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OPERATIVE DENTISTRY > OPERATIVE Sample Questions > Flashcards

OPERATIVE Sample Questions Flashcards

1
Q

which of the following statements regarding caries risk assessment is TRUE?
A. the presence of restorations is a good indicator of current caries activity
B. the presence of restorations is a good indicator of past caries activity
C. the presence of plaque biofilm is a good indicator of current caries activity
D. the presence of pit and fissure sealants is a good indicator of current caries activity

A

B

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2
Q

which of the following statements about indirect pulp caps is FALSE?
A. some leathery caries may be left in the preparation
B. a liner is generally recommended in the excavation
C. the operator should wait at least 6-8 weeks before reentry (if then)
D. the prognosis of pulp cap treatment is poorer than that of direct pulp caps

A

D

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3
Q 
smooth surface caries refers to \_\_\_
A. facial and lingual surfaces
B. occlusal pits and grooves
C. mesial and distal surfaces
D. A and C
A

D

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4
Q 
the use of the rubber dam is best indicated for \_\_\_
A. adhesive procedures
B. quadrant dentistry
C. teeth with challenging preparations
D. difficult patients
E. all of the above
A

E

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5
Q

for a dental hand instrument with a formula of 10-8.5-8-14, the number 10 refers to the ___
A. width of the blade in tenths of a mm
B. primary cutting edge angle in centigrades
C. blade length in mm
D. blade angle in centigrades

A

A

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6
Q

when placement of proximal retention locks in class II amalgam preparations is necessary, which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. one should not undermine the proximal enamel
B. one should not prepare locks entirely in the axial wall
C. even if deeper than ideal, one should use the axial wall as a guide for proximal lock placement
D. one should place locks 0.2mm inside the DEJ to ensure that the proximal enamel is not undermined

A

C

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7
Q 
which of the following statements about class V amalgam restorations is NOT correct?
A. the outline form is usually kidney shaped or crescent shaped
B. because the mesial, distal, gingival, and incisal walls of the tooth preparation are perpendicular to the external tooth surface, they usually diverge facially
C. using four corner coves instead of two full length grooves conserves dentin near the pulp and may reduce the possibility of a mechanical pulp exposure
D. if the outline form approaches an existing proximal restoration, it is better to leave a thin section of tooth structure between the two restorations (<1mm) than to join the restorations
A

D

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8
Q 
in the conventional class I composite preparation, retention is achieved by which of the following features?
1. occlusal convergence
2. occlusal bevel
3. bonding
4. retention grooves
A. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 3
A

B

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9
Q 
many factors affect tooth/cavity preparation. which of the following would be the LEAST important factor?
A. extent of the defect
B. size of the tooth
C. fracture lines
D. extent of the old material
A

B

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10
Q

which of the following statements about an amalgam tooth/cavity preparation is TRUE?
A. the enamel cavosurface margin angle must be 90 degrees
B. the cavosurface margin should provide for a 90 degree amalgam margin
C. all prepared walls should converge externally
D. retention form for class V preparations can be placed at the DEJ

A

B

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11
Q

causes of postoperative sensitivity with amalgam restorations include all of the following EXCEPT one. which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. lack of adequate condensation, especially lateral condensation in the proximal boxes
B. voids
C. extension onto the root surface
D. lack of dentinal sealing

A

C

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12
Q

when carving a class I amalgam restoration, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. carving may be made easier by waiting 1-2 minutes after condensation before it is started
B. the blade of the discoid carver should move parallel to the margins resting totally on the partially set amalgam
C. deep occlusal anatomy should not be carved
D. the carved amalgam outline should coincide with the cavosurface margins

A

B

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13
Q

the setting reaction of dental amalgam proceeds primarily by ___
A. dissolution of the entire alloy particle into mercury
B. dissolution of the copper from the particles into mercury
C. precipitation of tin-mercury crystals
D. mercury reaction with silver on or in the alloy particle

A

D

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14
Q

restoration of an appropriate proximal contact results in all of the following EXCEPT one. which is the EXCEPTION?
A. reduction or elimination of food impaction at the interdental papilla
B. provides appropriate space for the interdental papilla
C. provides increased retention form for the restoration
D. maintenance of the proper occlusal relationship

A

C

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15
Q 
major differences between etch and rinse (aka total etch) and self etching primer adhesive systems include all of the following EXCEPT one. which is the EXCEPTION?
A. time necessary to apply the materials
B. amount of smear layer removed
C. bond strengths to enamel
D. need for wet bonding
A

A

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16
Q

a casting may fail to seat on the prepared tooth owing to all of the following factors EXCEPT one. which is the EXCEPTION?
A. temporary cement still on the prepared tooth after the temporary restoration has been removed
B. proximal contacts of casting too heavy or too tight
C. undercuts present in prepared tooth
D. the occlusal of the prepared tooth was underreduced

A

D

17
Q 
all of the following reasons are likely to indicate the need for restoration of a cervical notch EXCEPT one. which is the EXCEPTION?
A. patient age
B. esthetic concern
C. tooth is symptomatic
D. deeply notched axially
A

