Operations Orders Section 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How many days to submit initial Use of Force report

A

Seven (7) days

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2
Q

Does a Use of Force report need to be completed for prisoners injured previous to police arrival or other than police employees?

A

No

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3
Q

Definition of the “Purpose Statement”

A

To ensure safety and security for each person in our community

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4
Q

To ensure safety and security for each person in our community is _________________?

A

The Purpose Statement

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5
Q

Guiding Values - P.R.I.D.E. are defined as?

A
Protection and Prevention 
Responsibility and Respect 
Integrity and Ideals
Dedication to Duty
Employee Excellence
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6
Q
Protection and Prevention 
Responsibility and Respect 
Integrity and Ideals
Dedication to Duty
Employee Excellence 

These values are considered what?

A

Guiding Values - P.R.I.D.E.

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7
Q

What is an “Administrative Regulation (AR)”?

A

An administrative order issued by the City Manager to establish an administrative policy for the City

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8
Q

An administrative order issued by the City Manager to establish an administrative policy for the City is what?

A

An Administrative Regulation (AR)

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9
Q

What is an “Administrator”?

A

Non-sworn employee equivalent to the sworn rank of commander who is responsible for the operations of a bureau.

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10
Q

A Non-sworn employee equivalent to the sworn rank of commander who is responsible for the operations of a bureau is a?

A

A Administrator

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11
Q

A “Beat” is ____________?

A

Area; the boundaries of which are definitely established; assigned to a police officer

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12
Q

An Area; the boundaries of which are definitely established; assigned to a police officer is a?

A

A Beat

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13
Q

A Child is?

A

Any person under 18 years of age (same as juvenile)

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14
Q

Any person under 18 years of age (same as juvenile) is a?

A

Child

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15
Q

The “City” is _____________?

A

Area within the corporate limits of the City of Phoenix

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16
Q

Area within the corporate limits of the City of Phoenix is the _____________?

A

The City

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17
Q

What is the “Criminal Justice System”?

A

All agencies related to the administration of the criminal and traffic laws of the city, state, and federal government, such as police, courts, prosecutors, and corrections

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18
Q

All agencies related to the administration of the criminal and traffic laws of the city, state, and federal government, such as police, courts, prosecutors, and corrections is considered _____________?

A

Criminal Justice System

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19
Q

A “Delinquent” is?

A

Any child adjudicated to have committed an act that would be considered a criminal act if committed by an adult

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20
Q

Any child adjudicated to have committed an act that would be considered a criminal act if committed by an adult is a

A

A “Delinquent”

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21
Q

A “Demotion” is ______________?

A

Reduction of an employee from a position in a higher class to a position in a lower class for which the maximum rate of pay is lower

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22
Q

A Reduction of an employee from a position in a higher class to a position in a lower class for which the maximum rate of pay is lower is a _____________?

A

A “demotion”

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23
Q

A “Detail” is ___________?

A

Any speciality function within the Department in which the personnel assigned are supervised by a sergeant or civilian equivalent

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24
Q

Any speciality function within the Department in which the personnel assigned are supervised by a sergeant or civilian equivalent is a __________?

A

Detail

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25
Q

A “Director” is a _____________?

A

Non-sworn employee equivalent to the sworn rank of assistant chief who is responsible for the operations of a division

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26
Q

Non-sworn employee equivalent to the sworn rank of assistant chief who is responsible for the operations of a division is a ______________?

A

“Director”

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27
Q

“Discrimination” is ______________?

A

Any act taken because of race, religion, sex, age, handicap, sexual orientation, or national origin, by an employee that unfairly and harmfully affects another person or employee

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28
Q

Any act taken because of race, religion, sex, age, handicap, sexual orientation, or national origin, by an employee that unfairly and harmfully affects another person or employee is ______________?

A

“Discrimination”

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29
Q

What is a “Dismissal”

A

Involuntary separation of an employee from City employment

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30
Q

Involuntary separation of an employee from City employment is ______________?

A

Dismissal

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31
Q

Duty Commander is an _______________?

A

On duty command officer who is responsible for all operations of the Department when the Police Chief or an assistant chief or director is not on duty

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32
Q

An “Employee” is ___________?

