Operations Flashcards
1
Q
EMS: OKCFD is certified by OSDH EMS division as an _____.
A
Emergency Medical Response Agency
2
Q
As an EMRA, OKCFD provides medical care under the supervision of ____.
A
Physician Medical Director
3
Q
Who provides medical care protocols to OKCFD?
A
Physician Medical Director
4
Q
There are how many medical priority dispatch system priority classifications?
A
Alpha
Bravo
Charlie - possible life threatening
Delta - Life threatening
5
Q
When hazards exist at a crime scene or traffic safety hazards exist, who will be accountable for the safety of patients and rescue personnel?
A
The ranking Law Enforcement Officer.
6
Q
Who makes up the contact team in an active threat response?
A
Police officer(s) whose primary mission is to stop the active threat.
7
Q
Who makes up the rescue team in an active threat response?
A
A group of fire and police personnel assigned to enter areas cleared by the Contact Team.
8
Q
What is the inner perimeter in an active threat response?
A
Encompasses the danger zone
9
Q
What is the outer perimeter defined as in an active threat response?
A
encompasses the danger zone and staging areas for first responders and protects the public.
10
Q
What is a safe reception center used to provide info and assistance about missing or unaccounted for persons and the deceased in an active threat response?
A
Family Assistance Center.
11
Q
Active threat response OKCFD will monitor what channel?
A
OCPD Dispatch channel 6
12
Q
What is the OKCFD response to an “active assailant”?
A
2 Engines
1 RL
Hazmat 5
District Chief
13
Q
Who assumes the role of staging manager on an active threat response?
A
The first Fire Company officer at staging.
14
Q
Who organizes and maintains a list of incoming Fire Police Ambulance resources on an active threat response?
A
The staging manager
15
Q
Active threat: The first arriving law enforcement teams will establish contact teams of how many people?
A
2-6
16
Q
The initial Contact Team will designate a radio officer to communicate what?
A
Entry point, direction of travel, suspect info, location of injured victims, and location of barricades or explosives.
17
Q
Rescue teams will consist of a minimum of how many FF’s?
A
minimum 2 preferably 4 and a minimum one police officer
18
Q
Rescue teams will evacuate casualties to where?
A
Casualty Collection Point
19
Q
Who staffs and manages the primary CCP?
A
The EMS transport agency
20
Q
The Rehab Officer will typically report to whom in the framework of IMS?
A
Logistics Officer
21
Q
What will mark the entry/exit of rehab?
A
two traffic cones
22
Q
Rehab should be divided into how many areas?
A
Immediate Rehab
Staged and Ready
Medical
23
Q
What three things should occur before a FF returns to duty from rehab?
A
Medical Eval
Hydration for 10 minutes
Cleared by Rehab Officer
24
Q
What is required of the medical kit in rehab?
A
Trauma kit, O2, defic, Rad-57 or defib with CO monitoring capabilities.
25
Employees will hydrate how much when SCBA's are being refilled?
8 oz.
26
During heat stress, each employee should consume at least ___oz per hour.
32 oz per hour
27
American Red Cross assists when incidents last longer than ___ hours.
Three or more hours.
28
Rehab rest should not be less than ____ and may be more than ____.
10 minutes
| an hour
29
Rehab pulse should be measured for ___ seconds.
| Pulse shouldn't exceed ____. If it does a temp should be taken, if it is less than ___ rehab time should be increased.
30 seconds
110 bpm
100.6
30
Vitals in rehab will be taken every ____
5-10 minutes.
31
In rehab if an employee's SpO2% is less than ___ they should be moved to medical.
94%
32
If SpCO% is greater than ___, treat for CO Poisoning.
3%
33
Who approves ATMR event coverage?
Deputy Chief of Operations
34
ATMR post-deployment will remove what?
Pannier bags, top rack bag, and AED.
35
The ordering of EMS supplies will be completed by the Blue Shift on what day?
Last Blue shift of the month by 1200. Submitted via EMS inventory database.
36
Expired EMS supplies will be delivered to ____ how often?
District Officers stations
quarterly: March, June, September, and November
Ms.NJ
37
How long are the plastic sleeve caps on O2 cylinders?
Green and three inches long
38
O2 cylinders should be hydrostatically tested how often/
Every Five years.
39
To schedule CPR training, contact a Coordinator or EMS office ___ days in advance.
