Operations Flashcards
1
Q
ICAO Annex 6
A
Specifically part I of annex 6, deals with operators authorised to conduct international commercial air transport.
EU OPS 1 (regulation 3922/91) derives from this.
2
Q
Definition of commercial operator
A
Transportation of people, cargo or mail for remuneration.
NOT military work, search & rescue, …
3
Q
Air Ops Regulation annexes:
I - Definitions
II - Part ARO
III - Part ORO
IV - Part CAT
V - Part SPA
[VI - Part NCC
VII - Part NCO
VIII - Part SPO]
[VI to VIII outside syllabus]
A
I - Definitions
II - ARO - Authority requirements
III - ORO - Organisational requirements
IV - CAT - Commercial Air Transport
V - SPA - Specific Approvals
[VI - NCC - Non-commercial complex
VII - NCO - Non-commercial non-complex
VIII - SPO - Specialised operations]
4
Q
Acceptance checklist
A
Document used to help perform an external check of dangerous goods
5
Q
Adult vs child vs infant
A
Adult is 12 years old or above
Child is 2 to 11 years old
Infant under 2 years old
6
Q
Flight dispatch officer
A
NOT licensed.
Typically assist with flight prep (NOTAMs, met, route info, company notices), flight plan prep, providing information during flight and assisting during emergency.
Must NOT conflict with ATC, met or comms services.
7
Q
Inexperienced flight crew
A
Can have only one on board.
To become “experienced” require either:
i) 100 hours & 10 sectors within 120 consecutive days; or
ii) 150 hours & 20 sectors (no time limit).
8
Q
PIC route knowledge
- requirement
- exception
A
PIC needs to maintain route knowledge by flying route (or to aerodrome) every 12 months.
This does NOT apply to class B in daytime VFR.
9
Q
CPL(A) acting as PIC on single pilot aeroplane
- VFR (over 50nm)
- IFR
A
i) For VFR outside a 50NM radius, need 500 hours flight time OR valid instrument rating (unless class B VFR daytime).
ii) For IFR, need 700 hours of which 400 as PIC (can substitute co-pilot time at 2 to 1). Of which 100 hours IFR and (for ME) 40 hours multi-engine.
10
Q
In-flight relief pilot differences
- Captain
- Co-pilot
A
PIC can be relieved by another commander, or above FL200 an ATPL with conversion/type training, recurrent checking and route/aerodrome competence.
[Q - “Delegate conduct of the flight”]
Co-pilot can be relieved by a similar pilot or above FL200 a CPL/IR, with conversion & recurrent training but DOESN’T need TO/L training.
11
Q
Taxi pilot requirements
A
Any personnel suitably trained and briefed (on aerodrome layout, signs, markings, ATC instructions).
12
Q
Flight engineers
A
If required by the AFM, need one with a Flight Engineers (FE) license.
13
Q
Navigators
A
ICAO annex 6 says if the state of operator decides flight can’t be safely conducted by pilots only, need a navigator.
EASA doesn’t mention this.
14
Q
When are 2 pilots required?
A
Under IFR or at night
(for jets and turbo-props with MOPSC > 9)
15
Q
Single pilot requirements
- IFR
A
- 50hrs flight time of which 10 PIC
In last 90 days in relevant class as single pilot: - 5 IFR flights with 3 instrument approaches; or
- an IFR instrument approach check
16
Q
Single pilot requirements
- Night
A
- 15 hours of flight at night
In last 90 days in relevant class as single pilot: - 3 TOLs at night; or
- night TOL check
17
Q
Conversion training
- what events is it required for?
A
Required whenever pilot starts with:
- new operator
- new aircraft type or
- new role.
Includes the type rating to EASA standards when requried.
18
Q
Differences training vs Familiarisation training
- What is involved
A
Familiarisation training is acquisition of additional knowledge ONLY.
Differences training requires acquisition of knowledge AND training on appropriate training device or the aircraft.
19
Q
Differences training vs Familiarisation training
- When is each used
A
Familiarisation is for another aircraft (may read VERSION of aircraft) of the same type or a SIGNIFICANT equipment change.
Differences training required for significant equipment change, another VARIANT of same type or another type of same class.
20
Q
Conversion course components (6)
A
Groundschool + Type rating exam
Emergency & safety equipment training
Sim training on type
Operator Proficiency Check (OPC)
Line training (LIFUS)
Line Proficiency Check (LPC)
21
Q
Flying other classes during conversion course
A
No flight duties or other class/types allowed to be flown during conversion courses.
22
Q
Maximum multiple types
A
- 3 piston engine types;
- 3 turbo-prop types;
Otherwise 1 of each thing: - 1 turbo-prop & 1 piston; or
- 1 turbo-prop & 1 jet
- 1 helicopter rating & 1 jet rating
23
Q
Other restrictions on flying multiple types
- crew numbers
- endorsements
A
Minimum crew numbers must be the same for all aircraft.
Max of 2 aircraft for which separate endorsements required.
Only aircraft with one endorsement type allowed in any flight duty period.
24
Q
Flying from either seat
A
This is allowed (i.e. captain sometimes, co-pilot others) provided all requirements are met
25
Validity periods
- OPC
- Line check
- Ground training
- Route & aerodrome
OPC - 6 months
[Specialised OPC - 12 months]
Line check - 12 months
Ground training - 12 months
Route & aerodrome - 12 months
[Take within last 3 months of period to get extension from previous expiry]
[Valid until LAST day of the month!]
26
Emergency & safety equipment training validity
12 months
Covers all safety equipment each year, but every 3 years more practical training (using slides, using fire extinguishers, operating exits, smoke) is required
27
CRM training
- extra subject if no atpl
- time period over which all topics covered
Need human factors theory course if no ATPL.
All CRM topics must be included in training over 3 years.
28
When must CRM training be complete by?
Before unsupervised line flying.
Can be after line training, base training etc.
29
Recency
- General rules
- Extra for PIC
1) PIC & co-pilot need 3 TOLs in last 90 days in the type/class (or FFS of type/class). [SIM OK!]
2) PIC @ night also needs an IR and 1 TOL at night in type/class (or FFS of type/class) in last 90 days.
90 days up to 120 days if under supervision of type rating instructor or examiner.
30
Recency
- Cruise pilot rules
Either meet the main rules (3 TOLs in 90 days) or:
i) 3 sectors in last 90 days as cruise pilot (in same type/class); or
ii) Recency & refresher training in type/class (or FFS of type class) every 90 days.
31
Aerodrome competence
- General
Aerodromes classified as A, B or C (A are the easiest).
Operations manual should specify qualifications to be class A and a list of the B & C aerodromes.
32
Aerodrome competence
- Class A
Need:
- An approved instrument approach
- A runway with no performance limited procedure for TO and/or L
- Published circling minima <=1000ft AAL
- Night operations
33
Aerodrome competence
- Class B
Either doesn't meet class A criteria or has other complicated factors such as:
- non-standard approach aids or patterns
- unusual local weather conditions
- unusual characteristics or performance limitations
Need to be briefed or self-briefed and certify you have done this.
34
Aerodrome competence
- Class C
More difficult than class C and require a visit there as an observer and instruction in approved flight simulator.
e.g. London City, Salzburg, Innsbruck
35
Minimum number of cabin crew
At least one for MOPSC > 19 with at least 1 passenger.
In general need:
1 crew member for every 50 (or fraction of 50) passenger SEATS on a given deck.
