Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Neuro and SS > Ophthalmology > Flashcards

Ophthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 layers of the eye?

A 
Outer protective (sclera + cornea)
Middle coat (choroid, ciliary body and iris)
Inner layer (retina)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the anterior chamber of the eye?

A

Space between cornea and iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the posterior chamber of the eye?

A

Space between iris and ciliary body/lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a stye (hordeolum externum)?

A

Inflammatory lid swelling

Abscess or infection (usually Staph) in a lash follicle or gland of Moll/Zeiss, ‘point’ outwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How should styes be treated?

A

Warm compress for 5-10mins several times each day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a chalazion/Meibomiam cyst?

A

Abscess of Meibomian glands which ‘point’ inwards,

opening on conjunctiva and leaving residual swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How should Meibomiam cysts be treated?

A

Incision and curettage under LA if not resolving

spontaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is blepharitis and what are some causes?

A

Lid inflammation e.g. staph, seborrheic dermatitis, rosacea, meibomian gland dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How should blepharitis be treated?

A

Good eyelid hygiene (cotton bud + baby shampoo),
warm compress, artificial tears
If not resolving, oral doxy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is entropion?

A

Lid inturning so eyelids irritate cornea

Typically due to degen of lower lid fascial attachments and their muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How can entropion be managed?

A

Tape eyelids to cheek or use botox to lower lid

Surgery for long lasting refief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is ectropion?

A

Lower lid eversion causing eye irritation, watering and exposure keratitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is blepharospasm?

A

Involuntary contraction of orbicularis oculi, commonly in response to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How can blepharospasm be managed?

A

Botox 3-monthly to cause flaccid paralysis

Anticholinergic, dopamine agonists (levodopa, bromocriptine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a blow out fracture?

A

Partial herniation of the orbital contents through one

of its walls (medial + inferior weakest)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How can blow out fracture present?

A

Enophthalmos (posterior displacement of eye), diplopia, infraorbital numbness, retrobulbar haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How can retrobulbar haemorrhage present?

A

Tight, swollen eyelid, fixed dilated pupil, loss of vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the management for retrobulbar haemorrhage?

A

Urgent canthotomy + cantholysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What can cause dry eyes (keratoconjunctivitis sicca)?

A

Old age

Sjogren’s, mumps, sarcoid, drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How can dry eyes be managed?

A

Artificial tears and lubricating drops

Reducing size of punctum by plugs, cautery or laser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What can cause watery eyes?

A

Punctal stenosis, canaliculitis
Dust, irritant, corneal injury, FB
Entropion, ectropion, MG, FN palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is dacryocystitis and how does it present?

A

Infection of lacrimal drainage sac

Red, tender swelling at medial canthus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the treatment for dacryocystitis?

A

High dose oral Abx and referral to secondary care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are some presenting features of retinoblastoma?

A

Strabismus, leukocoria (white pupil), absent red reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are some management options for retinoblastoma?

A

Enucleation: eye removal, may be needed if large, retinal detachment, optic nerve invasion
Chemo (bilateral), RT/cryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are some risk factors for ophthalmic shingles?

A

Age, trauma to area, immunocompromised (HIV, transplant, Hodgkin’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How does ophthalmic shingles present?

A

Pain and neuralgia in CN V1 dermatome preceding blistering inflammed rash
Ocular involvement: conjunctivitis, visual loss, episcleritis/scleritis, iritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is Hutchinson’s sign in reference to ophthalmic shingles?

A

Nose-tip involvement makes it likely eye will be affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How should ophthalmic shingles be managed?

A

Oral acyclovir/famciclovir for 7-10d if within 72h of rash onset
Steroid eye drops if ocular involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is orbital cellulitis?

A

Infection of soft tissues posterior to orbital septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are some signs of orbital cellulitis?

A

Fever, lid swelling, ↓eye mobility, painful eye movements, diplopia, proptosis, chemosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are some complications of orbital cellulitis?

A

Visual loss due to optic neuritis, CRVO/CRAO

Meningitis, brain abscess, dural/cavernous sinus thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How should orbital cellulitis be investigated?

A

CT, ENT, ophthalmic opinion, blood cultures/swab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How should orbital cellulitis be managed?

A

Cefotaxime and metro IV

If abscess, surgical drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the differences between orbital and periorbital cellulitis?

A

Periorbital cellulitis is infection of soft tissues anterior to orbital septum
Also NO pain on eye movement or diplopia or visual impairment in periorbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How should periorbital cellulitis be managed?