A

18
Q

all of the following statements about slot retained complex amalgams are true EXCEPT one. which is the EXCEPTION?
A. slots should be at least 1.5mm in depth
B. slots should be 1mm or more in length
C. slots may be segmented or continuous
D. slots should be placed at least 0.5mm inside the DEJ

A

A

19
Q 
which one of the following acids is generally recommended for etching tooth structure?
A. maleic acid
B. polyacrylic acid
C. phosphoric acid
D. tartaric acid
E. ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid
A

C

20
Q

triturating a dental amalgam ___
A. reduces the size of the alloy particles
B. coats the alloy particles with mercury
C. reduces the crystal sizes as they form
D. dissolves the alloy particles in mercury

A

B

21
Q 
which of the following materials has the highest linear coefficient of thermal expansion?
A. amalgam
B. direct gold
C. tooth structure
D. composite resin
A

D

22
Q 
a cervical lesion should be restored if it is \_\_\_
A. carious
B. very sensitive
C. causing gingival inflammation
D. all of the above
A

D

23
Q

compared with amalgam restorations, composite restorations are ___
A. stronger
B. more technique sensitive
C. more resistant to occlusal forces
D. not indicated for class II restorations

A

B

24
Q

the one constant contraindication for a composite restoration is ___
A. occlusal factors
B. inability to isolate the operating area
C. extension onto the root surface
D. class I restoration with a high C factor

A

B

25
Q

which of the following statements regarding the choice between doing a composite or amalgam restoration is TRUE?
A. establishing restored proximal contacts is easier with composite
B. the amalgam is more difficult and technique sensitive
C. the composite generally uses more conservative tooth/cavity preparation
D. amalgam should be used for class II restorations

A

C

26
Q

match each condition of tooth loss with the most likely linked type of tooth loss:
A. mechanical wear secondary to abnormal forces (toothbrushing)
B. normal tooth wear
C. wear secondary to chemical presence
D. tooth loss in the cervical area secondary to biomechanical loading
1. abfraction
2. attrition
3. erosion
4. abrasion

A

A. mechanical wear secondary to abnormal forces (toothbrushing) = abrasion
B. normal tooth wear = attrition
C. wear secondary to chemical presence = erosion
D. tooth loss in the cervical area secondary to biomechanical loading = abfraction

27
Q

from the following list, select the 4 reasons to consider the restoration of abraded or eroded (noncarious) cervical lesions:
A. caries develops in the lesion
B. the defect is shallow and does not compromise the structural integrity of the tooth
C. intolerable sensitivity exists and is unresponsive to conservative desensitizing measures
D. the defect contributes to a phonetic problem
E. the area is to be involved in the design of an RPD
F. teeth are endodontically treated
G. the patient desires an esthetic improvement

A

A, C, E, G

28
Q

from the following list, select the 4 reasons associated with replacement of existing restorations:
A. marginal ridge discrepancy that contributes to food impaction
B. existing restoration has significant discrepancies and is a negative etiologic factor to adjacent teeth or tissue
C. light marginal staining not compromising esthetics and judged noncarious
D. poor proximal contour or a gingival overhang that contributes to periodontal breakdown
E. recurrent caries that can be adequately treated by a repair restoration
F. presence of shallow ditching around an amalgam restoration
G. for tooth-colored restorations, unacceptable esthetics

A

A, B, D, G

29
Q

match each pulpal condition with the most closely linked recommended pulp therapy:
A. mechanical pulp exposure, noncarious (<1mm)
B. remaining dentin thickness greater than 2mm over vital pulp
C. carious pulp exposure (>1mm) with purulent exudate
D. residual questionable dentin near pulp, asymptomatic tooth
1. endodontic therapy
2. no pulp therapy required
3. direct pulp cap
4. indirect pulp cap

A

A. mechanical pulp exposure, noncarious (<1mm) = direct pulp cap
B. remaining dentin thickness greater than 2mm over vital pulp = no pulp therapy required
C. various pulp exposure (>1mm) with purulent exudate = endodontic therapy
D. residual questionable dentin near pulp, asymptomatic tooth = indirect pulp cap

30
Q

place the following steps for the application of an etch and rinse (total etch) three step dental adhesive in correct sequence:
A. apply adhesive
B. rinse etchant and leave surface wet
C. complete tooth preparation
D. apply 2-3 layers of primer
E. etch enamel and dentin with phosphoric acid for 10-15 seconds
F. light cure

A

C, E, B, D, A, F

31
Q

place the following steps for a class II amalgam restoration in correct sequence:
A. check occlusion of restoration and adjust if necessary
B. place matrix and wedge
C. carve amalgam material
D. mix amalgam material
E. complete tooth preparation
F. condense amalgam material

A

E, B, D, F, C, A

32
Q 
from the following list, select the 2 functions of skirts in gold onlay tooth preparations:
A. increase retention form
B. provide bracing
C. increase resistance form
D. enhance esthetics
E. provide pulp protection
F. improve draw
A

A, C

OPERATIVE DENTISTRY (7 decks)

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