A

Both sworn police officers and non-sworn personnel of the Department

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33
Q

Field Based Reporting (FBR)

A

Form-based, one time data entry application designed to simplify the data entry and approval processes while improving the Departmental, state, and federal reporting compliance

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34
Q

Gender of words is _________?

A

Used anywhere in masculine, feminine, or neuter; shall be construed as though they were also used in another gender in all cases where they would so apply

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35
Q

Immediate Family are __________?

A

Members of an employee’s immediate family; means mother, father, husband, wife, son daughter, brother, sister, or stepchild of the employee. A relative who, has because of family circumstances, has been a parent substitute to the employee, maybe considered as a substitute for the mother or father in this definition.

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36
Q

Juvenile

A

Any person under 18 years of age (same as child)

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37
Q

Leave of Absence is _________?

A

Period of time during which an employee is excused from active duty.

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38
Q

Line Function is ___________?

A

Those activities and functions which deal with the initial response or contact with the public in performing the mission of the Department.

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39
Q

What is a “Leave of Absence”?

A

Period of time during which an employee is excused from active duty

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40
Q

Period of time during which an employee is excused from active duty is ____________?

A

A “Leave of Absence”

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41
Q

Manual is ______________?

A

Operations Orders, bureau manuels, and record management system (RMS) and FBR manuals that explain the current day-to-day operations and procedures for the Department as a whole of select units.

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42
Q

Must

A

Indicates that a requirement has to be completed to validate a particular procedure or to comply a particular legal requirement.

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43
Q

______________ Indicates that a requirement has to be completed to validate a particular procedure or to comply a particular legal requirement.

A

Must

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44
Q

Normal Business Hours

A

8 a.m. to 5 p.m., Monday through Friday except holidays.

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45
Q

Off Duty

A

Any time an employee is not on duty as defined in this order.

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46
Q

Officer

A

Any sworn police officer of the Department, to include persons of all ranks and to have no reference to civilian employees.

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47
Q

On Duty

A

Any time an employee is actively engaged in the performance of regularly assigned duties, when in the performance of a special mission for the Department, or when involved in any incident that requires the employee to act in the capacity of a police officer.

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48
Q

Order

A

A written or verbal instruction by a supervisor.

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49
Q

A written or verbal instruction by a supervisor is an ____________?

A

Order

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50
Q

Police commander

A

A sworn officer with the responsibility of commanding a bureau, precinct, or division.

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51
Q

A sworn officer with the responsibility of commanding a bureau, precinct, or division is a _______________?

A

Police commander

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52
Q

Precinct is _____________?

A

A geographical area consisting of a number of squad areas under the supervision of a commander.

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53
Q

A geographical area consisting of a number of squad areas under the supervision of a commander is a ________________?

A

Precinct

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54
Q

Police Incident

A

An occurrence or incident suggesting or requiring police action or service.

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55
Q

An occurrence or incident suggesting or requiring police action or service is a ___________?

A

Police Incident

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56
Q

Promotion is __________?

A

Advancement from a lower class to a higher class involving an increase in responsibility and salary.

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57
Q

Advancement from a lower class to a higher class involving an increase in responsibility and salary is a ____________?

A

Promotion

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58
Q

Records Management System (RMS) is?

A

Main Computer application used to manage Departmental records and submit reports while supporting solvability efforts in criminal investigations.

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59
Q

Main computer application used to manage Departmental records and submit reports while supporting solvability efforts in criminal investigations is ________?

A

Records Management System (RMS)

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60
Q

Reserve Officer is?

A

A full authority peace officer ho is not paid a salary.

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61
Q

A full authority peace officer who is not paid a salary is a ?

A

Reserve Officer

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62
Q

Senior Officer

A

A sworn officer in any given rank with longer service in that rank.

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63
Q

A sworn officer in any given rank with longer service in that rank is?

A

Senior officer

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64
Q

Sexual Harassment is?

A

Any unwanted and unsolicited verbal comment, physical contact, gesture, invitation, proposition, or related action of a sexual nature; it is also any demand for sexual favors, submission, or rejection of which is used as a basis for employment decisions affecting the complainant.