A

Amoxicillin/co-amoxiclav 7-10d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How can squints be diagnosed?

A

Corneal reflection

Cover test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How can squints be managed?

A

Spectacles to correct error
Patching good eye to encourage use of one which squints
Resection of rectus muscles, Botox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the features of an oculomotor nerve palsy?

A

Ptosis, proptosis, fixed pupil dilatation, eye down and

out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the features of a trochlear nerve palsy?

A

Diplopia, pt may tilt head, cannot look down and in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the features of an abducens nerve palsy?

A

Diplopia in horizontal plane

Eye is medially deviated and cannot move laterally from midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What can cause an afferent pupillary defect?

A

Optic neuritis, optic atrophy, retinal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What can cause an efferent pupillary defect?

A

3rd nerve palsy

Cavernous sinus lesions, superior orbital fissure syndrome, diabetes, PosCom artery aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What can cause a fixed, dilated pupil?

A

3rd nerve palsy, mydriatics, trauma, acute glaucoma, coning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a tonic (Adie) pupil?

A

Lack of parasympathetic innervation results in poor

constriction to light and slow response to accommodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the features of Horner’s syndrome?

A 
Miosis, partial ptosis, unilateral facial anhidrosis (sweating intact in distal lesions)
Iris heterochromia (if congenital Horner’s)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What can cause Horner’s syndrome?

A

PICA/basilar occlusion, syringomyelia, MS, cavernous sinus thrombosis, Pancoast, aortic aneurysm, carotid dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the features of Argyll-Robertson pupil?

A

Bilateral miosis, poor pupillary dilation, pupil irregularity, light-near dissociation (-ve to light, +ve
to accommodation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is myopia?

A

Eyeball is too long, only close objects focus on retina (short-sightedness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the management for myopia?

A

Concave lenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is astigmatism?

A

Cornea has greater degree of curvature in one place compared to another and is an irregular surface (rugby ball shape)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is hypermetropia?

A

Eye is too short, light focused behind retina, close

object blurry and far objects may be normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How can hypermetropia be corrected?

A

Convex lenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is presbyopia?

A

Age-related reduced near-acuity from failing accommodation (lens stiffens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Lesions at the optic chiasm cause what visual field defect?

A

Bitemporal hemianopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Lesions at the optic tracts cause what visual field defect?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Lesions at the optic radiations in the temporal lobe cause what visual field defect?

A

Superior quadrantanopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Lesions at the optic radiations in the parietal lobe cause what visual field defect?

A

Inferior quadrantanopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Lesions at the visual cortex cause what visual field defect?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia often with macula sparing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How can visual fields be examined?

A

Finger mapping of fields
Hat-pin confrontation: red (central vision) and white hat-pins are used to define size of blind spot, boundaries of scotoma
Amsler grids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are some causes of red eye that require immediate referral?

A

Acute glaucoma, acute iritis, corneal ulcers, scleritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is a subconjunctival haemorrhage?

A

Harmless, pool of blood behind conjunctiva

from small bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How can episcleral vessels be differentiated from scleral vessels?

A

Episcleral vessels lie superficially, will move when
probed with cotton bud and blanch with application of 10% phenylephrine
Deeper scleral vessels will not move or blanch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How should episcleritis be managed?

A

Symptomatic relief, artificial tears and topical/systemic NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are some features of scleritis?

A

Constant, severe dull ache which bores into eye
Ocular movements are painful, headache, photophobia
White patches within the red eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What condition is scleritis associated with?

A

Systemic disease e.g. RA

67
Q

How should scleritis be managed?

A

Urgent referral
Oral NSAIDs ± oral pred
Systemic immunosuppression
Surgery if imminent globe perforation

68
Q

What is the uvea?

A

Pigmented part of eye (iris, ciliary body, choroid)

69
Q

What is the anterior uvea?

A

Iris and ciliary body

70
Q

What is the posterior uvea?

71
Q

What are some causes of anterior uveitis (iritis)?

A

Ank spond, JIA, sarcoid, IBD, reactive arthritis, herpes, TB, HIV, syphilis, Behcet’s

72
Q

What are some causes of posterior uveitis (choroiditis)?

A

MS, lymphoma, sarcoid

73
Q

What are some cause of intermediate uveitis?

A

Herpes, toxo, TB, CMV, endophthalmitis, lymphoma, sarcoid, Behcet’s

74
Q

What are some presenting features of anterior uveitis?

A

Onset is over hours/days
Ocular pain, blurred vision, photophobia, red eye, ↑lacrimation, small irregular pupil (adhesions between lens and iris, synechiae)

75
Q

What can be used to help diagnose anterior uveitis?

