Operations Flashcards

1
Q

Validity periods
- OPC
- Line check
- Ground training
- Route & aerodrome

A

OPC - 6 months
[Specialised OPC - 12 months]
Line check - 12 months
Ground training - 12 months
Route & aerodrome - 12 months

[Take within last 3 months of period to get extension from previous expiry]
[Valid until LAST day of the month!]

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2
Q

Minimum number of cabin crew

A

1 crew member for every 50 (or fraction of 50) passenger SEATS on a given deck.

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3
Q

Flight Duty Period
- start and end
- limits

A

Starts at time required to report for duty, ends when engines are shut down at the end of the last sector.

Maximum of 13 hours (without extensions).
Reduced by 30 minutes for each sector over 2 sectors (up to 2 hours).

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4
Q

Duty hours limits
- 7 days
- 14 days
- 28 days

A

60 in any 7 days
110 in any 14 days
190 in any 28 days

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5
Q

Flight time limits (block hours)
- 28 days
- calendar year
- any 12 months

A

100 hours in 28 days
900 hours in a calendar year
1000 hours in any 12 months

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6
Q

Journey log

A

Single piece of paper (or equivalent) completed by PIC at end of flight including:
- Aircraft nationality & reg
- Date
- Names and assignments of crew
- Place of departure & arrival
- Time of departure & arrival
- Flight hours
- Nature of flight
- Incidents/observations
- PIC signature

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7
Q

Technical log

A

PIC enters all issues found during a sector.
Maintenance fix it or list as acceptable deferred defect (ADD) and replace pilots entry with a new one (including minimum equipment list reference).
Maintenance sign it (with required details - date, what was done) and next pilot signs to confirm acceptance.

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8
Q

MMEL

A

Master MEL
Created by designer of the type (aircraft) and state of the designer, listing items one or more of which may be unserviceable during flight. May be associated with limitations.

MEL is based off the MMEL

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9
Q

When during flight is MEL referred to?

A

Before taxy
After taxy the “Abnormal and Emergency procedures” in the operations manual is referred to instead.

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10
Q

CDL

A

Configuration Deviation List
Similar to MEL, found in the AFM (Aircraft flight manual) and refers to items that can be missing from the aircraft (as opposed to non-functional which is MEL).

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11
Q

Oxygen
- Flight & cabin crew

A
  • Entire time over 13,000ft
  • Time between 10,000ft and 13,000ft less the first 30 minutes

Subject to minimum of 30 minutes (increasing to 2 hours for FLIGHT crew if certified to fly over 25,000ft).

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12
Q

Oxygen
- Passengers

A

> 15,000ft: All passengers (at least 10 mins)
14-15,000ft: 30% of passengers
10-14,000ft: 10% of passengers (after first 30 mins)

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13
Q

Communications systems requirements
- IFR vs VFR

A

IFR (or VFR over routes that can’t be navigated using visual landmarks) require 2 independent systems to communicate with ground stations.

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14
Q

RVSM
- Description
- Operator approval

A

Allows separation of 1,000ft between FL290 and FL410 inclusive.
Approval will be reflected in the operators AOC.

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15
Q

Standard IFR flight levels

A

0-179 track: Odd [FL30, FL50,…, FL290]
180-359 track: Even [FL40, FL60,…,FL280]

Above FL290 switches to 2000ft gaps [FL290 East, FL310 West,..]

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16
Q

Requirements for RVSM

A
  • Pilots both trained
  • Operator certified
  • Aircraft has appropriate equipment
  • Aircraft certified and maintained for RVSM
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17
Q

RVSM
- equipment (4)

A
  • 2 independent altitude systems
  • Altitude alerting system
  • Automatic altitude control system
  • SSR with altitude reporting connected to the altitude system being used for altitude control
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18
Q

What to do if RVSM equipment fails

A

Inform ATC immediately.
Request routing to avoid RVSM airspace or leave it.