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65
Q

Any unwanted and unsolicited verbal comment, physical contact, gesture, invitation, proposition, or related action of a sexual nature; it is also any demand for sexual favors, submission, or rejection of which is used as a basis for employment decisions affecting the complainant is?

A

Sexual harassment

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66
Q

Shall, Will, and May

A

“Shall” and “Will” are mandatory; “may” is permissive.

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67
Q

Shift

A

A designated tour of duty.

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68
Q

A designated tour of duty is a ?

A

Shift

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69
Q

Should

A

Indicates a certain procedure or policy is preferred to obtain a desired result.

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70
Q

Indicates a certain procedure or policy is preferred to obtain a desired result is_________?

A

Should

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71
Q

Solo Reserve Officer

A

Reserve officer who has completed and maintains the requirements outlined in Operations Order 3.3, Police Reserve Program, which allows the reserve officer to work in a solo capacity.

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72
Q

Reserve officer who has completed and maintains the requirements outlined in Operations Order 3.3, Police Reserve Program, which allows the reserve officer to work in a solo capacity is a ?

A

Solo Reserve Officer

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73
Q

Police Lieutenant

A

A sworn officer with responsibilities that may include supervising or commanding a unit, patrol shift, or the Employment Services Bureau.

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74
Q

Squad area is ?

A

Geographical area consisting of a number of beats under the supervision of a sergeant.

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75
Q

Geographical area consisting of a number of beats under the supervision of a sergeant is a _____________?

A

Squad Area

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76
Q

Superior Officer

A

Officer of higher rank than the affected employee.

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77
Q

Supervisor is?

A

Officer or non-sworn employee who has obtained supervisory classification, or an employee assigned by the Police Chief to supervise the work of others.

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78
Q

Officer or non-sworn employee who has obtained supervisory classification, or an employee assigned by the Police Chief to supervise the work of others is?

A

a Supervisor

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79
Q

Suspension is?

A

Temporary separation of employees from their position who remain Department employees and are, therefore, subject to disciplinary action for conduct during the period of suspension.

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80
Q

Temporary separation of employees from their position who remain Department employees and are, therefore, subject to disciplinary action for conduct during the period of suspension is a ?

A

Suspension

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81
Q

Unit is?

A

Any specialty function within the Department in which the personnel assigned are commanded by a lieutenant or civilian equivalent.

82
Q

Any specialty function within the Department in which the personnel assigned are commanded by a lieutenant or civilian equivalent is a?

A

Unit

83
Q

Work Unit is

A

A bureau, precinct, and/or unit within a division that is considered a separate entity for the purpose of transfer.

84
Q

_______________ apprehended on the reservation after fresh pursuit may be arrested based on probable cause.

A

Non-Indians

1.4.K.4

85
Q

Offenses involving aircraft under the jurisdiction of the FBI include:

A

1.4.N.2

a. Hijacking
b. Theft
c. Carrying Concealed Weapon
d. Destruction of Aircraft or Facilities
e. False Reports
f. Stoways
g. Cargo Theft
h. Interference with Flight Crews

86
Q

Enforcement of all federal firearms regulations is the responsibility of the _______?

A

1.4.O.1

ATF

87
Q

Officers who respond to a call of theft, burglary, or robbery at a retail business or pawn shop in which firearms have been taken should notify ATF immediately __________________?

A

1.4.O.2

any time of the day or night

88
Q

If there are no state or city charges that can be brought against a person in possession of illegal firarms, the suspect ________ be booked on the federal charges ___________________?

A

1.4.O.6

may

if the detention is deemed necessary for the safety of the public.

89
Q

The U.S. Marshal Service will assume responsibility for the following federal violations:

A

1.4.R

Federal judges and their courts
Apprehension and prosecution of escaped federal prisoners
Apprehension of federal parole violators
Apprehension of federal probations violators
Apprehension of federal bond defaulters
Apprehension of federal failure to appear violators

90
Q

Reasonable Belief

A

1.5.2.A

When the facts and circumstances cause a reasonable and prudent law enforcement officer to act or think in a similar way under the circumstances.

91
Q

When the facts and circumstances cause a reasonable and prudent law enforcement officer to act or think in a similar way under the circumstances.