A

Slit lamp with dilated pupil to visualise location of inflammatory cells (leucocytes in anterior chamber)

76
Q

How should anterior uveitis be managed?

A

Urgent eye clinic
Control underlying disease
0.5-1% pred drops to decrease inflamm and cyclopentolate to prevent adhesions.

77
Q

What is acute closed angle glaucoma?

A

Form of glaucoma where angle of anterior

chamber narrows acutely causing sudden rise in intraocular pressure to >30mmHg

78
Q

What are the features of acute closed angle glaucoma?

A

Onset over hours-days
N+V, headache, painful red eye, blurred vision, halos
around lights, hazy cornea
Pupil becomes fixed and dilated, hard eye

79
Q

How should acute closed angle glaucoma be managed?

A

Urgent referral for gonioscopy
Beta blockers, topical pilocarpine, IV acetazolamide
Peripheral iridectomy/laser iridotomy once IOP
controlled to remove piece of iris allowing aqueous flow

80
Q

What are the complications of acute closed angle glaucoma?

A

Visual loss, CRAO, CRVO, repeated episodes

81
Q

What are some features of conjunctivitis?

A

Conjunctiva red and inflamed, movable hyperaemic vessels, eyes itch, burn and lacrimate
Often bilateral and discharge may cause lids to stick
together

82
Q

What are some non-infective causes of conjunctivitis?

A

Allergic, toxic, autoimmune, neoplastic, contact lens

83
Q

What are some infective causes of conjunctivitis?

A

Non-herpetic viral (serous discharge) is most common, 80% adenovirus
Bacterial (purulent discharge), can be chlamydial or gonococcal

84
Q

How should alkali burns to the eye be managed?

A

Irrigation for prolonged period until pH returns to

normal and give topical Abx

85
Q

What is the treatment for viral conjunctivitis?

A

Artificial tears and topical antihistamines

86
Q

What is the treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis?

A 
Topical Abx (chloramphenicol) or wait for 1-2w
If sexual disease, contact lens, immunocompromised: immediate topical/oral Abx
87
Q

What is the treatment for allergic conjunctivitis?

A

Antihistamine drops

88
Q

What is keratitis?

A

Corneal inflammation due to bacterial (S. aureus), fungal, ameobic

89
Q

What are some features of keratitis?

A

White deposit in cornea, photophobia, gritty sensation, hypopyon

90
Q

How is keratitis treated?

A

Topical Abx and cycloplegics

91
Q

How should corneal abrasion be investigated?

A

Use fluorescein drops and blue light on slit lamp to stain lesions green and invert eye lid to look for FBs

92
Q

What are some causes of corneal ulcers?

A

Bacterial, herpetic, fungal (candida, aspergillus), protozoal or from vasculitis (e.g. RA)

93
Q

How can corneal ulcers present?

A

Eye pain, photophobia, watering of eye

94
Q

How should bacterial corneal ulcers be managed?

A

Until cultures are known, alternate chloramphenicol drops with ofloxacin drop

95
Q

How should herpes simplex (dendritic) corneal ulcers be managed?

A

Acyclovir eye ointment

96
Q

What are some causes of sudden painless loss of vision?

A 
GCA
CRAO
CRVO
Optic neuropathies
Vitreous haemorrhage
97
Q

What are the features of optic neuropathies?

A

Mononuclear vision loss with central scotoma
RAPD
Colour blindness
Papillitis on fundoscopy progressing to optic atrophy

98
Q

What are some features of visual loss in giant cell arteritis?

A

Typically mononuclear and may be transient (amaurosis fugax)

99
Q

What investigations should be done if giant cell arteritis is susecpted?

A

CRP, plasma viscosity, TAB after 1w of starting pred

100
Q

What are the features of optic neuritis?

A

Subacute loss of vison, colour vision affected (red desaturation), eye movements hurt, RAPD

101
Q

What is the treatment for optic neuritis?

A

High dose methypred IV then pred oral

102
Q

What are some features of central retinal artery occlusion?

A

Dramatic loss of vision within seconds of occlusion,

RAPD, retina white with cherry red spot at macula

103
Q

How should central retinal artery occlusion be managed?

A

Reduce IOP by ocular massage, surgical removal of aqueous or intraocular hypotensive treatment

104
Q

What conditions are associated with central retinal vein occlusion?

A

Age, arteriosclerosis, HTN, DM, polycythaemia,

glaucoma

105
Q

What are some features of central retinal vein occlusion (esp. ischemic)?

