Ophthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

The basic parts of the ophthalmic examination are: (3)

A
  • History taking
  • Hands-off examination
  • Hands-on examination

(- Schirmer tear test readings
- Vision testing and neurological testing
- Ophthalmoscopy
- Ophthalmic dyes
- Tonometry)

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2
Q

The basic parts of the Hands-on ophthalmic examination are: (5)

A
  • Schirmer tear test readings
  • Vision testing and neurological testing
  • Ophthalmoscopy
  • Ophthalmic dyes
  • Tonometry
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3
Q

corneal sequestrum

A

A corneal sequestrum is when an area of the cornea ‘dies off’ and reacts with surrounding healthy cornea.

Over time the cornea rejects this abnormal tissue and attempts to ‘wall’ the area off causing a sequestrum.

typical patients are persian cats (predisposed)

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4
Q

General history should include: (6)

A
  • Breed/genetics
  • Age
  • General health
  • Presence of other pets in house
  • Source of the pet! (e.g. infectious diseases in shelter animals like herpes and chlamydia cats)
  • Reason for examination
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5
Q

Collecting a complete ophthalmic history

A
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6
Q

Hands-off examination (3)

A
  • Observation from distance
  • Notice:
    -signs of ocular discomfort – blepharospasm
    -increased lacrimation
    -symmetry of the eyes and face
    -enlargement of the globe
    -periorbital swelling
    -periorbital hair loss and erythema
  • Basic assessment of visual ability
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7
Q

Basic Diagnostic Instruments and Supplies in ophthalmology

A
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8
Q

Topical anesthetic for eyes

A

Proxymethacaine, trade name (Alcaine 5mg/ml)

Oftan Obucain -silmätipat sisältävät oksibuprokaiinia (common in finland)

The effect comes on approximately one minute after application and lasts approx. 5 min.

Topical anesthetics are not indicated as treatment in painful conditions, due to their tissue toxicity (delay healing so cannot be used regularly).

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9
Q

short acting mydriatic

A

Tropicamide eye drops 0,5-1%

Tropicamide is an anticholinergic drug and that works by non‐selectively blocking muscarinic receptors to cause mydriasis and cycloplegia.

(Cycloplegia is the paralysis of the ciliary muscle of the eye resulting in dilatation of the pupil and paralysis of accommodation. )

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10
Q

direct vs indirect ophthalmoscope

A

direct is handheld

In direct ophthalmoscopy, the examiner looks directly through the device’s viewing aperture to visualize the fundus (the interior surface of the eye). The light from the instrument illuminates the retina, allowing the examiner to see its details.

Direct ophthalmoscopes provide a limited field of view of the retina, usually around 5-15 degrees. This narrow field of view can make it challenging to examine the entire retina at once.

provides an upright, unreversed image of around 15 times magnification

indirect is a headset/loupes

Indirect ophthalmoscopes consist of a light source mounted on a headband or handheld device, along with a condensing lens. They also require the use of a handheld lens, known as a condensing or viewing lens.

In indirect ophthalmoscopy, the examiner sits at arm’s length from the patient and holds the condensing lens in front of the patient’s eye. The light from the ophthalmoscope is used to illuminate the retina, and the examiner views the magnified image of the fundus through the condensing lens.

Indirect ophthalmoscopes provide a wider field of view compared to direct ophthalmoscopes, typically around 20-30 degrees. This broader field of view allows for better visualization of the peripheral retina and a more comprehensive examination.

produces a reversed, inverted image magnified 2 to 5 times

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11
Q

How to begin an ophtho Examination: (6)

A
  • Explain shortly to the owner what and why you will do.
  • Both eyes, not just “sick” eye
  • Start from „healthy“ eye
  • Ask owner to help you
  • Towel wrapping where needed
  • Give some comments about findings
    during the examination.
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12
Q

Hands-on examination -course (5)

A
  • Examine from the front, sides and from above.
  • Presence of ocular discharge – the nature of it, uni/bilateral.
  • The size of both eyes, head symmetry.
  • Position of the eyes (exophthalmos, enophthalmos, strabismus).
  • Eyelid changes, periocular alopecia and discharge form eyes or nostrils
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13
Q

STT

A

The Schirmer tear test measures production of the watery part of the tears.