A

1.5.2.A

Reasonable Belief

92
Q

Non-Deadly Force

A

1.5.2.B

Is a tactic when properly applied has minimal or no risk causing death.

93
Q

Is a tactic when properly applied has minimal or no risk causing death.

A

1.5.2.B

Non-Deadly Force

94
Q

Deadly Force

A

1.5.2.C

Any tactic or use of force that creates a substantial risk of causing death or serious physical injury, such as the use of a firearm.

95
Q

Any tactic or use of force that creates a substantial risk of causing death or serious physical injury, such as the use of a firearm.

A

1.5.2.C

Deadly Force

96
Q

Serious Physical Injury

A

1.5.2.D

A bodily injury that creates a reasonable risk of death, causes serious and permanent disfigurement, or results in long term loss or impairment of functioning of any bodily member or organ.

97
Q

A bodily injury that creates a reasonable risk of death, causes serious and permanent disfigurement, or results in long term loss or impairment of functioning of any bodily member or organ.

A

1.5.2.D

Serious Physical Injury

98
Q

Excessive Force

A

1.5.2.E

The application of an unreasonable amount of force in a given incident based on the totality of the circumstances

99
Q

The application of an unreasonable amount of force in a given incident based on the totality of the circumstances

A

1.5.2.E

Excessive Force

100
Q

What are the six types of resistance?

A
Psychological Intimidation
Verbal Non-Compliance
Passive Resistance
Defensive Resistance
Active Aggression
Aggravated Active Aggression
101
Q

Psychological Intimidation

A

1.5.2.F

Non-verbal cues indicating subjects unwillingness or threats through attitude, appearance, and physical readiness.

102
Q

Non-verbal cues indicating subjects unwillingness or threats through attitude, appearance, and physical readiness.

A

1.5.2.F

Psychological Intimidation

103
Q

Verbal Non-Compliance

A

1.5.2.F

Verbal responses indicating unwillingness or threats.

104
Q

Verbal responses indicating unwillingness or threats.

A

1.5.2.F

Verbal Non-Compliance

105
Q

Officers are responsible for ___________ ___________ _____________ for subjects against whom force was used

A

Requesting medical treatment

106
Q

Any time there is an injury, or alleged injury, as a result of force used by Department personnel, employees will:

A

1.5.3.D

  • Examine any person claiming injury and render first aid, if necassary
  • Request paramedics to respond to the scene, if appropriate
  • Immediately notify a supervisor
107
Q

Techniques that have a minimal chance of injury

A

1.5.4.C

Soft Empty Hand Techniques

108
Q

Control and restraint techniques include, but not limited to:

A

1.5.4.C

Wrist locks
Joint locks
Pressure points
Handcuffing (metal, plastic, or soft restraint devices)
Restraining devices suck as Ripp restraints (transport use only)

Employees WILL NOT restrain subjects behind their back (hog-tying).

109
Q

The use of authorized chemical agents is considered a ___________?

A

1.5.4.D

Non-deadly tactic

110
Q

What is considered mandatory equipment which will be attached to the gunbelt and carried at all times

A

1.5.4.D.1

OC Spray

It will be carried in an upright position.

111
Q

Sworn employees in plainclothes below the rank of commander will carry ______________ as readily available as their weapon?

A

1.5.4.D.1

3/4-ounce OC spray

Optional for sworn employees assigned to undercover operations

112
Q

Who is authorized to Oleoresin Capsicum Spray Mark 9 Canister 18.34 ounce?

A

1.5.4.D.2

Supervisors
Officers and supervisors of the SAU, MOU DOU, and TRU
Canine Officers
Supervisors may direct an officer to deploy the Mark 9 canister reasonable to do so.

113
Q

Employees using the Mark-9 canister OC spray will direct a ______?______ burst into the face of the subjects from a minimum distance of
________?_________

A

1.5.4.D.2

One second

15 feet.

114
Q

Employees using the Mark-9 canister OC spray in a riot control situation should spray ______?_______ level, from a minimum distance of 15 feet, into the crowd until the deserved effect is achieved.

A

1.5.4.D.2

face

115
Q

ECD is considered a _______?________.