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19
Q

VFR visibility and cloud rules

A

Visibility
- Over 10,000ft: 8km
- Below 10,000ft: 5km

Cloud separation
- 1500m horizontal, 1000ft vertical
EXCEPT class F/G below 3,000ft AMSL or 1,000ft above ground (Clear of cloud, sight of surface)

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20
Q

Safe altitudes
- MSA
- MEA
- MOCA
- MORA

A

MSA: Min. Safe Sector Altitude
MOCA: Min. Obstacle Clearance Altitude
MEA: Min. Safe En-route Altitude
MORA: Min. Off-route Altitude

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21
Q

Weather requirements when
- planning flight
- taking off (i.e. during or after taxi)
- in flight

A

Planning stage: Planning minima +/- 1 hour
Taking off: Planning minima at ETA
In flight: Aerodrome operating minima

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22
Q

Take-off alternate
- When needed
- Requirements

A

Needed if landing conditions at departure aerodrome unsuitable.
It must have suitable forecasts +/- 1 hour of ETA.
Must be within:
1 hour @ OEI for 2 engine

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23
Q

En-route alternates
- when required (2)

A

Generally not required unless:
- ETOPS need them within authorised ETOPS diversion time at all points
- For reduced contingency fuel (RCF)

Need good forecast +/- 1 hour ETA

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24
Q

When is destination alternate not required? (2)

A
  • Flight time < 6hrs (or 4hrs remaining), 2 separate (crossing ok) runways AND ETA +/- 1hr have 5km vis and ceiling over (higher of) 2000ft or circling height +500ft.
  • Isolated destination in which case conditions need to meet dest alt conditions and fuel >= TRIP + CONT. + 2hrs CRUISE
    [this includes FRF]
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25
Q

Destination alternates
- weather window
- number needed

A

At least one must have suitable conditions for ETA +/- 1 hr (if one is required).
If weather at destination is unsuitable (or unknown), need 2 dest alts.

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26
Q

MDH vs DH reference point

A

DH uses threshold.
MDH uses aerodrome elevation, unless threshold is more than 2m below in which case switches to threshold.

27
Q

Planning minima for destination aerodrome

A

Visibility CAT.OP.MPA.110 and:
- Precision: Aerodrome operating minima
- NPA: Ceiling >= MDH

28
Q

Planning minima for destination alternate aerodrome

A

CAT II/III: CAT I RVR
CAT I: NPA RVR & ceiling >= MDH
NPA: 1,000m extra RVR, 200ft extra ceiling
Circling: Circling

29
Q

Standard take off visibility requirements

A

500m RVR/VIS in day with no facilities
OR 400m if either:
i) Day with runway edge lights OR centreline MARKINGS
ii) Night with runway end lights and either runway edge lights or centreline LIGHTS

30
Q

Pilot assessment of RVR

A

PIC can assess RVR themselves instead of just using reported values

31
Q

Low visibility take off
- general requirements

A

Pilot & co-pilot trained & qualified.
Both operator and aerodrome need to be approved for low visibility operations (LVO). Aerodrome needs low visibility procedures (LVP) to be established (if not operator must ensure equivalent procedures in place).

32
Q

LVP & LVTO definitions [LVO]

A

LVP: Procedures for LVTO and cat II & III landings
LVTO: Takeoff with 75m <= RVR < 400m

33
Q

Destination weather
- IFR takeoff
- IFR in flight

A

Can only take off if weather at destination and/or at required alternates is ok.
Once in the air can continue towards destination even if destination weather deteriorates, as long as alternate is within limits.

34
Q

Noise Abatement Departure Procedure 1
(NADP 1)

A

Initial climb: V(2) + 10 to 20kt
800ft: Reduce thrust
3000ft: Retract flaps and accelerate to en-route climb

This minimises noise near the aerodrome

35
Q

NADP 2

A

Initial climb: V(2) + 10 to 20kt
800ft: Retract flaps and accelerate with full thrust to V(ZF) [zero flap]
Flaps up: Reduce thrust, climb @ V(ZF) + 10kt
3000ft: Accelerate to en-route climb

This minimises noise away from the aerodrome

36
Q

When are special air reports required? (6)

A
  • Mod./Sev. turb
  • Mod./Sev. icing
  • Sev. mountain wave
  • TS (obsc, embd, wdsp or squall)
  • Heavy DS/SS
  • Volcanic ash cloud, eruption or pre-eruption
37
Q

V(AT) definition

A

or V(REF)
Threshold speed
= V(S0) * 1.3 or V(S1G) * 1.23

38
Q

Approach categories

A

Based on V(AT)
A: <91kt
B: 91-120kt
C: 121-140kt [A320]
D: 141-165kt
E: 166-210kt

39
Q

Met visibility and RVR

A

For LANDING ONLY, if there is no RVR can convert met visibility to a converted meteorological visibility (CMV) based on multiples:
HI lighting: 1.5x day, 2.0x night
Other lighting: 1.0x day, 1.5x night
No lighting: 1.0x day, n/a night

Can use this as RVR, subject to minimum 800m.