A

Cotton-wool spots, swollen optic nerve, macular

oedema and risk of neo-vascularisation

106
Q

How should central retinal vein occlusion be managed?

A

Panretinal photocoagulation
If visual loss, intravitreal anti-VEGF
Laser or dex implants to treat macular oedema

107
Q

How can vitreous haemorrhage arise?

A 
Retinal neovascularisation (DM, BRVO, CRVO),
retinal tears, retinal detachment or trauma
108
Q

How can vitreous haemorrhage present?

A

Small extravasation of blood produce vitreous floaters (black dots or tiny ring like forms)

109
Q

How should vitreous haemorrhage be managed?

A

Normally undergoes spontaneous absorption

If dense VH, vitrectomy

110
Q

What are some causes of gradual loss of vision?

A

Cataract, macular degen, glaucoma, diabetic retinopathy, HTN, optic atrophy, slow retinal detachment

111
Q

What are some risk factors for age-related macular degeneration?

A

Age (>70y), smoking, CVD, FH, cataract surgery

112
Q

What are some features of age-related macular degeneration?

A

Difficulty reading, making out faces, night vision, visual fluctuation, metamorphopsia (distortion of images)

113
Q

How should age-related macular degeneration be investigated?

A

Slit lamp, fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, OCT, Amsler grid

114
Q

What is drusen?

A

Optic nerve-head axonal degen
Abnormal axonal metabolism leads to intracellular mitochondrial calcification which can be deposited when axons rupture causing drusen formation

115
Q

Describe wet ARMD:

A

Pathologic choroidal neovascular membranes
develop under retina
Can leak fluid and blood and cause central disciform
scar

116
Q

What is the management for wet ARMD?

A

Stop smoking, diet rich in green veg, antioxidants
Intravitreal VEGF inhibitors (Lucentis)
Laser photocoagulation, photodynamic therapy and intravitreal steroids

117
Q

Describe dry ARMD:

A

Slower (decades), progressive visual loss relative to wet (months)
Shows mainly drusen and changes at macula

118
Q

What can cause optic atrophy?

A

RIOP (glaucoma), retinal damage (choroiditis), ischemic (RAO)
MS, syphilis, external pressure on nerve (SOL)

119
Q

What are the most common cause of blindness in UK?

A

Cataract, ARMD, glaucoma, diabetic retinopathy

120
Q

What are some risk factors for chronic glaucoma?

A

RIOP, black, FH, age

HTN + diabetes, myopia

121
Q

How is chronic (open angle) glaucoma diagnosed?

A

3+ locations outside of normal limits on VF testing and cup-to-disc ratio >0.7 (normal 0.4-0.7)

122
Q

What are some medications that can be used in the management of open angle glaucoma?

A 
Prostaglandin analogues (latanoprost)
Beta-blockers (timolol)
Alpha agonist (brimonidine)
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (dorzolamide)
Miotics (pilocarpine)
Sympathomimetic (dipivefrine)
123
Q

What are some non-pharmaceutical management options for open angle glaucoma?

A 
Laser therapy (trabeculoplasty)
Trabeculectomy
124
Q

What causes optic disc cupping?

A

Loss of disc substance which makes cup look larger

As damage progresses, disc atrophies, cup widens and deepens

125
Q

What visual loss occurs in optic disc cupping?

A

Vessels displaced nasally

Nasal and superior fields lost first, temporal last and central vision tends to be maintained

126
Q

What is a cataract?

A

Any opacity in lens

127
Q

What are some risk factors for cataract formation?

A

Age, genetics, DM, steroids, myopia, smoking, alcohol, trauma

128
Q

How can cataracts be classified?

A

Dense
Nuclear
Cortical
Posterior subcapsular

129
Q

How can cataracts present?

A

Blurred vision, distance judgement affected, gradual loss of vision, difficulty driving at night

130
Q

When might surgery be considered for cataracts?

A

Usually at 6/12 or worse

131
Q

Describe the surgery for cataracts:

A

Day case using LA, remove lens by phacoemulsion (US and aspirate) and insert artificial lens

132
Q

What are some post-op complications of cataract surgery?

A

Posterior capsule thickening leading to opacification Eye irritation, gritty sensation, anterior uveitis Endophthalmitis, vitreous haemorrhage, retinal
detachment, posterior capsule rupture

133
Q

What is retinal detachment?

A

Holes/tears in retina allow fluid to separate the sensory retina from pigmented epithelium

134
Q

What are some risk factors for retinal detachment?