A

1.5.4.E

Non-deadly tactic

116
Q

Passive resistance

A

1.5.2.F

Physical actions that do not prevent an officer’s attempt to control

117
Q

Physical actions that do not prevent an officer’s attempt to control

A

1.5.2.F

Passive resistance

118
Q

Defensive resistance

A

1.5.2 F

Physical actions that attempt to prevent an officer’s control but does not involve attempt to harm the officer

Based on this definition slowly running from officers does not constitute defensive resistance

119
Q

Physical actions that attempt to prevent an officer’s control but does not involve attempt to harm the officer

Based on this definition, solely running from officers does not constitute defensive resistance

A

1.5.2. F

Defensive resistance

120
Q

Active aggression

A

1.5.2. F

Physical actions of assault

121
Q

Physical actions of assault

A

1.5.2.F

Active aggression

122
Q

Aggravated active aggression

A

1.5.2.F

Deadly force encounter

123
Q

Deadly force encounter

A

1.5.2.F

Aggravated active aggression

124
Q

Response options

The option used is determined by the totality of the circumstances

A

1.5.2.G

Presence 
Verbal direction 
Soft empty hand control and restraining device Chemical weapons 
Electronic control device (ECD)
Intermediate control techniques 
Carotid control technique 
Deadly force
125
Q
Presence 
Verbal direction 
Soft empty hand control and restraining device Chemical weapons 
Electronic control device (ECD)
Intermediate control techniques 
Carotid control technique 
Deadly force
A

1.5.2.G

Response options

the option used is determined by the totality of the circumstances

126
Q

Use of force policy

A

1.5.3.A

To use a reasonable amount of force to conduct lawful public safety activities

127
Q

Presence

A

1.5.2.G

Identification of authority

128
Q

Verbal direction

A

1.5.2. G

Commands of direction or arrest

129
Q

Soft empty can control and restraining devices

A

1.5.2.G

Techniques that have a minimal chance of injury

Restraining devices – handcuffs, ripp restraint, ankle cuffs, shackles.

130
Q

Chemical weapons

A
Oleoresin capsicum (OC)
Chloroacetophone (C/N)
2 Chlorobenzaimalonoitrile (C/S)
131
Q

Electronic control device

A

1.5.2.G

Taser

132
Q

Intermediate control techniques

A

1.5.2.G

Hard empty hand control
Impact weapons
Stun bag shotgun
Canine application

133
Q

Elements of force

A

1.5.3.B.3

Ability - subject has the reasonable ability to carry out the act
Opportunity - subject has the reasonable opportunity to carry out the act
Jeopardy - subject create jeopardy to the officer or others

134
Q

The application of an unreasonable amount of force in a given incident based on the totality of the circumstances

A

1.5.2F

Excessive Force

135
Q

What are the six types of resistance

A

1.5.2F

  1. Psychological Intimidation
  2. Verbal Non-Compliance
  3. Passive Resistance
  4. Defensive Resistance
  5. Active Aggression
  6. Aggravated Active Aggression
136
Q

Non verbal cue indicating subject’s unwillingness or threats through attitude, appearance, and physical readiness?

A

1.5.2F

Psychological Intimidation

137
Q

Verbal Responses

A

1.5.2F

Verbal Non-Complaince

138
Q

Physical actions that DO NOT prevent an officer’s attempt to control

A

1.5.2F

Passive Resistance

139
Q

Physical actions that attempt to prevent an officer’s control but DOES NOT involve attempts to harm the officer

  * Based on this definition, solely running from officers does not constitute  defensive resistance
A

1.5.2F

Defensive Resistance

140
Q

Physical actions assault

A

1.5.2F

Active Aggression

141
Q

Deadly Force Encounter is?

A

1.5.2F

Aggravated Active Aggression

142
Q

Option used is determined by the totality of the circumstances is?

A

1.5.2G

Response Options
   Presence
   Verbal Direction
   Soft Empty Hand Control and Restraining
   Chemical Weapons
   Electronic Control Device (ECD)
   Intermediate Control Techniques
  Carotid Control Technique
  Deadly Force
143
Q

Identification of Authority is?