  • Should be done before the eyes are cleaned or handled further.
  • The strips should be bent at the notch while still in their plastic wallet.
  • Hold the stripes at the distal end placed in the ventral conjuctival sac.
  • Placed at the lateral to middle third of the lower eyelid.
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14
Q

epiphora

A

excessive tear production

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15
Q

What is buphthalmos?

A

Buphthalmos is the medical term for an inherited congenital enlargement of your eye.

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16
Q

STT results

A

The stripe is left in position for 1 minute before removing it and immediately reading the level of wetting on the scale.

Dogs, normal: 15-25 mm/min
Borderline: 10-15 mm/min
KCS: < 10 mm/min

KCS is rare in cats but e.g. can be caused by chronic herpes virus.

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17
Q

Exclude the following if animal has blepharospasm (painful eye): (4)

A
  • Foreign body in conjunctiva, cornea, under eyelids, third eyelid.
  • Aberrant cilia or hair (distichia or ectopic cilia).
  • Evaluated by staining with Fluorescein – for detecting corneal ulcer.
  • Third eyelid examination – use topical anesthesia, blunt tipped ophtho forceps and a light source/magnification.
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18
Q

Corneal Pannus

A

Corneal pannus means the growth of fine blood vessels onto the clear corneal surface. The treatment depends on the cause.

Pannus is an abnormal layer of fibrovascular tissue or granulation tissue. In GSDs it is often UV ray induced (so, sunglasses may be seen in use).

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19
Q
A

Ectopic cilia

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20
Q

To examine the Eyelids/cornea/anterior chamber/lens, you need:

A

Biomicroscope, light and magnification 10 x and 16 x

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21
Q

Describe a Biomicroscope

A

Full beam/round beam → examine for distichiasis, ectopic cilia, as well as punctal anomalies, corneal foreign bodies. Useful for dazzle reflex testing (partial blink in response to a bright light).

Slit beam → gives indication of the depth of lesions (cornea/lens).
* 0,8 mm helps us visualize transparent tissue generating a parallel-piped (Tyndall effect).
* 0,1 mm epithelium, stroma and endothelium become visible

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22
Q

Eyelids are examined for (5)

A

position, the presence of swelling,
eyelash abnormalities and the position and size of nasolacrimal punctae.

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23
Q

Third eyelid is checked for (3)

A

color,
position,
prolapse of nictitans gland.

24
Q

The cornea is checked for (4)

A

transparency,
vascularity,
cellular infiltration,
ulceration.

25
Q

Anterior chamber is examined for (2)

A

depth, inflammation.

26
Q

The lens is examined for

A

optical clarity – presence of cataract.

27
Q

Which conjunctiva so you Evaluate (3)

A
  • Eyelid conjunctiva
  • Bulbar conjunctiva
  • Third eyelid
28
Q

Most common Ophthalmic dye

A

Fluorescein test

  • Water–soluble dye which stains corneal ulcers green.
  • Impregnated strips or single-use vials can be used.
  • The intact cornea is lipophilic – no uptake of fluorescein. When epithelium is damaged – dye will adhere to the stroma.
  • Descemet’s membrane ulcers might not stain bright green.
  • One drop of the stain is applied on the cornea, try to only touch the bulbar conjunctiva.
  • Flush excess dye away with sterile saline to prevent false positives.
  • Blue light (cobalt blue filter) to view.
    Green stain in the area of corneal ulcer = the fluorescein test is positive
29
Q

A descemetocele is defined as

A

the exposure or protrusion of the Descemet membrane (DM) on the anterior surface of the cornea.

the descemet membrane is the basement membrane for the corneal endothelium, it does not take up fluorescein.

