhesion of iris to the lens

A

Posterior synechia

90
Q

Adhesion of iris to iridocorneal angle

A

Peripheral Anterior Synechia

91
Q

Bulging forward of the iris due to impaired passage of aqueous caused by complete posterior synechia occluding the pupil. Leads to peripheral anterior synechia and secondary glaucoma

A

Iris Bombe

92
Q

Age related thinning of the iris stroma resulting in irregular pupillary margins, slow PLRs, and spaces in the iris

A

Iris Atrophy

93
Q

Multiple colors within an iris or between two irides

A

Heterochromia irides

94
Q

Developmental defect (hole) in the iris

A

Iris coloboma

95
Q

strands of uveal tissue that originate in the iris collarette due to incomplete absorption of embryonic vascular tissue that surrounds the pupil and lens.

A

Persistent pupillary membranes

96
Q

Inflammation of the iris and ciliary body

A

Anterior uveitis (Iridocyclitis)

97
Q

Inflammation of the choroid

A

Posterior uveitis (Choroditis)

98
Q

Inflammation of the entire uvea

A

Panuveitis

99
Q

Inflammation of the uvea and intraocular contents of the eye

A

Endophthalmitis

100
Q

Inflammation of all ocular and intraocular tissues, including the corneoscleral/fibrous tunic

A

Panophthalmitis

101
Q

Aqueous flare is pathognomonic for this. Refers to increased turbidity of the normally clear aqueous humor due to breakdown of the blood aqueous barrier that occurs with inflammation

A

Uveitis

102
Q

Most frequent intraocular disease in cats

A

Uveitis

103
Q

Best topical corticosteroid choices for uveitis

A

1% prednisolone acetate or 0.1% dexamethasone alcohol

104
Q

Immune mediated disease against melanocytes including uveal tissue. Common breeds are Akita, Samoyed, Husky. Clinical signs often acute, bilateral uveitis. Vitiligo of the eyelids, nose, feet, and lips common. Diagnosis by skin biopsy. Treat with steroids and atopica

A

Uveodermatologic syndrome

105
Q

Pigment deposition on the lens, iris, and corneal epithelium. Eyes often red with low grade flare. There is no actual inflammation of the uvea

A

Pigmentary uveitis of Golden Retrievers

106
Q

Most common primary intraocular tumor

A

Melanocytic (melanomas, melanocytomas)

107
Q

Collagenous fibers that attach to the process of the ciliary body and support the lens at its equator. Suspends the lens in the pupil.

A

Zonules

108
Q

A depression in the anterior vitreous in which the lens rests.

A

Patellar fossa

109
Q

A transparent elastic envelop surrounding the lens. Provides insertion for lens zonules and regulates the lens shape due to elasticity.

A

Lens capsule

110
Q

Makes up the majority of the lens and are arranged in interdigitating lamellar layers. Originate as epithelial cells and then transition to lose their nuclei and become less active and stretch the poles of the lens

A

Lens fibers

111
Q

How most energy is provided for the lens

A

Metabolism of glucose via anaerobic glycolysis (Hexokinase pathway)

112
Q

For this the ciliary muscles constrict (360 degrees) decreasing tension on the lens zonules and the elastic lens capsule causes the lens to take on a more spherical thickened shape

A

Near vision

113
Q

For this the ciliary muscles relax (360 degrees) increasing tension of the lens zonules and the lens becomes a thinner flatter shape

A

Distance vision

114
Q

Dogs and cats can only focus on

A

Distant objects. Closer uses smell

115
Q

Abnormally small lens. May lead to lens luxation

A

Microphakia

116
Q

Notch like defect in the lens

A

Lens coloboma

117
Q

Developing lens fails to completely separate form the cornea resulting in an opaque cornea and lens. Often with uveal strands connecting the two structures

A

Peters anomaly

118
Q

Most common cause of treatable vision loss in the dog

A

Cataracts

119
Q

A hyper mature lens with liquified cortex and the solid nucleus sinks to the bottom of the capsular bag

A

Morgagnian cataract

120
Q

Formed by the junction of the iris ciliary body and the cornea sclera.

A

Iridocorneal angle

121
Q

Almost always due to impaired outflow

A

Glaucoma

122
Q

Photoreceptors that function more effectively in dim light

A

Rods

123
Q

A well vascularized neurosensory retina with a variable number of vessels extending from the optic disc in a spoke like pattern.

A

Holangiotic

124
Q

Moderately vascular retina. Blood vessels extend medial and lateral to the optic disc (Rabbits)

A

Merangiotic

125
Q

Very sparsely vascularized retina. Horses`

A

Paurangiotic

126
Q

No blood vessels are present in the neurosensory retina. In avian species, a highly pigmented and pleated structure the pecten plays a role in nutrition of the inner retina

A

Anagiotic

127
Q

Important cause of blindness in pure bred dogs

A

Generalized progressive retinal atrophy

128
Q

Only recognized in dogs. Acute onset of blindness in hours-days. Obesity is common. Results in permanent blindness. ERG confirms diagnosis by demonstrating complete absence of photoreceptors activity

A

Sudden Acquired Retinal Degeneration Syndrome

129
Q

Swollen fluffy optic disc. Caused by elevated intracranial and CSF pressure

A

Papilledema

Small Animal Medicine II (2 decks)

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