30 days
40
Students in CPR must complete the written test with a score of ____
84%
41
Only a ___ or ____ can renew an instructor's status.
TCF or RF
42
BLS instructors must teach a minimum of ___ clasess in ____ years
4 classes in 2 years
43
BLS instructors must complete all course roster forms within ___ days of class instructed.
7 days.
44
A copy of rosters and course completion cards will be kept on record by EMS Office for ___ years.
three years
45
District CPR Coordinator should be notified of card expiration date no later than ___ days
90 days
46
Shift coordinators and District CPR coordinators will review CPR expiration reports how often?
monthly
47
Corrective Action by Training Center Coordinators for Instructors includes:
1. Remediation
2. Written Warning
3. Termination Review (No action, 6 mos probation, Revoke alignment for a year, Permanent termination)
48
Citizen CPR training should be requested ___ days in advance.
14 days
49
EMT's and Paramedics licensed after ____ will maintain both state and national registry licensure.
April 1, 2010
50
Flashing blue light on the carefusion clippers means?
5 minutes of runtime remaining
51
How many wrapped razor heads per clipper?
5
52
Initial credentialing of OMD academy requires a score of ____
80%
53
Personnel absent from work for greater than ___ days but less than ____ will be required to complete a protocol exam and complete ___ supervised shifts with a preceptor.
90 days
180 days
4 supervised shifts
54
Annual training is determined and established by whom?
Fire Department Administration
55
CO Monitors will be calibrated on what day?
The second day of the month.
56
Low pressure natural gas is approximately how much pressure?
5.3 oz
57
A medium pressure gas line ranges from ___ to ___.
1 - 60 psi
58
ONG surveys include:
Bar-hole
Flame-Ionization Equipment
Soapsuds
Vegetation and pressure drop observations
59
Breathing concentrations of ___% natural gas causes no ill effects.
25%
60
Natural gas is only about ___% as heavy as air.
65%
61
Odorant in natural gas is noticeable at ___% present in volume of air.
1%
62
The limits of flammability for natural gas is ___ to ___
5-15%
63
Burning natural gas produces what type of heat?
radiant
64
The ignition point of natural gas is ___
1,100 - 1,200 degrees F
65
Hazmat incident priorities are ___ ____ ___
Life
Property
Environment
66
OKC Emergency Management assumes a ____ role in ICS on a Hazmat scene.
Logistics
67
Hazmat: Scene Management Icludes:
1. Coordinating a multi-agency response
2. Implementing proper actions
3. Ensuring that appropriate resources are timely
68
Setting Zones for Hazmat:
Solid
Liquid
Gas
Solid 75'
Liquid 150'
Gas 330'
69
For any unknown, isolate how far?
330'
| 1/2 mile if product is involved in fire.
70
Isolating the hazard consists of :
Diking
Digging
Damming
71
The Cold Zone contains:
Support Zone
Staging
IC
EMS
72
Which zone has the contamination reduction corridor (Decon)?
Warm Zone
73
Hazmat: The First In Companies establish what?
Control Zone/Line
Basic Decon
Area of Refuge
74
Hazmat Monitoring helps evaluate and or detect proper what?
Zones
PPE
Discover IDLH conditions
Insure site safety
75
Eight areas monitored by Hazmat Unit.
1. Background
2. Command Post
3. Contamination Reduction Corridor
4. Area of Refuge
5. Exposures
6. Hot Zone
7. Exclusion Zone
8. Downwind/Perimeter
76
When must an EMS Hazmat Worksheet be completed?
Before entry and after leaving Hot and Warm zones, completed by EMS personnel.
77
Personnel in chem suits are expected to work no longer than ___ minutes.
20 minutes.
78
Personnel not allowed to wear semi-permeable or impermeable clothing if oral temp is greater than ___.
100.6
79
The average distance between IC and the hazmat unit is ____ feet.
100'
80
____ is a great area for the command post.
The Access Point
81
Hazmat response of an Engine and District Chief if the release is less than ___ gallons of liquid or ____ pounds of solid.
10 gallons liquid
20 lbs solid
No Chief if less than 10 gallons of motor fuel.
82
Small private airplanes can carry up to ___ gallons of fuel.
119
83
Techniques of decon :
Dilution
Absorption
Chemical Degradation
Isolation
84
Basic/Emergency Decon consists of ____.
60 second flush
85
Where are contaminated personnel assembled?
Area of Refuge following Basic Decon
86
Decontamination Checklist:
1. Est an entry point
2. Primary Decon
3. SCBA Removal
4. PPE Removal
5. Personal Clothing Removal
6. Decon the Body
7. Dry Off and Clean Clothing
8. Medical Eval
9. Transportation
87
The contamination reduction zone is how long?
80'
88
Personnel will be trained in First Responder Awareness and Operations level training within how many days?
90 days
89
Awareness level training is ___ hours.
8 hours
90
Operations level training is ___ hours.
40 hours
91
Confined Space meets what three requirements:
1. Large enough that an employee can enter and perform duties.
2. Limited means for entry/exit as needing to use all you limbs to enter the confined space.
3. Is not designed for continuous employee occupancy.
92
Hazards in a confined space are divided into two groups:
1. atmospheric
| 2. non-atmospheric
93
OSHA identified ___ hazards as the leading cause of deaths/injuries in confined spaces.
atmospheric hazards
94
Confined Space: If a hazardous material is involved follow _____.
O/SPO - 206
95
What are the five phases of rescue operations at collapse incidents?
1. Survey (evaluate stability, search for possible victims)
2. Removal of all surface victims
3. All voids searched for viable victims (audible call out/canine)
4. Selected debris removal (special tools)
5. General debris removal (No known survivors, heavy tools)
96
One cubic foot of dirt weighs ___
| One cubic yard of dirt weighs ___
100 lbs
| 2,700-3,500 lbs
97
Trench rescue: position all rigs at least ___ ft away
staging ___ ft away
Outer circle scene survey ____ ft around the scene
Inner circle survey ____ ft around the trench
150'
100'
100'
50'
98
Walk boards that may be used at a trench:
2x10
| 3/4" plywood
99
How big of a zone should be established if flammable liquids are leaking from a highway cargo tank?
150' zone
100
Who completes the site safety and health plan on a hazmat scene?
The Hazmat Branch Director/Group Supervisor
101
The Special Operations Officer establishes, standardizes, specifies, and coordinates:
```
Training
Equipment
Operation Procedures
Preplanning Procedures
Vehicles
(Acronym - POET Vehicles)
```
102
What is the prime responsibility of the Hazmat Safety Officer?
Safety of the Entry Team entering the Hot Zone/Exclusion Zone.
103
Who recommends PPE on Hazmat Scene?
Science Officer
104
Whose documentation will be used to fill out Exposure Reports on Hazmat scenes?
Entry/Exit Monitor
105
Hazmat Medical Group/Team members will be found where?
Dressing Area
| Rehabilitation Area
106
What six items are furnished to the examining physician on hazmat scene personnel?
1. OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120
2. Employees Duties
3. Exposure Levels
4. PPE
5. Previous Medical Exams
6. Chp 5 of Occupational and Safety Health Guidance Manual for Hazardous Waste Site Activities
107
Hazmat records are to be kept on file how long?
30 years after retirement
108
Drivers licenses will be checked how often?
semi-annually
109
What is used to request office supplies needed between quarters?
pink memo to deputy chief of ops
110
What concept allows for more direct contact between the fire station personnel and the public?
fire district management concept
111
Building survey consists of how many pages?
1. Quick CAD drawing
2. Word Document (Building Type, Size, Hazards, Sprinkler, Special Considerations, Emergency Contact)
3. More detailed drawing
112
When is hose inventoried?
First Monday JAJO
113
What are handlines lubricated with?
| Supply lines?
graphite on the couplings
| lubricated on the rubber gasket
114
All hose is tested when?
annually in September
115
The Company Officer conducts a rig inventory when?
The first day of each month.
116
How does a company officer request heavy equipment?
District Officer is dispatched to the scene and if approves, will contact OKCFD Emergency Management. The DO will then contact the Deputy Chief of Ops.
117
Who does the district officer notify if a stations power is out for more than 30 seconds?
Dep Chief of Ops
| Facilities Coordinator
118
Who does the district officer notify if a stations power is out greater than 4 hours?
Emergency Management Liaison for a portable generator.
| Facilities Coordinator to notify of use of portable generator.
119
The contents of a high rise fire generate ___ the BTU's from which current codes were derived.