30
Q
A

Deep ulcers (Descemet’s membrane or ulcer)

The membrane will not stain but will present as a clear spot in the middle of the green stained walls.

31
Q

Jones test

A

Initial assessment of the nasolacrimal drainage system can be made
using fluorescein dye (Jones test).

A drop is placed in each eye and the nostrils are observed for the appearance of green color.

False negatives are common. Results take longer in brachys due to anatomy.

32
Q

Rose Bengal dye

A
  • Indications: defects in the superficial corneal epithelium.
  • Paper strips and solution
  • Examine with normal white light + magnification.
  • Small dendritic ulcers in feline herpetic keratitis.
33
Q

Tonometry

A
  • is the measurement of intraocular pressure (IOP), mmHg
  • detection and management of glaucoma and uveitis
  • Iatrogenic high readings possible
  • Low iatrogenic readings NOT possible

Tonopen (applanation) meaning abnormal flattening of a convex surface - just a diff technique)
→ topical anesthetic (proxymetacaine)
→ disposable rubber tip cover

TonoVet (rebound)
→ no anesthetic
→ disposable probe
→ easy to use
→ probe directed horizontally, thus requiring appropriate positioning of patient’s head
→ minimal potential to cause corneal injury

34
Q

TonoVet is held how far

A

held ~4-8 mm from the central
cornea and parallel to the
floor with thumb on the lower button.

Press briefly the lower button.
Repeat until the TonoVet’s audible
tone changes, indicating that 6
readings have been accepted and
averaged.

35
Q

Normal IOP?
Normal IOP difference between eyes?

A

10-25 mmHg
difference between eyes ≤ 8mmHG

Older animals have lower IOP than younger.

36
Q

Increase in IOP = ?
Lowered IOP indicates ?

A

Increase in IOP = glaucoma

Lowered IOP indicates intraocular inflammation (uveitis)

Older animals have lower IOP than younger.

37
Q

Examination the fundus

A

Ophthalmoscopy using Tropicamide 0,5-1,0% (Mydriacyl)

  • Administer 1 drop of tropicamide, the extent and speed of dilation can be enhanced by application a second drop after 5 minutes.
  • After 15-20 minutes the pupil should be fully dilated (lasts 3-8h).
  • Dark room
  • Direct ophthalmoscopy
  • Indirect ophthalmoscopy
    → monocular indirect ophthalmoscope
    → binocular indirect ophthalmoscope
38
Q

Direct ophthalmoscopy

A
  • upright image of the patient’s fundus
  • noninverted and magnified 15 to 17 times
  • the field of view is much more restricted as compared with indirect techniques due to the higher magnification
  • focal fundic lesions/optic nerve hypoplasia/anterior chamber
  • Low cost
  • Lack of stereopsis (difficult to discern depth of lesion)
  • Limited evaluation of the peripheral fundus
  • Proximity of the examiner’s face to the patient
39
Q

Steps of fundic examination: Direct ophthalmoscope

A
  1. Dark room, lens set to 0 D for fundus.
    Locate the patient’s fundic/tapetal reflection
    from approximately an arm’s length distance.

May reveal:
Anisocoria (different pupil size)
Dyscoria (abnormal pupil shape)
Absence tapetal reflection
Aphakic crescent if the lens is subluxated or
luxated
Strabismus (abnormal direction of gaze)
Nuclear sclerosis

  1. Then move 2 to 4 cm from the patient’s eye to widen the field of view
  2. Identify the optic nerve, then
    thoroughly examine the remainder of
    the fundus in quadrants.
40
Q

Direct ophthalmoscope slit beam for evaluating

A

fundic elevations and depressions & anterior segment magnification.