A

1.5.4.A

Presence
Presence is established through identification of authority

The presence of a canine at a scene fall under this parameter
144
Q

Commands of direction or arrest

A

1.5.4.B

Verbal Direction

145
Q

Techniques that have a minimal chance of injury

A

1.5.4.B

Wrist locks
Joint locks
Pressure Points
Handcuffing (metal, plastic, or soft restraint devices)
Restraining devices such a Ripp restraints, ankle cuffs, and shackles (transport use only)

Employees WILL NOT restrain subjects with their legs behind their back (hog-tying)

146
Q

Oleoresin capsicum (OC), Chloroacetophenone (C/N), and 2-Chlorobenzaimalononitrile (C/S)

A

1.5.4.D

Chemical Weapons

147
Q

For example, Taser.

A

1.5.4.E

Electronic Control Device

148
Q

Techniques that have a probability of injury.

* Hard Empty Hand Control
* Impact Weapons
* Stunbag Shotgun
* Canine Application
A

1.5.4.F

Intermediate Control Technques

149
Q

What is the use of force policy of the department?

A

1.5.3.A

To use a reasonable amount of force to conduct lawful public safety activities

150
Q

What are the three elements of force officers need to consider?

A

1.5.3.B.3

Ability - Subject has the reasonable ability to carry out the act
Opportunity - Subject has the reasonable opportunity to carry out the act
Jeopardy - Subject creates jeopardy to the officer or others

151
Q

Any time there is an injury, or an alleged injury, as a result of force used by Department personnel, employees will:

A

1.5.3.D

  • Examine any person claiming injury and render first aid, if necessary.
  • Request paramedics to respond to the scene, if appropriate.
  • Immediately notify a supervisor
152
Q

Verbal Persuasion, Negotiation, or Command

A

1.5.4.B

Includes instruction or direction from an officer in the form of verbal statements or commands.

153
Q

Soft Empty Hand Hechniques and Restraining Devices

Techniques have a minimal chance of injury

A

Control and restraint techniques include, but are not limited to:
Wrist locks
Joint locks
Pressure points
Handcuffing (metal, plastic, or soft restraint devices)
Restraining devices such as Ripp restraints, ankle cuffs, and shackles

Employees will not restrain subjects with their legs their back (hog-tying)

154
Q

Authorized use of chemical agents?

A

Non-deadly tactic

Oleoresin Capsicum

155
Q

What is considered mandatory equipment for uniformed employees and will be attached to the gunbelt and carried at all times upright posistion

A

1.5.4.D

OC

156
Q

ALL sworn plainclothes employees below the rank of commander will carry ??? as readily available as a their weapon

A

1.5.4.D

3/4-ounce of OC

Optional for sworn employees assigned to undercover operations

157
Q

Use of an ECD (electronic control device) is considered?

A

1.5.4.E

A non-deadly tactic

158
Q

ECD (electronic control device) may be used on subjects who are displaying???

A

1.5.4.E(1)

Active aggression or who are placing an officer or a third party in reasonable apprehension of imminent of physical injury, or to prevent the subject from harming them self

159
Q

ECD’s will not be used for any of the following?

A

1.5.4.E(1)

Coercion
Subjects soley running from the officer
Subjects near flammable liquid or gasses
Escorting or prodding individuals
Waking unconscious or intoxicated individuals
Individuals operating a motor vehicle
Individuals holding a firearm when their finger on the trigger
Handcuffed prisoners resisting/refusing
160
Q

Employees will avoid using ECD’s against the following subjects, unless officers can articulate other reasonable force options have been tried or were unlikely to succeed

A

1.5.4.E(1)

Female subjects known to be pregnant or who are visibly pregnant
Elderly subjects
Young subjects
Handcuffed prisoners

161
Q

What is the primary target areas ECD probe deployment?

A

1.5.4.E.(1)

Center mass of the subject’s back

162
Q

What is the secondary target areas for ECD’s probe deployment?

A

1.5.4.E(1)

Side of the body below the diaphragm
Unable to target subjects back or sides, employees should target the lower front torso just above the belt line

163
Q

What are the five intermediate control techniques (techniques that may result in injury)?

A

Ops 1.5.4F

  1. Hard Empty-Hand Techniques
  2. Impact Weapons
  3. Flashlights
  4. Canines
  5. Stun-bag Shotguns and 37mm Direct Impact Munitions (SAU)
164
Q

Impact weapon strikes may be used when facing what level of resistance?

A

Ops 1.5.4F

Active aggression level of resistance

165
Q

Canines are considered a ______?_______ when properly deployed.

A

Ops 1.5.4F

A non-deadly tactic

166
Q

Who will be immediately notified of ALL incidents involving the use of a Stunbag shotgun or 37mm Direct Impact Munitions (SAU)?

A

Ops 1.5.4F5

The affected bureau/precinct/duty commander

167
Q

What are the primary target areas of a stun-bag shotgun?

A

Ops 1.5.4F

Arms below the elbow
Lower abdomen
Buttocks
Legs

168
Q

What is the optimal range of a Stunbag?

A

Ops 1.5.4F

5 - 20 yards

169
Q

What are the non-target ares of Stunbag shotgun and 37mm Direct Impact Munitions?

A

Ops 1.5.4F

Head, Spine, Thorax, Neck

Note: Shots to non-target areas can result in fatal or serious injury.

170
Q

When can the Carotid Control Technique be used on subjects?

A

Ops 1.5.4G

When subjects are using active aggression, aggravated active aggression or who are a threat to themselves or others.

*If oxygenated blood flow to the brain is cut off for 4 - 6 minutes, irreparable brain damage may occur.

171
Q

What are the notification guidelines when the carotid control technique has been used

A

Ops 1.5.4G

Notify a supervisor IMMEDIATELY
Advise receiving/detention officers
Will be reported on relevant reports, booking forms, referrals, etc.

  • Employees WILL NOT use carotid control technique more than once on the same subject.
172
Q

What are the notifications guidelines (reference deadly force) when an employee discharges any firearm?

A

Ops 1.5.4H

Make a verbal report to a supervisor as soon as possible and submit a written report as soon as practical.

The employee’s bureau/precinct commander or the duty commander will be advised of the weapon discharge incident.

173
Q

All sworn employees below the rank of ____?____ will receive annual training regarding use of OC spray.

A

Ops 1.5.5D

Rank of commander

174
Q

A Use of Force report ____?____ be completed on prisoner injuries occurring prior to police arrival or by means other than police but police employees.

A

Ops 1.5.6B(1)(b)

Will Not

175
Q

Supervisors will submit the initial Use of Force report within ___?___ days of notification of the incident.

A

Ops 1.5.6B(2)

Seven (7)

176
Q

Use of Force reports will be submitted up to the commander within ____?_____ of the invitation of the report

A

Ops 1.5.6B(3)

30 days

177
Q

What are the reporting requirements for ALL incidents involving ECD

A

Ops 1.6A(3)

A supervisor with be contacted as soon as possible
The ECD will be downloaded immediately prior to the completion of the Use of Force report
Supervisors will complete an Event Information Log for ECDs and attached electronically to the Use of Force report
An IR will be completed with use of force explained in the Narrative section including the reason for the ECD deployment and target and impact areas.
Supervisors will complete a Use of Force report which include the following
* Serial number of ECD
* Number of times deployed
*Distance of the subject from the operator/s who deployed the ECD
*Effectiveness and result of use

178
Q

All Department canine injury incidents will be investigated and documented by a ____?______ using the standard bite report format.

A

Ops 1.5.6A(4)

Canine Unit supervisor

*The Canine Unit supervisor will also complete the Use of Force report

179
Q

All shooting and use of force incidents resulting in death or serious injury involving employees of this Department will be investigated concurrently by

A

Ops 1.5.7.B(1)

Professional Standards Bureau (PSB) - Completes the Use of Force report
Involved employee’s supvervisor
Violent Crimes Bureau (VCB)/Homicide Unit
Incident Review Unit (IRU)

180
Q

For non-injury accidental discharges not involving a police action and shooting of animals, the ____?____ will investigate the incident and complete the Use of Force report.

A

Ops 1.5.7.B(2)

Employee’s supervisor

181
Q

If accidental discharge occurs while the employee is performing a police function and a citizen or subject is in close proximity, ___?___ will conduct the investigation and complete the Use of Force report.