OR the number per the certification process
36
Factors of a flight impacting minimum cabin crew numbers (4)
- Doors (Number, types, location, actions required when in charge of door pairs)
- Location of cabin crew stations
- Actions required in ditching
- Type and duration of flight
[NOT experience, although ensuring appropriate experience of cabin crew is necessary - not all < 3 months]
37
Cabin crew requirements
- standard
- senior
Age 18, medically fit, initial training.
Need to be trained for a specific type of aircraft (up to 3 or 4 different ones concurrently).
Senior cabin crew need 1 years experience and further training.
38
Flight Duty Period
- start and end
- limits
Starts at time required to report for duty, ends when engines are shut down at the end of the last sector.
Maximum of 13 hours (without extensions).
Reduced by 30 minutes for each sector over 2 sectors (up to 2 hours).
39
Night Duty
Window of Circadian Low
Local Night
Night duty is any duty period encroaching on the 0200 to 0459 period.
Window of circadian low is 0200 to 0559.
Local night is 2200 to 0800.
40
Deduction of hours encroaching in window of circadian low
Max duty period reduced by number of hours inside WOCL.
Except limited to 2 hours deduction if starting during the WOCL.
41
Assumed acclimatised time zones
2 hours either side of departure time zone (home base)
42
Duty hours limits
- 7 days
- 14 days
- 28 days
60 in any 7 days
110 in any 14 days
190 in any 28 days
43
Maximum FDP
From a chart based on start time and # sectors, between 9 and 13 hours.
Biggest possible extension is 2 hours however, leading to possible length WITH EXTENSIONS of 15 hours.
44
Duty hours limit extensions
- by ops, with and without inflight rest
No inflight rest:
- Up to 1 hour per day, not more than twice in any 7 day period
With inflight rest:
- Specific to circumstances
[These extensions by operations, PIC due to unforseen circumstances can be 2 hours]
45
Considerations around extending flight duty period (FDP) due to in-flight rest (4)
- # sectors flown
- minimum in-flight rest of each crew
- type of in-flight rest
- augmentation of basic crew
46
Commanders discretion
- allowed extension
- minimum rest period
- reporting
To cope with UNFORSEEN CIRCUMSTANCES ONLY.
FDP increased by up to 2 hours (3 hours for augmented crew). Rest period can't be reduced below 10 hours.
Commander must consult all crew and consider possibility of severe fatigue, write a report for any discretion (to duty or rest) over an hour. Operator must submit report to competent authority within 28 days.
47
Flight time limits (block hours)
- 28 days
- calendar year
- any 12 months
100 hours in 28 days
900 hours in a calendar year
1000 hours in any 12 months
48
Standby duty
Must be in the roster and notified in advance.
Considered on duty from reporting at reporting point to the end of notified period.
Counts as full for "DUTY PERIOD", not "FLIGHT duty period".
Operator must establish maximum duration of standby and impact of standby on rest of duty periods.
49
Reserve
Must be in the roster.
Operator must establish maximum duration and number of consecutive days that may be assigned.
50
Minimum rest
Greater of preceding duty period and 12 hours for home base, 10 hours for away from home.
Must always allow for an 8 hour sleep.
51
Air Operators Certificate (AOC)
- Issuance
- Items included (6)
Issued by competent authority in the member state of operators principal place of business, when satisfied they meet the standards.
Includes:
- Operators identification & location
- Date of issue & validity period
- Operations authorised
- Types of aircraft authorised & reg's
- Authorised area of operation or routes
- Special authorisations/limitations
52
Air Operators Certificate (AOC)
- Example special authorisations
- Low visibility ops (e.g. minima)
- NAT HLA
- ETOPS
- PBN specifications
- RVSM
- Transportation of dangerous goods
- Authorisation to provide cabin crew initial training
53
Air Operators Certificate (AOC)
- Management Organisation
Part of approval by competent authority. Changes must be authorised before being made.
Should be suitable to operations intended (complex means >= 21 staff).
Involves documentation of processes, training, identification of safety hazards and risk approach etc.
54
Air Operators Certificate (AOC)
- main person
- 4 areas that need to be managed
Need an overall accountable manager responsible for ensuring regulations are met.
Need one or several persons nominated to ensure compliance in specific areas:
- Flight operations
- Crew training
- Ground operations
- Maintenance (continuing airworthiness)
[at least 2 people covering the 4 roles for complex organisation]
55
Air Operators Certificate (AOC)
- Safety requirements (2 roles, 2 other)
Need:
- safety manager [works FOR the board]
- safety review board [accountable manager chairs]
- safety policy
- safety management manual (may be part of a wider manual)
56
Who has direct safety accountability at an operator?
Accountable manager - NOT safety manager
[NOTE: non-complex operators can have an OPERATIONAL staff member looking after the safety program, e.g.
57
Air Operators Certificate (AOC)
- Power to inspect
Representation of the competent authority may board any operator aircraft at any time and remain on flight deck (unless commander deems safety of aeroplane would be endangered).
Operator and commander must provide any relevant documents requested.
58
Maintenance Quality System
- description
- record retention period
A system monitoring activities under Part-M including:
- Ensuring all activities are in accordance with required procedures;
- Ensuring all contracted maintenance is carried out in accordance with the contract; and
- Monitoring continued compliance with part-M.
[records stored for 2 years]
59
Air Operators Certificate (AOC)
- Required manuals
Maintenance Control manual
Operations manual
Flight Safety Document System
[Flight manual]
60
Flight Safety Document System
Distributes information to ALL operational personnel, has a means of checking it has been read.
61
Operations manual parts
Part-A: General/basic
Part-B: Aeroplane Operating matters (type related)
Part-C: Route/aerodrome information
Part-D: Training
Part-B can be substituted in part with aircraft flight manual and part-C with external route guidance info (e.g. Jeppesen).
62
Journey log
Single piece of paper (or equivalent) completed by PIC at end of flight including:
- Aircraft nationality & reg
- Date
- Names and assignments of crew
- Place of departure & arrival
- Time of departure & arrival
- Flight hours
- Nature of flight
- Incidents/observations
- PIC signature
63
Technical log
PIC enters all issues found during a sector.
Maintenance fix it or list as acceptable deferred defect (ADD) and replace pilots entry with a new one (including minimum equipment list reference).
Maintenance sign it (with required details - date, what was done) and next pilot signs to confirm acceptance.
64
Documents to be carried
- Certificates & licenses (6)
- Certificate of Registration
- Certificate of Airworthiness
- AOC [Certified copy]
- Noise certificate
- Radio license
- 3rd party insurance certificate
65
Documents to be carried
- Manuals & logs (5)
- Aircraft flight manual or equivalent
- Parts of ops manual relevant to duties of crew members
- MEL
- Journey log
- Technical log
66
Documents to be carried
- Flight documentation (9)
- Operational flight plan
- Filed ATS flight plan (if applicable)
- NOTAMs & AIS briefing
- Meteorological info
- Mass & balance
- Aeronautical charts
- Cargo & passenger manifests (if applic.)
- Special passenger info (if applic.)
- Special load info (if applic.)
67
Documents to be carried
- other (2)
- Interception info
- SAR info
68
Flight information that needs to be retained on the ground (5)
- Operational flight plan
- Relevant parts of technical log
- NOTAM documentation if edited by operator
- Mass and balance
- Special loads documentation
[Generally accident & incident investigation info]
69
Retention period for documents
- Flight data recordings
- Flight documents/data
- Recency
- Flight crew records
- Quality system
Flight data recordings: 60 days after accident
Flight documents/data: 3 months, except technical log which is 36 months.