41
Q

Direct ophthalmoscope:
graticule grid for →

A

size estimation

42
Q

Direct ophthalmoscope:
cobalt blue light for →

A

viewing corneal fluorescein uptake

43
Q

Direct ophthalmoscope:
red-free light for →

A

differentiation of
hemorrhage (appears black) and
pigment (appears brown)

44
Q

A direct ophthalmoscope held 2 cm from the cornea can focus on what structures at what diopters?
(the lens wheel should be rotated through positive diopters to bring various structures into focus)

A
  • Cornea +15 to +20
  • Anterior chamber +12 to +20
  • Iris and pupil +12
  • Lens +8 to +12
  • Vitreous 0 to +10
45
Q

whats this

A

Monocular indirect ophthalmoscope (Indirect ophthalmoscopy)

you can still evaluate the fundus this way

46
Q

whats this

A

Binocular indirect ophthalmoscope
(Indirect ophthalmoscopy)

this one tends to show you more

47
Q

describe this

A

Indirect ophthalmoscopy:
* 20 D or 30 D (diopter) handheld lenses for dogs and cats
* Large field of view
* Inverted and reversed image is obtained
* Low magnification
* Safer working distance from the patient (your face is farther away, your hand is still held in front of the eye)
* Expensive

48
Q

Neuro-ophthalmology assessment, name the steps (7)

A
  1. Menace response
  2. Dazzle reflex (reflex blink where the eyelids involuntarily blink in response to a sudden bright light (glare))
  3. Tracking response (cottonball test)
  4. Maze testing (vision test)
  5. Visual placing response (reflex act of animals in placing their legs to reach a surface they can see)
  6. Palpebral reflex
  7. Pupillary light reflexes (direct & indirect)
49
Q

Neuro-ophthalmology assessment. step
1. Explain.

A
  1. Menace response – cover one eye with one hand and stimulate (hand/finger) the other eye avoiding air currents. Perform on medial and lateral side. Eyelid closure is expected. Not present in dogs and cats under age 8-12 weeks.
  • Afferent: retina and Optic nerve (CN II)
  • Efferent: ipsilateral Facial nerve (CN VII)

Positive – vision is present
Negative – blindness, facial nerve paralysis or cerebellar lesion

50
Q

Neuro-ophthalmology assessment, step
2. Explain.

A
  1. Dazzle reflex – bright light is shown to the eye to evoke partial or complete eyelid closure with globe retraction.

Positive - suggests functional retina and optic nerve

Negative – facial nerve paralysis or subcortical blindness (the eye can see but the brain can’t)

51
Q

Neuro-ophthalmology assessment, step
3. Explain.

A
  1. Tracking response (cotton wool balls) – several small pieces are dropped from above the animals face once you have
    gained their attention. Note whether they track the object’s fall.
52
Q

Neuro-ophthalmology assessment steps
4. & 5. Explain.

A
  1. Maze testing- unfamiliar room, mixture of objects randomly placed in the room, animal at one corner and owner at the other side.
  2. Visual placing response (pictured)
53
Q

Neuro-ophthalmology assessment step
6. Explain.

A
  1. Palpebral (blink) reflex – tapping the medial and lateral canthal skin – brisk closing of the eyelids and globe retraction (facial
    nerve – cranial nerve VII).
  • Afferent: Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
  • Efferent: Facial nerve (CN VII)

Positive – intact sensory pathway (trigeminal nerves) and motor pathway (facial and abducent nerves).

Abnormal – poor sensation or facial nerve paralysis.

54
Q

Neuro-ophthalmology assessment step
7. Explain.

A

Pupillary light reflexes (PLR) in a dim light conditions (Focal strong light for pupil examination).

Direct
* Afferent: retina, optic nerve (CN II)
* Efferent: ipsilateral parasympathetic part of the oculomotor (CN III).

Indirect or consensual
* Afferent: retina-optic nerve (CN II)
* Efferent: contralateral parasympathetic part of the oculomotor (CN III)
* Negative – retinal, optic nerve or oculomotor nerve lesions

55
Q

What is the Tyndall effect in the slit lamp?

A

Similarly, the slit lamp makes use of the Tyndell effect to illuminate particles that may be floating in the fluids inside your eye. Called “cells,” these particles are the byproducts of inflammation (white blood cells) and can be observed using the slit lamp as a light source.