A

Ops 1.5.7.B(3)

PSB

182
Q

The highest ranking officer at the scene will notify ____?_____

A

Ops 1.5.7.C

PSB Commander, VCB commander and IRU/Legal unit lieutenant

183
Q

Employees involved in any incident in which their firearm was discharged will release the firearm to who?

A

Ops 1.5.7.D(1)

The officer or supervisor responsible for the investigation.

Employees will be issued another firearm by PSB prior to going off shift or returning to duty.

184
Q

The PSB ___?____ will forward a copy of the PSB report to ____?____

A

Ops 1.5.7.E(1)

PSB Commander to employees assistant chief and Use of Force Board chairperson

185
Q

Incidents investigated by the Employee’s supervisor will be forwarded to the ___?___ of the involved employee’s bureau/precinct.

A

Ops 1.5.7.E(2)

Commander

186
Q

The ___?___ will review deadly force incidents and identify any related training needs.

A

Ops 1.5.8.A(1)

Tactical Review Committee

The TRC does not have authority to make recommendations on whether or not a particular use of force in the incident reviewed complies with Department policy.

187
Q

The TRC will report to the ___?___ and will consist of the following personnel

A

Ops 1.5.8.B(1)

PSB Commander

Training Bureau commander (chair)
Department Legal advisor (or representative)
ALEA Basic Training lieutenant 
PPSLA president (or representative)
PLEA president (or representative)
188
Q

The TRC sub committee consisting of an officer, sergeant, and lieutenant chosen for the following positions ions will attend each VCB debriefing following a deadly force incident

A

Ops 1.5.8.C(1)

Officer - TTD, SAU, Patrol
Sergeant - Firearms, SAU training, tactical training, and Patrol
Lieutenant- Advanced Training/Proficiency, SAU, Night Enforcement, and Patrol

189
Q

___?____ will make final determination on any training needs.

A

Ops 1.5.8.C(2)

TRC (Tactical Review Committee)

190
Q

When a training need is identified by the TRC, ___?___ will attend the mandatory training.

A

Ops 1.5.8.D(1)

All officers and supervisors involved

Exception of extenuating circumstances, the prescribed training shall be satisfactorily completed within two weeks of the date recommended

191
Q

The ___?___ will be responsible for designing and delivering training based on the review and recommendations made by the TRC

A

Ops 1.5.8.E(1)

Training Bureau

192
Q

Any situation where a Department employee seriously injures or kills a person is

A

Ops 1.5.9.B(1)

Use of Force Incident

193
Q

All employees directly involved in a use of force incident resulting in death or serious injury will attend at least __?__ session of psychological debriefing with one of the contracted psychologists listed in this order

A

1.5.9.D(1)

One

194
Q

The psychological debriefing will be scheduled ___?___ after the incident by the employee’s immediate supervisor.

A

Ops 1.5.9.D (2)

As soon as possible

195
Q

The psychological debriefing will be scheduled as soon as possible after the incident by ___?___

A

Ops 1.5.9.D(2)

The employee’s immediate supervisor.

196
Q

Verification of the visit, not the contents, from the psychologist will be included with post use of force checklist to be forwarded to___?___

A

Ops 1.5.9.D(3)

Appropriate assistant chief

197
Q

Any employee who ___?___ or ___?___ a person and is able to work may be assigned to home for ___?___ following the incident.

A

Ops 1.5.9.E(1)

Seriously injures or kills.

Three days

198
Q

The ___?____ may return the employee for full duty prior to the Use of Force Review Board upon recommendation of the officer’s ___?____

A

Ops 1.5.9.E(2)

Chief of Police By assistant chief

199
Q

Any employee involved in a Use of Force incident resulting in assignment at home will submit ___?___

A

Ops 1.5.9.(2)

Leave request Form 80-80D reason code PC. Use of force admin leave

200
Q

All employee’s directly involved in a ___?___ discharge of a firearm will be referred to ___?___ for an appointment prior to returning to enforcement duty from admin leave

A

Ops 1.5.9.E(3)

Class III. Training Bureau firearms staff

Scheduled by bureau/precinct commander/administrator