40
Q

Visual approach minimum RVR

41
Q

Non-precision approach
- Technique used
- RVR

A

MUST use CDFA

RVR>= 750m

42
Q

Minimum MDHs based on approach equipment

43
Q

Circling approach minima

A

Use minimum MDH and RVR based on the max of figures for the instrument approach, figures for category of aircraft and figures from a table:
A: 400ft, 1500m
B: 500ft, 1600m
C: 600ft, 2400m
D: 700ft, 3600m

44
Q

APV RVR

45
Q

Precision approach minimums

46
Q

Below what height should altitude callouts reference radio altimeter?

A

200ft above THRESHOLD elevation
[This is for CAT II/III approaches]

47
Q

Landing field length safety factors (jet)

A

Full stop landing from 50ft above aerodrome (down to min 35ft for steep approach) at threshold within:
Turbo-jet - 60% LDA

48
Q

Effect of a reduction in headwind on approach

A

The immediate effect is reduction in IAS, thus reduction in lift and falling below the glideslope.
Over time groundspeed will increase due to the lower headwind, but this will take a while to impact approach slope. Most important factor is the immediate loss of lift.

49
Q

Response to windshear/microburst

A

Aircraft alerts can be sensitive so might only be “vigilance”, but full response if microburst wind shear suspected.
Then initiate “wind shear go around”:
- Full thrust
- Pitch up to stick shaker
- Retract speed brakes

50
Q

Wake Turbulence
- Aircraft weight categories (flight plan letters)

A

J: A380
H: >136,000kg
M: 7,000kg to 136,000kg
L: <7,000kg
[MTOW]

51
Q

Wake Turbulence
- Separation times for LIGHT aircraft

52
Q

Wake Turbulence
- Separation times for MEDIUM aircraft

53
Q

Wake Turbulence
- Separation times for HEAVY aircraft

A

ONLY Departure behind SUPER - 2 mins

54
Q

Wake Turbulence
- Departing from intermediate runway position

A

Add 1 minute

55
Q

Holdover period

A

This is the time you have to take off before anti-icing becomes ineffective.
Starts from the beginning of application of anti-icing (the start of the second stage if 2 stage de/anti ice process).

56
Q

Snowtam braking action codes at related braking coefficients

A

1) Poor: <0.25
2) Medium to poor: 0.26-0.29
3) Medium: 0.30-0.35
4) Medium to good: 0.36-0.39
5) Good: >0.40

57
Q

Landing on wet/flooded runway
- approach speed
- landing firmness
- devices to use

A

INCREASE approach speed (heavy rain causes decrease in lift?!)
Firm landing to break film of water
Use lift dumpers and reverse thrusters to reduce braking demand

58
Q

Smoke detection zones vs fire detection areas

A

Fire detection in:
- Jet engine bays
- APU bays
- Main gear bays

Smoke elsewhere (e.g. cargo, cabins)

59
Q

3 types of hydroplaning

A

Dynamic: Tread can’t displace water
Viscous: Film of water reduces friction
Reverted Rubber: Heated rubber creates layer of steam

60
Q

Where does viscous hydroplaning tend to happen?

A

In the touchdown zones

61
Q

MOCA definition

A

+ 1000ft for terrain up to 6,000ft
+ 2000ft for terrain over 6,000ft

In general this is separation you need to achieve everywhere!

62
Q

Reason for a fuel jettison system

A

To achieve CS25 climb gradient requirements after take off

63
Q

Runways:
Damp
Wet
Contaminated

A

Damp: Not dry, but not shiny
Wet: Visible dampness, or water up to 3mm
Contaminated: More than 25% covered by standing water over 3mm or other contaminant