Operator Manual Flashcards

1
Q

Airworthiness Acceptance

A
  1. Verify A/C is In Service
  2. Review DMI’s for compliance
  3. MEL’s & CDL’s are accurately documented on dispatch or flight release
  4. Review MX log (past 14 days)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Required Items to Bring to Work

A
  1. Pilot certificate
  2. Medical certificate
  3. Spare glasses for international ops
  4. Company badge
  5. Photo identification
  6. Radio license
  7. Passport for international ops
  8. Flashlight in good working condition
  9. Headset in good working condition
  10. Flight bag
  11. Current Jepp app, FOM, and SOPM (ipad)
  12. Backup battery at 100%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

NTSBO

A

N- nature of emergency and expected landing condition
T- time available to prepare for landing
S- signal used for evacuation or non-evacuation once A/C has landed.
B- determine when brace position will be necessary
O- any other additional information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The flight deck crew is responsible for searching the flight deck every flight segment to include what places?

A

Air vents

Accessible bins, compartments, and access panels that do not require a special procedure or tool to open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

High AOV’s on Ground

A
  1. Complex taxi instructions
  2. Approaching, crossing, or entering an active runway
  3. Flight plan/runway verification in FMS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

High AOV’s in Flight

A
  1. Initiating a climb or descent
  2. Last 1000’ of climb or descent
  3. Below 1500’ or surrounding terrain
  4. Any time managing increased operational complexity with reduced safety margins
  5. Flight plan/runway verification in FMS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Minimum runway length

A

5400’
or,

W/ SAAT Level 3 or lower with F.E. <4000’

for 200/900: 5000’
for 700: 5200’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Circling to land are not authorized with weather below:

A

1000’ ceiling and 3 miles visibility or below chart minimums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Minimum fuel definition

A

Can’t accept any undue delay to destination.

1550/2200/2300 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Emergency fuel definition

A

Landing with less than 30 minutes of fuel

1050/1500/1550 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is a phone call made to MX?

A

As needed and/or completion of last flight of day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Recording mechanical irregularity prior to block out:

A

PIC records the mechanical irregularity in eAML.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Discovered mechanical irregularity after block out

A

If QRH procedure solves problem then record in eAML at end of flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Does the M-288 tag always need to be placed on thrust levers?

A

Only if the irregularity isn’t corrected under supervision of PIC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When is a hard landing supposed to be written up?

A

When at touchdown vertical speed was at or above 600 fpm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When is an overweight landing required to be written up?

A

When over maximum landing weight. Maximum rate of descent at touchdown is 300 fpm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What to do when you find tripped circuit breaker on ground.

A

Record in eAML and let MX fix it.

18
Q

What to do when you find tripped circuit breaker in flight?

A

QRH procedure.

19
Q

Minimum cleared width for 200?

A

75’

20
Q

Minimum cleared width for 700/900?

A

80’

21
Q

Can you land at an airport actively reporting light or moderate freezing drizzle or light freezing rain?

A

Yes

22
Q

May you takeoff when the weather is reporting light or moderate freezing drizzle or light freezing rain?

A

Yes. Operating within HOT guidelines.

23
Q

Freezing precipitation reported without a qualifier is considered as:

A

Moderate

24
Q

Does UP (unknown precipitation) prohibit flight operations?

A

No. Unless PIC determines otherwise.

25
Q

When is a alternate required on flight release?

A

0,1,2,3 rule

Airport in Alaska without more than 1 separate suitable runway

Freezing precip in forecast

TS or TSRA in forecast for destination at ETA

RCC less than 3

Crosswind limitation exceeded or forecast to be exceeded

26
Q

When is a second alternate required?

A

Both destination and first alternate are marginal weather (wx at mins)

Or using exemption 17347

27
Q

Exemption 17347 can be used when:

A

Main body is above minimums and condition language (TEMPO or PROB) indicate weather is at least half of minimums.

28
Q

What is the only thing allowed to be missing from wx report?

A

Sky Condition (ceiling) unless required by departure or approach

29
Q

In the event an element is NOTAM’d “unreliable”, can a flight depart or land?

A

Only when all required elements are included in the latest weather observation.

30
Q

When can you get a fuel increase?

A

When coordinated with dispatcher

31
Q

How much fuel can be decreased without contacting dispatcher?

A

200 lb or 50% of contingency fuel, whichever is most restrictive

32
Q

PIC should report to dispatcher as soon as practical:

A

ETA exceeds planned time by 15 minutes

Cruise altitude varies by 4k from flight plan

Airplane exceeds 100 NM from planned route

33
Q

Passengers may enplane and deplane when refueling except when

A

Refueling from left side.

34
Q

When refueling or defueling with passengers onboard ensure:

A

Direct communication with fueler and crew member takes place

Emergency exits unobstructed inside and outside

MCD open with stairs or jetway in place

35
Q

An original dispatch/flight release is required before a flight departs:

A

An original airport

Any airport after making an unscheduled landing including original airport

36
Q

An amendment to the release must be made when:

A
  1. Flight departs after more than 2 hours after ETD
  2. A/C swap
  3. Deferral (MEL/CDL) is added or removed
  4. PIC requests increase in fuel
  5. Change in route or altitude that changes MINTO. Except CDR when above it’s MINTO
  6. WX at alternate is forecast to be below minimums
  7. Change in crew member
  8. WX conditions change that could affect legality or safety of flight.
  9. Change in conditions or or discrepancy on release is discovered
  10. PIC or dispatcher believe flight is unable to depart with previous dispatch release for any reason.
37
Q

A dispatch/flight release must be amended after point of dispatch when:

A
  1. Addition of or change in alternate(s) is made for any reason
  2. Change in conditions or a discrepancy in information on previous dispatch/flight release is discovered
  3. Opinion of PIC/dispatcher the flight is unable to continue with previous dispatch/flight release
38
Q

Dispatch/flight release amendments must include:

A
  1. Amendment number
  2. Time
  3. Dispatcher’s initials
  4. Supporting documentation
39
Q

Minimum pushback crew

A

One pushback operator and one wingwalker

40
Q

Minimum arrival crew

A

One marshaller