Recency: 15 months
Fight crew: Mostly 3 years, except flight duty/rest (24 months) & recent experience (15 months).
Quality system: 5 years
70
Wet vs dry lease
Wet lease includes crew and is operated under lessors AOC.
Dry lease doesn't include crew and is operated under lessees AOC.
71
EASA - Wet lease in and out
This means in/out from/to non-EASA operator.
Lessee of wet lease in needs to demonstrate to EASA that it meets safety standards.
Lessor of wet lease out needs to send details of lessee and the lease agreement.
72
Dry lease in and out
Dry lease in lessee must demonstrate to EASA that the need couldn't be satisfied with an EU craft, duration is less than 7 months in any 12 month period and EASA regulations complied with.
Dry lease out need to coordinate with new competent authority the continued oversight and remove from the operators AOC.
73
Rules around sporting weapons
Must be unloaded and stored in a place that is inaccessible to passengers during flight.
Ammunition my be carried in checked baggage, subject to limitations.
74
Flight crew compartment security
- Requirements
- Time periods
Door must be lockable.
For MTOM >45,400kg or >60 passenger seating, needs to be lock/unlockable from both pilot seats, with a means of monitoring other side of door.
Should be closed before engine start, locked based on security procedure until shutdown (except for authorised persons to enter/exit).
75
Flight navigation during unlawful interference
Maintain assigned track and level if possible. If unable and can't inform ATC:
- Try to broadcast warnings on emergency channel;
- Differ from standard flight levels by 1000ft above FL290, 500ft below
76
Reporting acts of unlawful interference
- whose responsibility
- who state must report to
PIC [NOT OPERATOR] must report to local authority and authority of state of operator.
Contracting state (where you land) must report to:
- State of operator
- State of registry
- State of citizens on board
- ICAO <--- EXAM ANSWER!
77
Crew leaving stations
Flight deck crew must stay at stations unless going to toilet.
Cabin crew must be at stations during TOL.
78
Reporting for accidents, serious incidents and occurrences
Commander informs the operator.
Operator reports to competent authority and any other group required.
Reports ASAP, but in any case within 72 hours (unless exceptional circumstances prevent this).
79
Refuelling/defueling with passengers on board
NOT for avgas or wide cut (Jet B) fuel.
Require:
- Qualified person at a specific point
- Crew, staff & passengers warned
- "Fasten seat belt" off
- "No smoking" on
- Instruct passengers belt off, no smoking
- Sufficient qualified crew on board
- Stop if fuel vapour detected
- Ground around emergency exits clear
- 2 way comms
80
When must seatbelts be worn?
Flight crew: Whenever at their station
Passengers: TOL, taxi & when commander decides
81
When must flight crew wear full harnesses?
Take-off
Landing
When PIC deems necessary
82
Equipment not part of MEL
- Fuses
- Portable lights
- Accurate time piece
- Chart holders
- Child restraints
- Survival/signalling equipment
- First aid & emergency kits
- Megaphones
- Sea anchors/mooring eqpt.
83
MMEL
Master MEL
Created by designer of the type (aircraft) and state of the designer, listing items one or more of which may be unserviceable during flight. May be associated with limitations.
MEL is based off the MMEL
84
MEL requirements (rectification)
Not less restrictive than the MMEL (including rectification intervals).
For operation after rectification interval (assuming not fixed) need approval from authority for an extension, which should be for purpose of rectification due to events beyond operators control.
85
Requirement to use MMEL instead of MEL
Approval of competent authority
86
When during flight is MEL referred to?
Before taxy
After taxy the "Abnormal and Emergency procedures" in the operations manual is referred to instead.
87
megaphones
1: 61 to 99 MOPSC
2: 100+ MOPSC
88
Flight data recorder in event of incident (3)
- Must not be intentionally erased
- Must be deactivated immediately after flight is completed
- Reactivated only with agreement of investigating authority
89
Which aircraft need a flight data recorder (FDR)?
< 1/6/90: Turbine >5700kg
1/6/90-1/4/98: All planes >5700kg
> 1/4/98: Add multi-engine turbines with MOPSC >9
90
FDR data
- type of items
- recording time
Parameters to determine flight path, speed, attitude, engine power and configuration.
Generally for 25 hours.
91
Lightweight Flight Recorder
From 5/9/22 turbines >2250kg and other aircraft with MOPSC > 9, if they aren't covered by FDR rules need a 5 hour lightweight data recorder.
It must also start automatically before moving under own power and shutdown when no longer capable of moving under own power.
92
Flight Data Monitoring Programme
- relevant aircraft
- responsible person
For >27000kg aircraft.
Flight safety manager is responsible.
Should be non-punitive but contain safeguards to protect data.
93
Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR)
- Which aircraft?
- Recording time
- Type of device
- Power
For >5700kg aircraft
Same as FDR aircraft.
2 hours, except >27000kg since 2022 now 25 hours.
Must be solid state, not tape or magnetic.
Large craft need a 10 minute automatic alternative power source.
94
Locating FDR & CVR
- deployable
- non deployable
Deployable: Automatic emergency locater transmitter
Not Deployable: Device to assist with underwater locating (90 days battery)
95
Number of first aid kits
1 per 100 people (or part of), up to maximum of 6.
96
Emergency medical kit
- contents
- when required
Extra medical supplies (eg strong painkillers only to be administered by qualified medic) required if >30 seats and >60 minute flying time from any aerodrome with medical assistance.
97
Fire extinguishers
- Flight deck
- Other specific areas
- # hand held ones
- Flight deck needs 1 for electrical & liquid and 1 halon 1211/BCF.
- 1 for each galley and accessible baggage/cargo compartments (A/B/E).
- For # passengers seats:
7-30: 1
31-60: 2
61-200: 3
Add 1 per 100 up to max 8
98
Crash axes/crowbars
>5700kg or MOPSC > 9
- 1 in the flight deck.
- MOPSC > 200 need another (hidden) at rear.
99
Protective Breathing Equipment
- when required
- flight crew need
- cabin crew need
- additional
>5700kg or MOPSC > 19
- PBE & 15 mins oxygen for flight crew
- PBE & 15 mins gas for cabin crew (if no cabin crew a portable PBE for 1 flight crew)
- Additional PBE next to handheld extinguishers for class A/B/E
100
Break-in points
- Colour
- Distances
Marked on outside of craft (ideally on white background) in red or yellow.
If corners are over 2m apart, need intermediate dashed lines 3cm by 9cm.
101
Lifejackets
- When are they required?
- Who for?
Flying >50NM from shore or when TO/L over water and likelihood of ditching.
1 for each passenger
Infants can have "individual flotation device" instead.
102
Additional seaplane requirement
Equipment for making sound signals (international rules for preventing collision at sea).
Sea anchor or drogue.
103
Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT)
- Number & type required
- Requirement
MOPSC > 19:
1 automatic, 1 other
[pre-2008 1 auto or 2 other]
MOPSC <=19:
1 automatic
[pre-2008 1 other]
Simultaneous 121.5 & 406 MHz.
104
Life rafts
- When required
- Requirements
If 30 mins cruise or 100NM from shore (SEP) [120mins cruise or 400NM multi-engine]
Must be able to carry everybody on board if the biggest one fails
Need 2 ELTs, locator light and life saving equipment
[NOTE: 120 mins is at CRUISE SPEED not 1 engine out speed]
105
Emergency escape slides
- When required
- Requirements
Required if sills >6ft high
Need inflate within 10 seconds into a 25kt headwind
106
Land survival equipment
- When required
- Exemption rules
Required for flights in areas where S&R is limited.
Exempt:
CS25 within 90 mins of emergency landing site;
Within 30min (120min CE) of good S&R area.
107
Oxygen
- Non-pressurised aircraft
All flight crew for time over 10,000ft
Flight crew & passengers for time over 13,000ft
Cabin crew & 10% of passengers for anything over 30 mins between 10,000 and 13,000ft
108
Oxygen
- Pressurised aircraft - Flight & cabin crew
- Entire time over 13,000ft
- Time between 10,000ft and 13,000ft less the first 30 minutes
Subject to minimum of 30 minutes (increasing to 2 hours for FLIGHT crew if certified to fly over 25,000ft).
109
Oxygen
- Pressurised aircraft - Passengers
>15,000ft: All passengers (at least 10 mins)
14-15,000ft: 30% of passengers
10-14,000ft: 10% of passengers (after first 30 mins)
110
First aid oxygen
- When required
- Amount required
For flights over FL250.
First aid oxygen for 2% of passengers for remainder of flight between 8,000 and 15,000ft. At least 2 units.
111
First aid oxygen
- Flow rate (litres/min)
3 litres/min
112
Oxygen
- Number of oxygen masks in pressurised aircraft
110% of number of seats
113
Altitude at which flight crew oxygen masks deliver 100% oxygen
32,000ft
114
When must the PIC use the limitations in the MEL?
Before taxiing
115
Times of useful consciousness
- 20,000ft
- 30,000ft
- 35,000ft
- 40,000ft
20,000ft: 10 mins
30,000ft: 2 mins
35,000ft: 45 secs
40,000ft: 15 secs
116
Communications systems requirements
- IFR vs VFR
IFR (or VFR over routes that can't be navigated using visual landmarks) require 2 independent systems to communicate with ground stations.
117
RVSM
- Description
- Operator approval
Allows separation of 1,000ft between FL290 and FL410 inclusive.
Approval will be reflected in the operators AOC.
118
RVSM
- equipment (4)
- 2 independent altitude systems
- Altitude alerting system
- Automatic altitude control system
- SSR with altitude reporting connected to the altitude system being used for altitude control
119
RVSM Error reporting
- Time limit
- Total vertical error deviation
- Altimetry error deviation
- Assigned altitude deviation
Report to authority within 72 hours deviations outside of:
- Total vertical error 300ft
- Altimetry error 245ft
- Assigned altitude deviation 300ft
120
Navigation Equipment Requirements
For IFR (or VFR w/o visual navigation).
Mostly based on the requirements of route flow (e.g. MLS/ILS if ILS/MLS required for approach).
Do need a VOR and DME regardless of whether required.
If route (or part of it) is based entirely on VOR, DME or ADF, need 2 of them.
121
Changes to instruments required for IFR vs VFR
- altimeter
- ASI
Need 2 altimeters instead of 1 and they need counter-drum pointer or equivalent.
ASI needs protection from icing & condensation.
122
Extra equipment:
- Single pilot operations
- >49,000ft
- Speed limitations in terms of mach
Single pilot: Autopilot with altitude & heading hold
>49,000ft: Radiation meter
Mach limited: Machmeter
123
Altitude alerting system
- When required
- What is required
>5700kg or MOPSC>9:
- Alert when reaching an altitude
- Alert (at least aural) when deviating from altitude
[NOT JUST RVSM!]
124
Weather radar
- When required
ALL pressurised
Non-pressurised >5700kg or MOPSC>9 if @ night or IMC near TS
125
Craft needing:
- ACAS II
- TAWS
ACAS II: >5700kg or MOPSC>19
TAWS: >5700kg or MOPSC>9
Class B need fewer TAWS facilities ("TERRAIN", "DON'T SINK", "FIVE HUNDRED")
126
Required lights
- Day
- Night
Day:
- Anti collision
- Lights for essential equipment
- Passenger compartment lights
- Torch for each crew member
Night
- 2 landing lights
- Navigation lights
127
Fuses
10% of each rating
At least 3 of each
128
Windscreen wipers
- When required
>5700kg
At each pilot station
129
VFR visibility and cloud rules
Visibility
- Over 10,000ft: 8km
- Below 10,000ft: 5km
Cloud separation
- 1500m horizontal, 1000ft vertical
EXCEPT class F/G below 3,000ft AMSL or 1,000ft above ground (Clear of cloud, sight of surface)
130
Safe altitudes
- MSA
- MEA
- MOCA
- MORA
MSA: Min. Safe Sector Altitude
MOCA: Min. Obstacle Clearance Altitude
MEA: Min. Safe En-route Altitude
MORA: Min. Off-route Altitude
131
Isochronic line
Line of equal time
132
Routing requirement for IFR flights
MUST have an alternate
Discussion of alternates in general is for IFR flights.
133
Aerodrome operating minima components (3)
- RVR
- DH/MDH
- Visibility
134
Considerations when establishing aerodrome operating minima
OPERATOR to consider aerodrome factors plus:
- CREW experience
- Aircraft characteristics
- Aicraft equipment
135
Weather requirements when
- planning flight
- taking off (i.e. during or after taxi)
- in flight
Planning stage: Planning minima +/- 1 hour
Taking off: Planning minima at ETA
In flight: Aerodrome operating minima
136
Take-off alternate
- When needed
- Requirements
Needed if landing conditions at departure aerodrome unsuitable.
It must have suitable forecasts +/- 1 hour of ETA.
Must be within:
1 hour @ OEI for 2 engine
2 hours @ AEO speed for 3+ engine OR ETOPS [OEI -> AEO is a recent change]
137
En-route alternates
- when required (2)
Generally not required unless:
- ETOPS need them within authorised ETOPS diversion time at all points
- For reduced contingency fuel (RCF)
Need good forecast +/- 1 hour ETA
138
Planning minima for ETOPS en-route alternate
- Non-precision or circling
- Precision
NPA/circling: MDA/H +400ft, RVR +1500m
Precision: DA/H +200ft, RVR +800m
139
IFR destination requirements
- General
- CAT II/III minima
Require forecast at destination ETA +/- 1 hour to be suitable in order to take off or continue flight.
For CAT II/III approach this means CAT I RVR required.
140
When is destination alternate not required? (2)
- Flight time < 6hrs (or 4hrs remaining), 2 separate (crossing ok) runways AND ETA +/- 1hr have 5km vis and ceiling over (higher of) 2000ft or circling height +500ft.
- Isolated destination in which case conditions need to meet dest alt conditions and fuel >= TRIP + CONT. + 2hrs CRUISE
[this includes FRF]
141
Destination alternates
- weather window
- number needed
At least one must have suitable conditions for ETA +/- 1 hr (if one is required).
If weather at destination is unsuitable, need 2 dest alts.
142
CDFA decision height
In event of missed approach at DH/DA you are expected to go past the DH/DA momentarily. This is not allowed with MDH.
As such for CDFA need an extra margin for company decision height (CDH) usually MDH + 50ft.
[Old practice of descending quicker then levelling at MDH not allowed]
143
MDH vs DH reference point
DH uses threshold.
MDH uses aerodrome elevation, unless threshold is more than 2m below in which case switches to threshold.
144
Planning minima for destination aerodrome
Visibility CAT.OP.MPA.110 and:
- Precision: Aerodrome operating minima
- NPA: Ceiling >= MDH
145
Planning minima for destination alternate aerodrome
CAT II/III: CAT I RVR
CAT I: NPA RVR & ceiling >= MDH
NPA: 1,000m extra RVR, 200ft extra ceiling
Circling: Circling
146
GNSS approach restrictions
At either destination or destination alternate need an instrument approach that doesn't rely on GNSS.
Not an issue for take-off or ERA alternates.
147
Fuel recording requirements
- Parameters recorded
1) Off-block fuel
2) Take off fuel (if automatic)
3) MINIMUM FUEL declarations
4) MAYDAY FUEL declarations
5) Fuel after touchdown (if automatic)
6) On-block fuel
148
Fuel recording requirements
- frequency of records
At least every 60 mins, operators discretion below this.
If ACARS working don't need to do it.
149
Minimum Fuel declaration
Means aerodrome options have been reduced to one and that any unexpected delay (ATC, weather etc.) may result in landing with less than FRF.
NO priority handling expected, but ATC should advise of potential delays and coordinate with other ATC units.
150
Final reserve fuel
- piston, turbine
RECIPROCATING: 45 mins
Turbine (prop or jet): 30 mins
151
Standard take off visibility requirements
500m RVR/VIS in day with no facilities
OR 400m if either:
i) Day with runway edge lights OR centreline MARKINGS
ii) Night with runway end lights and either runway edge lights or centreline LIGHTS
152
Pilot assessment of RVR
PIC can assess RVR themselves instead of just using reported values
153
Low visibility take off
- general requirements
Pilot & co-pilot trained & qualified.
Both operator and aerodrome need to be approved for low visibility operations (LVO). Aerodrome needs low visibility procedures (LVP) to be established (if not operator must ensure equivalent procedures in place).
154
LVO training
- How it is done
- Phases of flight included
- Specific training items (2)
Done in a sim down to required RVR/DH.
Includes taxiing, but NOT holding.
Covers eye position and responsibilities when switching from non-visual to visual.
155
LVP & LVTO definitions
LVP: Procedures for LVTO and cat II & III landings
LVTO: Takeoff with 75m <= RVR < 400m
156
LVTO with RVR < 125m
Require specific equipment to allow tracking of centreline such as para-visual display (PVD) or HUD.
157
LVTO with RVR 125-150m
Need 90m segment visible at start of take off run.
158
Destination weather
- IFR takeoff
- IFR in flight
- VFR takeoff
Can only take off if weather at destination and/or at required alternates is ok.
Once in the air can continue towards destination even if destination weather deteriorates, as long as alternate is within limits.
VFR must not take off unless VFR possible throughout flight.
159
When can reduced power noise abatement rules be ignored (6)
- Runway not clear & dry
- Visibility < 1nm
- Crosswind >15kts (inc. gusts)
- Tailwind >5kts (inc. gusts)
- Reported/forecast windshear
- TS expected to affect app./dep.
[- cloudbase <500ft on landing only]
[Any time for safety reasons - PIC discretion]
160
When can noise certificate mass limits be ignored?
When aerodrome or runway is specifically authorise to be used without noise abatement procedures
161
Noise Abatement Departure Procedure 1
(NADP 1)
Initial climb: V(2) + 10 to 20kt
800ft: Reduce thrust
3000ft: Retract flaps and accelerate to en-route climb
This minimises noise near the aerodrome
162
NADP 2
Initial climb: V(2) + 10 to 20kt
800ft: Retract flaps and accelerate with full thrust to V(ZF) [zero flap]
Flaps up: Reduce thrust, climb @ V(ZF) + 10kt
3000ft: Accelerate to en-route climb
This minimises noise away from the aerodrome
163
General rules for unique noise abatement departure procedures (4)
- Minimum speed V(2) + 10kt (unless this exceeds max body angle)
- No thrust reduction below 800ft
- No turns during thrust reduction
- Obstacle clearance to allow time to reset full power in case of engine failure
164
Rules around noise abatement landing procedures
- Lead-in lighting required if specific approach path defined
- Displaced thresholds only used if "significant" noise reduction and remaining runway length sufficient
- No bans on reverse thrust
165
Time limit for reporting
- Flight incidents
- Written accident report
- Unlawful Interference
- Navaids & hazardous conditions
- Emergency violation of local regulations
Flight incidents: 72 hours
Written accident report: 72 hours
Unlawful Interference: ASAP
Navaids & hazardous conditions: ASAP
Emergency violation of local regulations: Without delay AND in writing within 10 days
166
Reporting birds
Must immediately inform ground station when potential bird hazard observed.
If a bird strike causes SIGNIFICANT DAMAGE must submit written report after landing.
167
In-flight emergencies with dangerous goods on board
Pilot must inform ground station (if possible) during emergency if there are dangerous goods on board
168
When are special air reports required? (6)
- Mod./Sev. turb
- Mod./Sev. icing
- Sev. mountain wave
- TS (obsc, embd, wdsp or squall)
- Heavy DS/SS
- Volcanic ash cloud, eruption or pre-eruption
169
V(AT) definition
or V(REF)
Threshold speed
= V(S0) * 1.3 or V(S1G) * 1.23
170
Approach categories
Based on V(AT)
A: <91kt
B: 91-120kt
C: 121-140kt
D: 141-165kt
E: 166-210kt
171
Commencing and stopping approach due to visibility
Can start approach regardless of visibility, but not descend below 1000ft AAL if RVR is below minima.
If it falls after passing 1000ft can carry on to DA/MDA.
At DA/MDA must go around if not visible with runway.
172
Met visibility and RVR
For LANDING ONLY, if there is no RVR can convert met visibility to a converted meteorological visibility (CMV) based on multiples:
HI lighting: 1.5x day, 2.0x night
Other lighting: 1.0x day, 1.5x night
No lighting: 1.0x day, n/a night
Can use this as RVR, subject to minimum 800m.
173
Visual approach
When an IFR approach is NOT COMPLETED and approach continued visually instead.
174
Visual approach minimum RVR
800m
175
Non-precision approach
- Technique used
- RVR
- Extra RVR with level approach segment
MUST use CDFA
RVR>= 750m
Extra 200m (A/B) or 400m (C/D) for non-CDFA approach with flat segment
176
Minimum MDHs based on approach equipment
177
Circling approach minima
Use minimum MDH and RVR based on the max of figures for the instrument approach, figures for category of aircraft and figures from a table:
A: 400ft, 1500m
B: 500ft, 1600m
C: 600ft, 2400m
D: 700ft, 3600m
178
APV RVR
600m
179
Precision approach minimums
180
Below what height should altitude callouts reference radio altimeter?
200ft above THRESHOLD elevation
[This is for CAT II/III approaches]
181
Operational credits in low visibility
Can allow the use of lower minima, but do NOT change the approach category.
182
Recent pilot experience for low visibility operations
Generally need to complete 2 approaches in each proficiency period for all low visibility authorisations required (for each type generally). Also pilot flying and pilot monitoring are separate (2 for each).
183
EFVS-A and EFVS-L
Enhanced Flight Vision Systems
A can be used down to 100ft above runway
L can be used down to landing
184
Landing field length safety factors (jet, prop)
Full stop landing from 50ft above aerodrome (down to min 35ft for steep approach) at threshold within:
Turbo-jet - 60% LDA
Turbo-prop - 70% LDA
185
Restrictions if aircraft doesn't meet "ditching standards"
For aircraft with > 30 passenger seats, if you don't meet ditching standards you can't fly further from land suitable for emergency landing than the lesser of:
400nm
2hrs cruise
186
Restrictions on twins without ETOPS
- class A
- class B
Must be within certain flight time of an adequate aerodrome.
Class A: 60 mins OEI speed
Class A (<20 pass & <45360kg): 120 mins (or up to 180 mins with approval for jets)
Class B/C: lower of 120mins & 300nm
187
What must operator include in operating manual for ETOPS craft?
OEI assumed speed
Resulting max distance from adequate aerodrome
188
Meaning of ETOPS time
Must be X minutes away from suitable airport in STILL air with OEI
189
Requirements for class A obstacle clearance en-route
Use net figures, adjust for headwind and account for icing procedures.
Need positive gradient at 1500ft over aerodrome.
1000ft clearance while maintaining altitude
2000ft clearance for driftdown
190
3 or more engine ETOPS rules
Can't be more than 90 minutes from aerodrome unless you meet rules.
Rules require flight to be continued from double engine failure at critical point with 2000ft clearance within 5nm of path.
191
Class B obstacle clearance en-route
- single & multi engine
Single engine must be able to make a forced landing on land based on gradient degraded by 0.5% and altitude at which 300ft per minute RoC possible.
Multi engine must be able to fly to 1000ft above suitable aerodrome with OEI with the same assumptions (300ft climb, 0.5% net gradient deduction).
192
En-route clearance
- adjustment to 5nm path requirement
Increased to 10nm if navigational accuracy doesn't meet 95% requirement.
193
Six micro tesla zone
Zone around north pole where compasses are unreliable
194
North Atlantic High Level Airspace (NAT HLA)
- Flight Levels
- Oceanic Control Areas (OCAs) covered
- Latitude limits
FL290 to FL410 inclusive
Gander, Shanwick, New York, Santa Maria and Reykjavic OCAs
Latitude 27N (Canaries) to North Pole
195
MNPS
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification airspace.
Alternative name to NAT HLA.
196
General requirements for NAT HLA
- General
- ETOPS?
Operators need to be given authority which is detailed on their AOC.
Navigation eq, crew training and procedures need to be adequate.
Most is RSVM so need authority for that too.
NOT ETOPS!
197
NAT HLA
- Master document
A single document in flight deck listing waypoints and navigation information.
Must only be one, need same numbering sequence as FMS and other requirements.
198
NAT HLA
- Separation (longitudinal, lateral, vertical)
Longitudinal: 10 mins with mach number technique, 15 mins without
Vertical: typically 1000ft, it is RVSM but follows its own spacing (not standard E/W pattern). Information in the TMI.
Lateral: 60nm
199
NAT HLA
- Navigation accuracy required
6.3NM for 95% of the time
Although RNP10 & RNP4 considered to meet the requirements
200
RVSM equipment required
- 4 items
- accuracy requirement
- 2 primary altimeters accurate to within 200ft
- Automatic altitude control system
- Altitude alerting device
- Mode C transponder within radar controlled areas
201
NAT HLA
- Equipment required (4)
2 long range navigation systems (LRNS)
(out of INS, IRS/FMS & GPS)
RVSM
TCAS 7.1
HF radio
202
NAT HLA
- Blue spruce route
Allowed for aircraft with only one LRNS
Also have 2 specific routes (G3 & G11) for only conventional nav equipped aircraft
203
NAT HLA
- Performance Based Communications and Surveillance (PBCS) equipment requirements
ADS-C and CPDLC
204
NAT HLA
- T16, T213, T9 (Tango routes)
Not part of the OTS.
T16/T213 - Require HF radio, 2 LRNS and HLA approval over FL285.
T9 - Only 1 LRNS, transponder after 10 mins instead of 30
205
NAT HLA
- Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure (SLOP)
0.1nm increments up to 2nm
To RIGHT of track only
Should be randomly selected and only done if can be automatically managed by FMS
Can do it within the oceanic routes without clearance, but move back to centreline for oceanic exit point.
206
NAT HLA
- Non-approved aircraft
ATC can clear non-approved aircraft to climb through or descend through NAT HLA, as long as HLA is not adversely affected.
207
Organised Track System (OTS)
- Timing of West & Eastbound periods
- Timing of track messages
West: 1130 to 1900 UTC [message 2200]
East: 0100 to 0800 UTC [message 1400]
Based on the time you cross the 030W meridian
208
Organised Track System (OTS)
- Labelling of routes
West: A to Z from North down
East: Z to A from South up
209
Organised Track System (OTS)
- Random routed flights
They are possible but you are likely to be cleared outside the OTS area, or at an uneconomical altitude.
210
North American Route (NAR) system
These routes change. They link NAT HLA routes to North American routes.
NOT part of EITHER NAT HLA or North American route system
211
Flight plan marking for NAT HLA authorised aircraft
X in item 10
Put "NAT" and the code letter in item 15 (route) only if full route followed, random routes can't mention it
212
When should oceanic clearance be requested?
40 mins in advance (from Shannon or Gander) if possible
213
Which of Shannon Oceanic Transition Area (SOTA) and Northern OTA (NOTA) are part of NAT HLA?
Equipment requirements?
Who provides service?
NOTA is part of NAT HLA
SOTA is NOT.
However, flights routing through SOTA towards NAT HLA need the same NAT HLA equipment.
Service by SHANNON CONTROL (not ACA).
214
Components of oceanic flight clearance request (7)
- Identification
- "Oceanic clearance"
- Entry point with ETA
- Mach speed request
- FL request
- Max acceptable FL
- 2nd preference track
215
Components of oceanic clearance (3)
- Route
- Mach number
- Flight level
216
What if oceanic clearance not given in time?
Contact local ATC for guidance outside oceanic airspace, don't hold and don't enter it without clearance
217
Oceanic track coordinate info in clearances
Pilot includes the Track Message Identifier (TMI) in their readback (it isn't in the clearance itself!) avoiding the need to read individual coordinates for the route.
218
How is most communication in oceanic areas carried out?
HF
You speak to a ground controller who passes messages to and from the OCA, who actually give the clearances.
VHF only flight not allowed in Shanwick OCA, need to make sure you stay close to VHF stations if you don't have HF.
219
NAT HLA HF
- Number of stations
- Frequency range
24 stations
2.8 to 18 MHz
220
NAT HLA
- Action on CPDLC automatically switching stations
Contact new control centre on HF voice frequency, CPDLC alone is not enough.
221
SELCAL requirement in oceanic flight
Needs to be checked before entering oceanic airspace and on contact with each new agency
222
SELCAL info in flight plan
Item 18
223
Oceanic position reports
- When not required
- ETA changes
- General points to notify
- Typical intervals
Only required if not on FANS 1/A or ADS-C CPDLC.
Notify of changes to ETA over 3 minutes
Notify at reporting points and significant points in flight plan.
Should be roughly hourly intervals.
224
Oceanic position reports
- Longitudinal distancing of reporting points for predominantly East-West oriented routes
70-80N: 20 degrees
Below 70N: 10 degrees
225
When Able Higher report
Provided to ATC to let them know time or location you will be able to operate at a higher altitude. Allows them to coordinate airspace to improve fuel economy.
Required for New York and Santa Maria OCAs.
226
NAT air to air frequency
123.45 MHz
227
HF failure in NAT HLA
- Set Mode C 7600
- Try SATCOM to contact ATC if equipped
- Use VHF to contact ATC or otherwise report position on air to air frequency
228
Route to fly in case of HF failure (Oceanic)
Equipment failure pre-clearance: Divert or follow flight plan
Widespread HF failure pre-clearance: Follow flight plan speed & route at domestic cleared altitude
Failure/blackout after clearance: Fly clearance to landfall
229
SSR in general in oceanic airspace
Mode A 2000
30 minutes after entering oceanic airspace [10 mins some cases - tango t9 route]
230
Emergency in NAT HLA (contingency procedure)
Ideally get clearance before altering flight path.
If able to maintain flight level turn 30 degrees off track to get to a 5nm parallel track.
Select a flight level with appropriate offset from other traffic (500ft unless above FL410).
231
Choosing direction for 30 degree turn off track in NAT HLA
i) Position relative to track or route
ii) Direction of flights/flight levels on adjacent tracks
iii) Direction to alternate airport
iv) Strategic lateral offset being flown
v) Terrain clearance
232
NAT HLA
- Deviation around severe weather
Request clearance if possible.
Otherwise report position on 123.45 or 121.5,
Divert to 5nm parallel track
If North of the track, descend 300ft, if South climb 300ft [based on 0-179/180-359 and left or right]
[Descend towards poles, climb towards equator]
233
NAT HLA
- Deviation less than 5nm
Remain at cleared flight level if staying within 5nm of track
234
NAT HLA Navigation system failure
- single failure before boundary
- single failure after boundary
- full failure
If failure means you only have 1 LRNS depends on time it happens.
Pre-OCA boundary need to delay takeoff or divert.
After OCA boundary follow the clearance but liaise with ATC.
If final system fails in NTA HLA, lights on, report on 121.5 consider 500ft differential.
ONLY if leaving airspace offset by 5nm, then descend/climb outside FL285/410, then cut across the routes.
235
NAT HLA
- What set of rules is it based on?
ICAO Doc 7030
236
Effect of a reduction in headwind on approach
The immediate effect is reduction in IAS, thus reduction in lift and falling below the glideslope.
Over time groundspeed will increase due to the lower headwind, but this will take a while to impact approach slope. Most important factor is the immediate loss of lift.
237
Conditions for standing waves (5)
- Windspeed 15kt (30kt large mountains)
- Increasing windspeed with altitude
- Constant wind direction with altitude
- Within 30 deg of the ridge line
- Stable air mass
238
Wavelength of standing waves
5-10nm in European conditions
239
Microbursts
- Lifespan
- Size
- Downdraft speed
- Windspeed at ground
Lifespan is a few minutes
Size is 1 to 3km
Downdrafts of 3000-4000ft/min
Windspeed 50kt in either direction at the ground
240
Detection of windshear at aerodromes (2)
- Low Level Wind Shear Alert System (LLWAS), system of anemometers 5 to 10nm out from the airfield
- Low frequency doppler radar
241
Response to windshear/microburst
Aircraft alerts can be sensitive so might only be "vigilance", but full response if microburst wind shear suspected.
Then initiate "wind shear go around":
- Full thrust
- Pitch up to stick shaker
- Retract speed brakes
242
Wake turbulence
- During what periods of flight is it created
From rotation until touchdown (not during ground phases of takeoff or landing)
243
Wake turbulence
- Factors that increase it
Weight
Speed
Configuration
Weather
Heavy, slow and clean configured aircraft create the strongest wake turbulence.
Light crosswinds are the worst weather as they blow one of the diverging vortex streams back onto the runway.
244
Wake Turbulence
- Aircraft weight categories (flight plan letters)
J: A380
H: >136,000kg
M: 7,000kg to 136,000kg
L: <7,000kg
[MTOW]
245
Wake Turbulence
- Separation distances for approach (ATC controlled)
246
Wake Turbulence
- Separation times for LIGHT aircraft
247
Wake Turbulence
- Separation times for MEDIUM aircraft
248
Wake Turbulence
- Separation times for HEAVY aircraft
ONLY Departure behind SUPER - 2 mins
249
Wake Turbulence
- Separation times for displaced threshold or opposite directions
250
Wake Turbulence
- Separation times for missed approach (same, parallel or opposite direction)
251
Wake Turbulence
- Separation times when following an aircraft that overshot (and other non-specified situations)
2 mins
252
Wake Turbulence
- Departing from intermediate runway position
Add 1 minute
253
Ops manual parts for icing
- De-icing & anti-icing procedures
- Whether aircraft is certificated for icing conditions
Part A - De-icing & anti-icing procedures
Part B - Whether aircraft is certificated for icing conditions
254
Ground de-anti icing process
Either one step with an application of warm fluid to de-ice and anti-ice the aircraft.
Or 2 step de-ice then anti-ice.
255
Holdover period
This is the time you have to take off before anti-icing becomes ineffective.
Starts from the beginning of application of anti-icing (the start of the second stage if 2 stage de/anti ice process).
256
Precautions when de/anti icing on ground
Need to fit intake blanks to protect from ingestion.
Engines & APU can be running, but bleed air to cabin must be off.
Dry snow can be blown or brushed, but care taken not to enter control surface gaps.
257
Use of water for ground de/anti icing
If above -7C can use 95C water at 100psi, but it needs to be immediately dried or anti-icing fluid put on, otherwise risk of re-freezing.
More common therefore is de/anti-icing fluid.
258
Type I de/anti-ice fluid
80% glycol in water base.
Melts ice quickly but low viscosity (especially mixed with melted water) so short holdover period.
259
Type II de/anti-ice fluid
Minimum of 50% glycol (can be diluted).
Has a thickening agent.
This gives it a longer holdover period.
Undiluted has the best holdover period and works down to -25C.
260
Number of anti/de ice fluid types
I to IV
261
Information flight crew need on de-icing
Type used
Temperature
Concentration
Time the application began
262
De-icer shear value
This is the speed at which the thicker types of fluid will detach from the aircraft. Needs to be lower than V(R) otherwise will affect ability to take off.
263
Wheelbay de-icing
Using heat or by hand, no fluids due to risk of re-freezing.
If possible, lifting and dropping gear a few times in flight can help clear them.
264
Hot air internal anti-icing when on the ground
Engine entry hot air de-icing is allowed, but not wing surface.
This is because the heating of the wing surface requires the cooling effect of air flow otherwise it will overheat.
265
Where are ice diverters used
On REVERSE FLOW turbo-probs
266
Convert bars to psi
1 bar = 14.5 psi
267
Snowtam braking action codes at related braking coefficients
1) Poor: <0.25
2) Medium to poor: 0.26-0.29
3) Medium: 0.30-0.35
4) Medium to good: 0.36-0.39
5) Good: >0.40
268
Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM)
This is a grid linking RWYCC (0-6) with runway surface descriptions, downgrade assessments and pilot reports of braking conditions (poor, medium to poor etc).
Used by ATC to assess the situation.
269
Runway Condition Code (RWYCC)
- Description
- Factors influencing it (3)
Code from 6 to 0, equivalent to the snowtam condition codes but has 6 for dry and 0 for "less than poor".
Based on:
- Type of contaminant
- Depth
- OAT
270
Runway Surface Description
Wordy descriptions for each of the RWYCCs including the 3 factors (contaminant, depth, OAT).
271
Landing on wet/flooded runway
- approach speed
- landing firmness
- devices to use
INCREASE approach speed (heavy rain causes decrease in lift?!)
Firm landing to break film of water
Use lift dumpers and reverse thrusters to reduce braking demand
272
Smoke detection zones, class A-D
Class A: Permanently staffed, no detection
Class B: Accessible during flight
Class C: Not accessible, smoke detection and remote fire extinguishers
Class D: Cargo bays with increased fireproofing, let them burn
273
Fire detection areas
- Jet engine bays
- APU bays
- Main gear bays
274
Jet engine zones 1-3
1) Hydraulic pumps, gearbox etc. (moving parts) most likely place for a fire. This is the only zone with fire detection and remote extinguishers and is cooled by ventilation.
2) Can get metal fire from compressor blades on casing.
3) Combustion zone, separated from zone 1 by a bulkhead.
275
Resistive fire detection - resistance and current when heated
Resistance decreases - current increases.
276
Capacitive fire detection - capacitance when heated
Capacitance increases
277
Fire classifications A-D
A: Solids
B: Liquids
C: Gases
D: Metals
278
Types of fire extinguisher on aircraft
Water for class A fires only.
BCF/halon for all other fires (smother flames but don't reduce temperature - fire can re-start).
NOT CO2 or dry powder.
279
Engine "nozzle fire"
Solution
This is jet engine fire due to excess fuel. Dry crank the engine to clear fuel.
280
General fuel jettison requirement
Must be able to jettison sufficient fuel within 15 minutes to enable go-around climb requirements:
- 2.7% in approach config with OEI
- 3.2% in landing config with AEO
281
When does jettison automatically stop?
With fuel level that allows climb to 10,000ft and 45 minute cruise.
282
Precautions during fuel jettison (radio)
NO HF radio calls
Minimal VHF calls
283
Evacuation time requirement
If more than 44 seats:
Evacuation within 90 secs through 50% of doors.
284
Fuel jettison altitude location
Minimum 6000ft (if possible)
Ideally 10,000ft AND over the sea
285
Safe forced landing definition
"Unavoidable" landing/ditching with reasonable expectation of no injuries to persons in the aircraft or on the ground.
286
Technical Instructions
Refers to the ICAO DOC 9284 and related annexes covering dangerous goods
287
Exceptions to operator approval for dangerous goods (2)
- Goods not covered by the dangerous goods listed in part 1 of technical instructions
- Dangerous goods carried by crew or passengers in accordance with part 8 of technical instructions
288
Dangerous goods
- Classes and packing groups
Classes are categories (e.g. explosives, gases, liquids, solids)
Packing groups represent the level of danger:
1 - Great danger
2 - Medium danger
3 - Minor danger
289
Dangerous Goods
- Limited quantities
- Excepted quantities
Limited quantities: Identified with prefix Y on packing instruction, limited amounts can be carried in appropriate packaging without testing of labelling.
Excepted quantities: Small quantities of goods defined in part 3 have to meet specific conditions, but not the rest of the technical instructions.
290
Dangerous Goods
- In-flight emergencies
As soon as situation permits, captain should inform ATC during in-flight emergency of nature of dangerous goods on board.
291
Dangerous Goods
- Retention of records
- Acceptance checklist and other documents must be kept for 3 months
- Personnel training records must be kept for 3 years
292
Dangerous Goods
- Requirement for operator to accept dangerous goods (3)
i) Package, overpack or freight container inspected
ii) 2 copies of dangerous goods transport document (unless electronic)
iii) English language for marking & labelling and the documentation
293
Dangerous Goods
- Labels and markings
Markings or labels required by the TI must not be covered or obscured.
If lost, detached or illegible they must be replaced by the operator.
294
Dangerous Goods
- Operator reports to competent authority (3)
i) Dangerous goods accidents or incidents
ii) Discovery of undeclared or misdeclared dangerous goods in cargo or mail
iii) The finding of dangerous goods carried by passengers or crew other than in accordance with part 8
First report within 72 hours of event.
295
Dangerous Goods
- Part 8 allowed items for passengers & crew
- 0.5kg or 0.5l toiletry articles (aerosols)
- 1 hair curler with hydrocarbon gas (no refills)
- Up to 5l alcohol @ 24-70%
- 1 small pack safety matches or lighter
- Lithium/lithium-ion devices and spare batteries in carry on only
- Fuel cells for portable devices
- 2.5kg dry ice
- Mercurial barometer/thermometer in carry on with operator approval
- Avalanche rescue pack if made safe
296
Items that can be carried on person but not in hand baggage
Safety matches & lighter
297
Dangerous Goods
- ICAO annex number
18
298
Dangerous Goods
- Who draws up dangerous goods transport document?
The shipper
299
Dangerous goods
- Who defines what are dangerous goods and how they should be handled?
ICAO
300
Dangerous Goods
- How are individual types of good identified?
Have a "UN", unique number (4 digits) to identify specific type of good.
301
Dangerous goods 1 - 9
1 - Explosive
2 - Gas
3 - Liquid
4 - Solid
5 - Oxidising (burning O)
6 - Toxic (skull)
7 - Infectious (funny symbol)
8 - Radioactive
9 - Miscellaneous (Newcastle stripes)
302
Annex 6: Operation of aircraft
- Parts I, II & III
I: International Commercial - Aeroplanes
II: International GA - Aeroplanes
III: International - Helicopters
303
ICAO Annex 10
Communications, including equipment, such as transponders
304
ICAO Annex 17
Security
305
ICAO Annex 19
Flight data recording (protection of sources)
306
Operator action on identifying errors in navigation data
Report to the database provider
307
Operations manual parts A-D
A: Anti/de-icing, dangerous goods, fuel, TCAS/ACAS
B: Performance data, contaminated runways, icing conditions, emergency evacuation
C: Routes
D: Personnel
308
Where does viscous hydroplaning tend to happen?
In the touchdown zones
309
Where are task specialist duties specified?
In the SOP
310
Required language ability for multi crew
Common language - not necessarily English (e.g. flight entirely within Italy can be conducted in Italian)
311
Command upgrade training
- components (6)
- flight requirement within training
- FSTD including Line Oriented Flight Training (LOFT)
- OPC as commander
- Command responsibilities training
- Line training as commander under supervision for 10 sectors
- Commander line check
- CRM training
312
CAT requirement for radio equipment for IFR or VFR w/o visual landmark navigation
2 independent radio systems, in accordance with applicable airspace requirements
313
When are "no smoking" and "fasten seatbelt" signs needed?
When not all passenger seats are visible to the flight crew.
314
EU regulations
- 216/2008
- 965/2012
- 1178/2011
216/2008: Basic regulation (main one)
965/2012: Air Ops
1178/2011: Aircrew
315
Where is designated IFR class A airspace in NAT region?
Above FL60 (or 2000ft above ground if higher).
316
MOCA definition
+ 1000ft for terrain up to 6,000ft
+ 2000ft for terrain over 6,000ft
317
Who is permitted to carry dry ice on board?
Permitted for crew and passengers
318
Days after skill test for ZFTT pilot to commence line training
21 days
319
Reason for a fuel jettison system
To achieve CS25 climb gradient requirements after take off
320
When is interphone required?
MOPSC > 19 OR >15,000kg
321
Aircraft security check
Check of:
- passenger accessible interior and
- hold
For:
- prohibited articles
- unlawful interference
[NOT exterior of aircraft]