2 1/2 x the BTU's
120
High Rise: capable of flashover in ____ minutes
| Typical response time of ____ minutes
10
| 20
121
High Rise: What size nozzle is on a high rise pack?
1 1/8" nozzle
122
High Rise:Who sets up Lobby Control?
4th Engine
123
High Rise:Who establishes the back up line?
5th Engine
124
High Rise:Where is staging on a high rise?
3 Floors below the fire
125
High Rise:Who acts as the Fire-Attack Stairwell Search Team?
3rd Ladder
126
High Rise:Who acts as the Evac Stairwell Search Team?
4th Ladder
127
High Rise:Who coordinates primary search of the fire floor with Fire Floor Division Officer?
2nd Ladder
128
High Rise:Who provides salvage covers for diking across elevator hoistway doors?
2nd Ladder
129
High Rise:Who initiates primary search on the floor above the fire floor?
Rescue 8
130
High Rise:Span of Control - Ops contains:
Fire Floor Division
USE
RIT
Staging
131
High Rise:Span of Control - Logistics contains:
Lobby Control
Stairwell Support
Base Officer
132
High Rise:Span of Control - Planning
Sit Stat/ReStat
VCS
Technical Specialist
133
High Rise:The Operations post is est by the Ops Chief where?
Two floors below fire floor
134
High Rise:Where is the initial Search and Rescue Post located?
Two floors below fire floor away from Ops Post; relocates to a floor above the fire once feasible.
135
High Rise:Base should be est how far away?
minimum 200'
136
High Rise: Who confers with Lobby Control and tracks resources committed to the operation inside the building?
SitStat/ReStat Unit
137
High Rise: What is the code enforcement specialty?
Water Supply Specialist
138
High Rise:Typical FD centrifugal pumps operate at their highest GPM flow at ___psi
150 psi
139
High Rise:What is next to search after having searched the floor directly above the fire floor?
The floor below the fire floor.
140
High Rise:What does a blinking fire hat in an elevator mean?
FAID as been activated, exit immediately.
141
High Rise:What % of personnel will succumb to fatigue, injury, or serious medical problem during their first assignment?
20%
142
High Rise Alarm is equivalent to a ___ alarm.
5th alarm
143
High Rise:What is the "Ready Reserve" Crew?
one floor below the "On Deck" crew
| third in the rotation on the three crew relief method
144
What are the two types of elevators?
Electric/traction
| Mechanical/hydraulic
145
Maximum height of a hydraulic elevator.
6-7 floors
146
What types of braking systems are on each type of elevator?
electric - automatic mechanical machine break
| hydraulic - doesn't have a break
147
Large elevator weight
| Small elevator weight
5,000 lbs
| 3,500 lbs
148
"On" position of Phase 1 lobby key switch does what?
Returns all elevators
149
"Bypass" position on Phase 1 lobby key switch does what?
Shunts out the sensing device circuit when heat or smoke initiated the return of the elevators
150
There is an identical three position key switch on the operation panel inside each elevator that travels more than ____ feet.
70 feet
151
The span for a side emergency elevator exit cannot exceed ___ distance.
30 inches
152
If an evacuation bridge isn't available, use a ____.
6 foot plank
153
What are the two types of manual elevator controls?
Independent Service
| Fire Service
154
Which elevator service mode requires a FF present at all times?
Independent service mode.
155
What is used to put out a fire in an elevator machine room?
Class C Extinguisher
156
Elevator Counterweight equals what?
weight of car plus 40% of cars carrying capacity
157
Drum Type Elevators seldom exceed ___ feet.
150 feet
158
_______ are gearless machines who have slow speed motors on a shaft mounted on a traction sheave grooved for hoisting cables; generally used in units moving at more than 400 feet per minute.
Electric Traction Elevator
159
Mechanical device used to limit the car speed; generally the fly ball type.
Governor
160
Brake type shoes used instead or rollers or wheels; operate as roller guides.
Guide Shoes
161
What is the location of the hoistway switch?
72" above and 12" to the side
162
Not used for lifts over 65' or speeds over 200 fpm.
Hydraulic Elevator
163
Elevator Landing Zone has a space of ____.
18-30 inches up or down
164
Oil pressure type brake on older elevators.
Oil Pot
165
Elevator safeties are usually activated when car speed exceeds ____% of their rated speeds.
15-20%
166
Elevator side emergency exits are found when hoistway doors are ___ apart; must be at least ____ high and ____ wide.
30" apart
60" high
14" wide
167
Top emergency exit size.
20" x 20"
168
Cars traveling over ___ floors must be in a vented hoistway.
3 floors; cars with doors must be vented top and bottom, all ventilation must be mechanical.
169
What color is :
Safety Banner Guard
Hazmat Banner Guard
Crowd Control Banner Guard
Safety - White
Hazmat - Orange
Crowd Control - Yellow
170
For specific tactics and methods used to control wild land fire refer to _____.
IFSTA manual "Fundamentals of Wild Land Firefighting"
171
Who decides during grass fire season if we will provde a task force response?
Deputy Chief of Operations
172
What are the dimensions and flow of a whip line?
1" whip line with 1/2" nozzle can flow up to 80gpm
173
Tankers are equipped with turrets that flow _____.
120-300 gpm
174
What is the minimum amount of brush pumpers required on a 1st alarm on medium or large grass fires?
Three brush pumpers
175
What are the important factors to be considered for successful tanker operations?
Shuttle Turn Time
| Shuttle GPM Flow
176
Fold-a-tanks will at least need to be connected with ____ to siphon.
2 - 5" hard suction hoses to siphon
177
When nurse feeding, if the fire will require more than ____ gallons, the engine will most likely run out of water.
3,000 gallons
178
Relay pumping from a draft, the tanker will drop what equipment and for whom?
Tank with hard suction hose, jet siphon, 1 section of 3" hosed and 1 section of 1 3/4" hose.
The equipment is for the second arriving engine company to draft with.
179
Notify ____ is water level falls to ____ when drafting.
Water Supply Officer
| Half
180
What percentages of Class A foam are used to:
1. Penetrate
2. Fire Attack
3. Pretreat a structure
1. .3%
2. .5%
3. 1%
181
When building a fire line with Class A foam, it needs to be ____ times the height of the the flames.
1.5 x height of flames
182
Brush Pumpers carry how much water?
300 gallons
183
Portable Tanks hold how much water?
2,500 gallons
184
Tankers have at least ____ gallons of water.
| OKCFD tankers have _____.
1,000 gallons
| 2,500 - 3,000 gallons
185
Grass Fire Task Force consists of what?
One Engine and Two BP
186
Recommended guidelines for a safe work zone of a traffic incident.
```
25mph - 55'
35mph - 120
45mph - 220'
55mph - 335'
65mph - 485'
```
187
When a mayday is transmitted, the IC will do what?
1. Acknowledge the Mayday
2. Activate RIT
3. Start another alarm and amabulance
4. Request an additional TAC channel
5. Gather info for RIT team (LUNAR)
6. Assign a RIT Ops
7. Call for a PAR
188
When is a PAR called?
1. Mayday
2. Conditions change
3. Operations mode change
4. Deemed necessary by IC
189
Dimensions of a Company Board:
3" x 6"
190
Company Board Name Tag Dimension:
.75" x 2.5"
191
Chiefs cars will contain how many extra name tags?
| extra company boards?
20 name tags
| 5 company boards
192
Helicopter landing zone is how large?
100' x 100'
193
What does TOWW stand for in helicopter procedures?
Terrain
Obstacles
Wind
Wires
194
What is the maximum slope in helicopter procedures?
5 degree
195
Helicopter LZ can be illuminated with lights in what direction?
Into the wind
196
There should be no obstructions how far from LZ?
100-150 feet up and downwind
197
If possible, land the helicopter how far away from scene?
No more than 50 yards
198
No smoking or running within how many feet of the helicopter?
50'
199
Civilians must be kept how far back from helicopter?
150'
200
During any ___ alarm or greater, the command post will be dispatched.
4th alarm or greater
201
The Mobile Command Center should be utilized when?
If an incident will extend beyond the first operational period.
202
Low voltage installations, less than ____ Volts exist in practically every building a FF enters.
600v
203
How is fire flow calculated?
[(L x W) / 3 ] x & involvement
204
At what stage of a fire does rollover occur?
Growth stage
205
The rate at which energy is generated by the burning of a fuel and oxygen mixture
Heat release rate
206
____ is also known as thermal decomposition
Pyrolysis
207
What poisonous gases are found in smoke from a house fire?
Carbon Monoxide
Hydrogen Cyanide
Phosgene
208
What are the coolant specifications on the Almand Light Tower Generator?
40% mix of antifreeze with water
| Maintained 1/2" from top of radiator
209
Almand Light Tower Generator takes what type of oil?
| Changed how often?
Crankcase oil should be 15w-40
| Changed after 100 hours for the first time and then at 250 hour intervals or annually.
210
Almand Light Tower Generator testing consists of what?
Weekly: inspected and ran for one hour
Monthly: turn on the lights
211
Almand Light Tower Generator holds how many gallons and runs for how long?
50 gallons
| 48 hours
212
Almand Light Tower Generator: where is the generator plug and how big?
50 Amp on the rear panel
213
NIMS:Studies have shown that response problems were far more likely to result from ____ than any other reason.
inadequate management
214
NIMS: What flexibility does the ICS need?
Interdisciplinary and Organizational
215
NIMS: ICS consists of procedures for controlling what?
Personnel
Facilities
Equipment
Communications
216
NIMS: ____ is an approach used to communicate functional actions throughout the entire ICS organization.
Management by objectives
217
NIMS: The incident action planning process includes what?
1. Understand OKCFD policy and direction
2. Assess incident situation
3. Est incident objectives
4. Select appropriate strategies
5. Perform tactical direction
6. Provide follow-up
218
NIMS: _____ include measurable strategic operations to be achieved and are prepared around a timeframe called an Operational Period.
IAP's
219
NIMS: What are the four elements at the simplest level of an IAP?
1. What do we want to do
2. Who is responsible for doing it
3. How do we communicated
4. What is the procedure if someone is injured
220
NIMS: What are the names and functions of the principal ICS facilities?
1. ICP -
2. Staging - Temporary locations where personnel and equipment are kept while waiting for tactical assignments. Resources in staging are in "available? status
3. Base - Primary Logistics and Administrative functions. Resources in the Base are OOS.
4. Camp - Where resources are kept if a Base is unavailable.
5. Helibase - Helicopter centered air ops
6. Helispot - Temporary land/take off locations
221
NIMS: ICS resources can be factored into what two categories?
Tactical - available to Ops
| Support - Food, Comm, Tents, etc...
222
NIMS: Tactical resources are always classified as one of the three things:
1. Assigned
2. Available
3. OOS
223
NIMS: Resource Management icludes:
```
Categorizing
Ordering
Dispatching
Tracking
Recovering
Reimbursement
```
224
NIMS: Effective ICS communication includes what three things?
Modes: Hardware
Planning: Plan for use of all available comm resources
Networks: Procedures and processes for transferring information internally and externally.
225
NIMS: ______ must be used when receiving or giving works assignments, requesting support, or reporting progress.
Formal communication
226
NIMS: ______ is used to exchange incident or event information only.
Informal communication
227
NIMS: ___ is how you value your job.
Duty
228
NIMS: What are the three portions of briefing elements?
1. Task
2. Purpose
3. End-State
229
NIMS: What are the Title and Support Position of Incident Command?
Incident Commander
| Deputy
230
NIMS: What are the Title and Support Position of Command Staff
Officer
| Assistant
231
NIMS: What are the Title and Support Position of General Staff (Section)
Chief
| Deputy
232
NIMS: What are the Title and Support Position of Branch
Director
| Deputy
233
NIMS: What are the Title and Support Position of Division/Group
Supervisor
| N/A
234
NIMS: What are the Title and Support Position of Unit
Leader
| Manager
235
NIMS: What are the Title and Support Position of Strike Team/Task Force
Leader
| Single Resource Boss
236
NIMS: ____ is defined as an agency or organization providing personnel, services, or other resources to the agency with direct responsibility for incident management.
Assisting Agency
237
NIMS: ____ is an agency supplying assistance other than direct operation or support functions or resources to the incident management effort.
Cooperating Agency
238
NIMS: Staging reports to ___ and is on a ____ minute available basis.
Operations
| three minute
239
NIMS: ____ can help identify resource requirements and determine if the existing management structure is appropriate.
Complexity Analysis
240
Equipment, video tapes, and training materials should not be loaned out more than ___ days.
Three days.
241
What is the age limit in the weight room?
No persons under 14.