A

Myopia, age, previous cataract, eye trauma

135
Q

What are the types of retinal detachment?

A

Rhegamatogenous – tear allowing fluid to collect (myopia, trauma)
Exudative – no tear (HTN, vasculitis, ARMD)
Tractional (proliferative retinopathy)

136
Q

How can retinal detachment present?

A

Floaters, flashes, field loss and fall in acuity

137
Q

How can retinal detachment be managed?

A

Vitrectomy and gas tamponade (or silicon oil), scleral silicone implants
Cryo or laser coag to secure retina

138
Q

What are the features of retinitis pigmentosa?

A

Inherited degen of retina

Primarily males presenting with night blindness and peripheral and central daytime visual loss

139
Q

What are some causes of floaters?

A

Trauma/retinal detachment, vitreous haemorrhage, diabetic retinopathy, CRVO, posterior vitreous detachment

140
Q

What is posterior vitreous detachment?

A

Degen changes in vitreous lead to eventual separation from retina

141
Q

How can posterior vitreous detachment present?

A

Monochromatic photopsia in peripheral temporal field, with increase in floaters

142
Q

What is a macula hole?

A

Small break in macular region of retinal tissue, usually involves fovea

143
Q

What are some risk factors for development of a macula hole?

A

Elderly, myopic, injury to eye and retinal detachment

144
Q

How can macula hole present?

A

Distorted vision and visual loss

145
Q

How can macula hole be investigated?

A

Amsler grid, OCT

146
Q

How should macula hole be managed?

A

Vitrectomy with gas tamponade

147
Q

What are the features to look out for when examining the optic disc?

A

Borders (well defined?), colour (pink-yellow with pale centre?) and the cup

148
Q

What can cause swelling of the optic disc?

A

Papilloedema, malignant HTN, cavernous sinus

thrombosis, optic neuritis, SOL, optic neuropathy, central vein occlusion

149
Q

What features can be seen on fundoscopy in papilloedema?

A

Venous engorgement, blurred margins of disc, loss of disc cup

150
Q

How are the eyes of diabetics monitored?

A

Screen at diagnosis then yearly with dilated fundus photography

151
Q

What are the features of non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy?

A

Microaneurysms (dots), haemorrhages (blots), hard exudates (yellow patches), engorged tortuous veins, cotton wool spots, blot haemorrhages
(severe if latter 3)

152
Q

What is proliferative diabetic retinopathy?

A

Fine new vessels appear on optic disc, retina and can cause vitreous haemorrhage

153
Q

What is maculopathy in terms of diabetic retinopathy?

A

Vascular leakage causes macula oedema which can threaten vision

154
Q

How should diabetic retinopathy be managed?

A

Control blood sugar and BP
Laser photocoagulation to treat maculopathy and proliferative retinopathy
Intravitreal anti-VEGF

155
Q

What are some examples of topical mydriatic/cycloplegic eye drops?

A

Tropicamide is used to dilate eye before examination

Also: atropine, cyclopentolate, phenylephrine

156
Q

What are the 4 classes of hypertensive retinopathy?

A

I – arteriolar narrowing and tortuosity, silver wiring
II – AV nipping
III – cotton wool spots, flame haemorrhages, hard exudates
IV – papilloedema

157
Q

What are some features of thyroid eye disease?

A

Eye discomfort, grittiness, ↑tears, photophobia, diplopia, ↓acuity, exophthalmos, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia due to muscle swelling and fibrosis

158
Q

What is the management for thyroid eye disease?

A

Treat thyroid, stop smoking, artificial tears, elevation of bed
If severe, high dose steroids and may need surgical decompression

159
Q

How can rheumatoid arthritis affect the eyes?

A

Dry eyes, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, keratitis

160
Q

What are the features of allergic conjunctivitis?

A

Mild, small papillae on tarsal conjunctiva

Bilateral conjunctival erythema and swelling (chemosis), itch prominent, swollen eyelids

161
Q

How should allergic conjunctivitis be managed?

A

Antihistamine drops/systemic antihistamines, mast cell stabilisers

162
Q

What are some complications associated with contact lens use?

A

Red eye, giant papillary conjunctivitis, infection e.g. pseudomonas

163
Q

How should wet ARMD be monitored?

A

Fluorescein angiogram and 4-6w reviews with OCT, screening with Amsler grid

164
Q

What are some investigations for open angle glaucoma?

A

IOP measurement using tonometry, central corneal thickness, gonioscopy (peripheral ant chamber configuration and depth), VF measurement,
optic nerve assessment

Neuro and SS (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions