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Operational Orders > Operational Orders Definitions > Flashcards

Operational Orders Definitions Flashcards

1
Q

(01.05) __________ is a vehicle assigned to an employee whereby the employee is allowed to use the vehicle while off-duty.

A

Assigned Vehicle

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2
Q

(01.05) __________ is any automobile, motorcycle, truck, 4-wheel drive, etc., of the Jacksonville Sheriff’s Office (JSO).

A

Vehicle

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3
Q

(01.05) __________ is a marked or unmarked vehicle that is made available to Sheriff’s Office personnel for official business.

A

Pool Car

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4
Q

(01.06) __________ is a person appointed by the Sheriff who has met the training requirements prescribed by the Florida Criminal Justice Standards and Training Commission (CJSTC) for individuals who aid or assist a fulltime or part time law enforcement officer and who, while under the direct supervision of a Control Officer, has authority to arrest and perform law enforcement functions and, who has maintained the qualifications of firearms and certification training as required by the State of Florida and the policies of the Jacksonville Sheriff’s Office (JSO).

A

Reserve Officer

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5
Q

(01.06) __________ is a CJSTC certified Police Officer who is exercising supervisory control over a Reserve Officer.

A

Control Officer

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6
Q

(01.06) __________ is a civilian affiliated with the law enforcement agency in a part time, non-sworn capacity, with or without compensation, because of his interest in contributing to the agency’s role in a support capacity (e.g., Community Posse, civilian volunteers, and law enforcement explorer scouts).

A

Auxiliary Citizen

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7
Q

(01.06) __________ is a paid (full time or part time), non-sworn employee assigned to perform tasks that need not be performed by a qualified sworn law enforcement officer and that may be more efficiently performed by a civilian employee (e.g., school crossing guards [see Operational Order 15.14 School Crossing Guards]).

A

Civilian Employee

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8
Q

(01.06) __________ is a component of the Community Affairs Division. This auxiliary organization assists in the education of the general public in crime prevention techniques and strategies.

A

Jacksonville Community Posse

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9
Q

(01.07) __________ are defined as those inspections requested or initiated by the Sheriff or a member of his staff. They will focus on the overall operation and processes of the Division, Section, or Unit being inspected.

A

Staff Inspections

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10
Q

(01.07) __________ are defined as those inspections which are performed to focus on a particular problem, operation, or procedure. They can be initiated and conducted by either the Inspections Unit or any part of the chain-of- command of the section or unit to be inspected.

A

Random Inspections

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11
Q

(01.07) __________ are defined as inspections conducted by line supervisors and/or mid-management supervisors assigned or responsible for the unit, individual, or equipment to be inspected. They are concerned with personnel, the status and condition of equipment, vehicles, and the physical facilities within a given organizational component.

A

Line Inspections

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12
Q

(01.11) A vehicle that requires special training or authorization for deployment or requires special licensing or training prior to its use. It can also be any vehicle which is used because of considerations of weather, terrain, or the need for inconspicuous appearance, quietness, storage requirements, special operational needs, etc.

A

Special Purpose Vehicle

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13
Q

(02.04) The detention, interdiction, or other disparate treatment of any person on the basis of their race, color, ethnicity, sexual orientation, physical handicap, economic status, age, cultural group, religion or other belief system.

A

Bias based profiling

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14
Q

(02.04) More than a mere hunch, but is based on a set of articulable facts and circumstances that would warrant a person of reasonable caution in believing that an infraction of the law has been committed, is about to be committed, or is in the process of being committed, by the person or persons under suspicion.

A

Reasonable suspicion

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15
Q

(03.05) An online police self-reporting system that is designed to eliminate the need of having police officers physically respond to document incidents where the identity of the suspect(s) is unknown and there is no evidence present which needs to be collected and processed, while still recording the incident and collecting reportable data for additional investigation, statistical analysis and state reporting requirements.

A

The Citizen Online Reporting System

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16
Q

(03.05) Provided to the citizen via the Citizen Online Reporting System upon completion of the report. This number is replaced by a case number once the report is reviewed and approved.

A

Tracking Number

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17
Q

(03.05) Reports that do not meet the requirements for being reported online or have insufficient information will be rejected.

A

Rejected Online Reports

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18
Q

(04.01) All Jacksonville Sheriff’s Office (JSO) vehicles being operated by a sworn officer are designated as __________.

A

Authorized Emergency Vehicle

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19
Q

(04.01) A deliberate offensive tactic, used on a suspect vehicle, in which two or more authorized emergency vehicles obstruct a suspect vehicle’s path. It will be less likely to cause damage when officers use a more refined technique such as a “pinching” maneuver (touching the front and rear bumpers of the suspect vehicle or immobilizing the suspect vehicle against a stationary object).

A

Blocking

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20
Q

(04.01) In the course of a pursuit, the following and direct participation in the pursuit by unauthorized police vehicles.

A

Caravanning

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21
Q

(04.01) The diversion or redirection of vehicles from their present direction toward a pre-selected direction by the deployment of emergency vehicles and/or tire deflation devices.

A

Channeling

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22
Q

(04.01) Treason, murder, manslaughter, sexual battery, carjacking, home invasion robbery, armed burglary, arson, kidnapping, aggravated assault, aggravated battery, aggravated stalking, leaving the scene of an accident involving death or serious injury aircraft piracy, unlawful throwing, placing or discharging of a destructive device or bomb, and/or any other felony which involves the use or threat of physical force or violence against any individual.

A

Forcible Felony

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23
Q

(04.01) Siren and flashing and/or revolving blue lights, which meet the requirements of Florida State Statutes (F.S.S.).

A

Emergency Signal Devices

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24
Q

(04.01) A motorized mode of transportation operated by a person who willfully or knowingly refuses to stop or uses high speed, illegal, or other evasive driving tactics in an effort to avoid apprehension.

A

Fleeing Vehicle

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25
Q

(04.01) A vehicle in which the target areas (the rear quarter panel of the suspect vehicle and the front quarter panel of the police vehicle) do not match up, the vehicle is clearly taller than it is wide, the vehicle has enhanced suspension (i.e., a 4X4 that is either an aftermarket alteration or originally installed equipment) or the vehicle has a substantial roof load or roof line which has heighted the vehicle’s center of gravity.

A

High Profile Vehicle

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26
Q

(04.01) Following a pursuit in progress by driving on roads or streets that parallel the road or street on which the fleeing vehicle and pursuing emergency vehicles are traveling.

A

Paralleling

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27
Q

(04.01) Is a more refined blocking technique that is less likely to cause damage.

A

Pinching Maneuver

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28
Q

(04.01) The intentional act of using an authorized emergency vehicle to physically force a fleeing vehicle from its course of travel in order to stop it.

A

Precision Immobilization Technique (PIT)

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29
Q

(04.01) Generally the police unit that initiates the pursuit. If the initiating vehicle is not marked with emergency equipment, the unit status will be assumed by a marked car with emergency equipment, and which has visual contact with the fleeing vehicle.

A

Primary Pursuit Vehicle

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30
Q

(04.01) A deliberate tactic used to incapacitate a suspect vehicle. This tactic utilizes targeted, direct force from a patrol vehicle to areas of a suspect vehicle. Unlike PIT, this tactic will likely cause severe property damage as well as personal injury to the suspect vehicle occupants and the implementing officer. Implementing this tactic is considered deadly force.

A

Ramming

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31
Q

(04.01) The positioning of City vehicles on a roadway with the intent of stopping a suspect and it is prohibited.

A

Road Block

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32
Q

(04.01) The use of city vehicles or appropriate resources to stop or divert traffic flow.

A

Barricade

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33
Q

(04.01) The police unit which trails the primary pursuit unit at a safe distance, and which is immediately available to assume the primary role or assist the primary unit if the fleeing vehicle is stopped.

A

Secondary Pursuit Vehicle

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34
Q

(04.01) Departmentally approved devices designed to disable vehicle tires through slow, controlled deflation.

A

Tire Deflation Devices

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35
Q

(04.01) All vehicles of JSO are authorized emergency vehicles and are exempted from complying with traffic laws as defined in F.S.S. 316.072 and F.S.S. 316.126 (3).

A

Traffic Law Exemption

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36
Q

(04.01) An active attempt by an officer in an authorized emergency vehicle to apprehend the occupants of a moving vehicle, providing that the driver of such vehicle is aware of the attempt, increases speed, takes other evasive actions, or refuses to stop in an attempt to avoid apprehension.

A

Vehicle Pursuit

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37
Q

(04.01) The actions taken by an officer, while operating an emergency vehicle, to stop a vehicle, when the driver is suspected of a traffic violation or offense, or for any other purpose, when there is no reason to believe the driver will attempt to elude or evade apprehension.

A

Vehicle Stop

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38
Q

(11.06) Any incident in which people are being held against their will by another person or persons, usually by force or coercion.

A

Hostage Incident

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39
Q

(11.06) Defined as persons who refuse to submit to arrest or detainment for a Baker Act and:
Who officers believe to be armed or have the potential to be armed and pose a threat to citizens and/or officers,
Who are believed to have been involved in a criminal act and/or are a threat to himself and/or to the lives and safety of citizens or officers,
Who are in a position of advantage, affording cover and concealment, or are contained in an open area and the approach of officers could precipitate an adverse reaction by the suspect.

A

Barricaded Subject

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40
Q

(11.06)A person threatening suicide with a weapon that barricades or places himself in a position of advantage where the approach by first responding officers could unnecessarily escalate the situation or endanger the officers.

A

Armed Suicidal Subject

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41
Q

(11.11) Is the potential for or actual releasing, spilling, burning, or leaking of any substance which tends to be toxic and may endanger life, property, or the environment.

A

A Hazardous Material Incident (H.M.I.)

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42
Q

(07.01) An order for the arrest of a defendant that is obtained after a case is formally filed by the State Attorney’s Office (SAO). The issuance by a judge means that the complete filing decision has been made and information or an indictment is filed with the Clerk of the Court.

A

Capias

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43
Q

(07.01) Is issued by a judge upon probable cause (no case has been filed) and is generally used when an immediate arrest by warrant is required. Different from a capias in that upon issuance, the filing decision has not been made and information has not been filed.

A

Arrest Warrant

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44
Q

(07.01) Issued by the SAO and commands an “at large” defendant to appear in court to face misdemeanor or ordinance violation charges resulting from information filed by the SAO. Service is not an arrest and the defendant is not incarcerated.

A

Misdemeanor Summons

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45
Q

(07.01) This citation, also referred to as a Misdemeanor Citation, may be used by police officers for a field release of eligible violators or by corrections officers for violators who meet specific criteria after physical arrest. Issuance does constitute an arrest.

A

Notice to Appear Citation (NTA)

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46
Q

(07.01) Shall be a procedure whereby an eligible violator is immediately released upon the officer completing the NTA and the violator signing such citation.

A

Field Release

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47
Q

(07.01) Shall be that procedure whereby the officer takes the violator into custody and transports him to the Pretrial Detention Facility (PDF) for the purpose of booking him into the PDF.

A

Physical Arrest

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48
Q

(07.01) An order by the court commanding a sheriff or other official to physically bring before the court a person who is found guilty of contempt of court.

A

Writ of Attachment

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49
Q

(07.01) VCCR is the abbreviation for __________

A

Vienna Convention on Consular Relations

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50
Q

(07.01) Issued to diplomatic officers, UN diplomatic officers, and their families. They are entitled to full criminal immunity and may not be arrested or detained;

A

Blue-bordered Department of State identification cards

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51
Q

(07.01) Issued to embassy administrative and technical staff employees. The bearers of these cards are entitled to full criminal immunity;

A

Green-bordered Department of State identification cards

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52
Q

(07.01) Issued to embassy service staff employees. This card entitles the bearer to immunity for official acts only;

A

Green-bordered Department of State identification cards

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53
Q

(07.01) Issued to career consular officers, career consular employees, and honorary consular officers. This card entitles the bearer to immunity for official acts only;

A

Red-bordered Department of State identification cards

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54
Q

(07.01) Issued to consular officers, employees, and their families from countries with which the U.S. has special agreements. They are entitled to full criminal immunity and may not be arrested or detained.

A

Red-bordered Department of State identification cards

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55
Q

(11. 12) Florida State Statute (F.S.S.) 787.01 defines __________ as: “forcibly, secretly or by threat confining, abducting, or imprisoning another person against his or her will and without lawful authority, with intent to:
a. Hold for ransom or reward or as a shield or hostage;
b. Commit or facilitate commission of any felony;
c. Inflict bodily harm upon or to terrorize the victim or another person; or
d. Interfere with the performance of any governmental or political function.

A

Kidnapping

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56
Q

(11.12) F.S.S. 787.02 defines __________ as “forcibly, by threat or secretly confining, abducting, imprisoning or restraining another person without lawful authority and against his or her will.”

A

False Imprisonment

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57
Q

(11.12) F.S.S. 787.025 defines __________ as “a person 18 years of age or older who intentionally lures or entices, or attempts to lure or entice a child under the age of 12 into a structure, dwelling or conveyance for other than a lawful purpose.”

A

Luring or enticing a child

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58
Q

(11.13) One who is under the influence of alcohol or drugs to the point at which it interferes with their power of self control.

A

Intoxicated Person

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59
Q

(11.13) One who appears to be in immediate need of emergency medical attention or is unable to make a rational decision about his need for care.

A

Incapacitated Person

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60
Q

(11.13) Intoxicated persons who have inflicted, have threatened or attempted to inflict, or are likely to inflict physical harm on themselves or others.

A

Danger to Themselves or Others

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61
Q

(11.13) Is any public or private facility, service, or program providing treatment or rehabilitation services for the abuse of drugs or alcohol, including but not limited to detoxification centers, licensed hospitals, community mental health centers, clinics or programs, halfway houses, and rehabilitation centers.

A

Treatment Resource Facility

62
Q

(11.26) The calculated use of violence or the threat of unlawful violence to instill fear; intended to coerce or intimidate governments or societies in the pursuit of goals that are generally political, religious or ideological.

A

Terrorism

63
Q

(11.26) An actual or potential high impact event that requires robust coordination of federal response in order to save lives, minimize damage, and provide for long-term community and economic recovery.

A

Incident of National Significance (INS)

64
Q

(11.26) Designed to communicate timely, detailed information about terrorist threats to the public, government agencies, first responders, airports and other transportation hubs, and the private sector. Individual alerts will be issued for a specific time period and then will automatically expire. They may be extended if new information becomes available or the threat evolves.

A

National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS)

65
Q

(11.26) Warns of a credible terrorist threat against the United States.

A

Evaluated Threat Alert

66
Q

(11.26) Warns of a credible, specific, and impending terrorist threat against the United States.

A

Imminent Threat Alert

67
Q

(11.26) Maritime Security Level. Designed to guide protective measures for maritime transportation elements, including ports, vessels and facilities.

A

MARSEC Level

68
Q

(11.09) Any assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, sexual assault, sexual battery, stalking, aggravated stalking, kidnapping, false imprisonment or any criminal offense resulting in physical injury or death of one family or household member by another family or household member.

A

Domestic Violence

69
Q

(11.09) Spouses, former spouses, persons related by blood or marriage, persons who are presently residing together as if a family or who have resided together in the past as if a family, and persons who have a child in common regardless of whether they have been married or have resided together at any time. With the exception of persons who have a child in common, the family or household members must be currently residing or have in the past resided together in the same single dwelling unit.

A

Family or Household Member

70
Q

(11. 09) Means violence between individuals who have or have had a continuing and significant relationship of a romantic or intimate nature. The existence of such a relationship shall be determined based on the consideration of the following factors:
1. existed within the past six months;
2. affection or sexual involvement between the parties;
3. over time and on a continuous basis
4. does not include violence in a casual acquaintanceship

A

Dating Violence

71
Q

(11.09) For the purposes of dating; means any assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, sexual assault, sexual battery, stalking, aggravated stalking, kidnapping, or false imprisonment, or any criminal offense resulting in physical injury or death, by a person against any other person.

A

Violence

72
Q

(11.09) Two or more incidence of violence or stalking committed by the respondent, one of which must have been within six months of the filing of the petition, which are directed against the petitioner or the petitioner’s immediate family member.

A

Repeat Violence

73
Q

(11.09) Any one incident of sexual battery as defined in chapter 794, a lewd or lascivious act as defined in chapter 800; committed upon or in the presence of a person younger than 16 years of age; luring or enticing a child as described in chapter 787; sexual performance by a child, as described in chapter 827; or any other forcible felony wherein a sexual act is committed or attempted regardless of whether criminal charges based on the incident were filed, reduced, or dismissed by the State Attorney.

A

Sexual Violence

74
Q

(11.09) A court order requiring a person to do or refrain from doing a specified act. A repeat, sexual or dating violence injunction is granted for a fixed period, unless the victim petitions the court for an extension. The court may then extend the injunction for successive fixed periods.

A

Repeat, Sexual, or Dating Violence Injunction

75
Q

(11.09) Issued by a Judge following a Petition for Injunction for Protection against Domestic, Repeat, Sexual or Dating Violence. It is in effect until a full hearing can be held or for a period of 15 days, whichever comes first. The Court may extend the temporary injunction beyond 15 days for good reason.

A

Temporary Domestic, Repeat, Sexual or Dating Violence Injunction

76
Q

(11.01) A Patrol Sergeant will be notified and will respond to the scene of the investigation, if needed, and will determine if the Watch Commander should be notified. What incidents require notification of a sergeant?

A

Child molestation;
Union activities or strikes;
Major fires, requiring a police response;
Traffic crashes that require roads being closed;
Sexual battery;
Child abuse;
Extortion;
Any incident involving three or more units;
Incidents involving gang-related violence; or
Suicide attempts.

77
Q

(11.01) A Patrol Sergeant will respond to the scene and notify the Watch Commander. The Patrol Sergeant, when appropriate, is responsible for passing necessary information to the Communications Watch Supervisor and requesting a detective from the most appropriate unit when necessary. What incidents require a sergeant to respond to the scene?

A

An abduction that appears to be bona fide;
A drowning;
A sexual battery with serious injury to the victim;
Aggravated child abuse;
An officer calling for help (Signal 34);
A bomb threat;
A robbery to a business or a robbery involving serious injury to a victim;
A robbery where a suspect is in custody or an individual is found in a vehicle taken during a robbery, home invasion, or carjacking;
An aircraft accident;
A railroad accident;
Whenever a major thoroughfare is blocked, or is to be closed;
When a search warrant is served by a Patrol Officer;
Arson with serious injury;
An industrial accident with a large loss or serious injury;
A hazardous material incident;
Chemical, Biological, Incidents or threats; Radiological, Nuclear, or Explosives (CBRNE)
A boating accident with a seriously injured or missing person;
Traffic crashes with life threatening injuries;
Any traffic crash involving a Jacksonville Sheriff’s Office (JSO) vehicle;
Unnatural deaths;
Any battery where a person is shot or with a life threatening injury;
Missing Person cases that require an immediate search for the victim;
Any dispute involving JSO employees (on or off duty), including Reserve Officers and other law enforcement personnel;
Food/product tampering;
Any incident, which requires the forced entry into a structure or vehicle;
Trafficking amount of drugs;
After an officer(s) under his command has deployed Weapon (CEW ); a Conducted Electrical
An officer-involved incident where an officer(s) under his supervision discharged his weapon or was injured; or
Any other serious or noteworthy incident that due to its nature require s the presence of a supervisor.

78
Q

(11.01) Whenever an officer completes a General Offense/Incident Report for a firearms related offense, which includes suspect information, the officer will select __________, __________, and __________ in the “Route to” block located in the upper left corner of the COPSMORE Offense Report.

A

Robbery, Gun Crime Unit and the Violent Crimes Task Force

79
Q

(11.01) All __________ and __________ that occur on Duval County Public School Property will be investigated and followed up by JSO.

A

murders and sexual batteries

80
Q

(11.01) On Category “A” offenses, the final case status is due by the __________ from the date the original report was written and the case was assigned.

A

10th calendar day

81
Q

(11.01) On Category “B” offense, the patrol officer has investigative responsibility through the end of the __________.

A

20th calendar day

82
Q

(11.01) Felony SAO filing procedures require the investigating officer to file the case within _____ hours if the officer is scheduled to work the next day and within _____ hours of the arrest of a suspect on either an arrest warrant or on probable cause (excluding weekends and holidays) if the officer is not scheduled to work the next day.

A

24 & 120

83
Q

(11.01) Felony SAO filing procedures require the investigating officer to file the case within _____ hours (excluding weekends and holidays) to obtain an arrest warrant or capias for those felony suspects that are still at large.

A

36

84
Q

(11.05) A fixed or mobile system that passively detects chemical and radiological traces and reports such to a central location.

A

Atmospheric and Radiation Monitoring System (ARMS)

85
Q

(11.05) The types of weapons of mass destruction.

A

Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear and Explosive (CBRNE)

86
Q

(11.05) Illicit labs set up in homes, motel rooms, motor homes, or other locations to produce drugs or explosives.

A

Clandestine Laboratories

87
Q

(11.05) Beyond the outer perimeter, considered to be contamination-free.

A

Cold Zone

88
Q

(11.05) Chemical, biological or radiological material in an unwanted place including in or on a body. Exposure does not necessarily mean a person or object is contaminated.

A

Contamination

89
Q

(11.05) The area at the scene of a chemical, biological or radiological incident which is or may be contaminated. It is inside the inner perimeter.

A

Hot Zone

90
Q

(11.05) A device created from improvised explosive compounds, or a conventional explosive used in a manner other than for which it was originally designed.

A

Improvised Explosive Device (IED)

91
Q

(11.05) A stolen or improvised device designed to produce a nuclear yield reaction (nuclear blast).

A

Improvised Nuclear Device (IND)

92
Q

(11.05) Refers to the use of fissile material to create energy (e.g., nuclear power or nuclear bombs).

A

Nuclear

93
Q

(11.05) May indicate the presence and strength of radiological materials at a scene.

A

Personal Radiation Detectors (PRDs)

94
Q

(11.05) PRND means _________________________.

A

Preventative Nuclear/Radiological Detection (PRND)

95
Q

(11.05) Refers to material that emits radiation.

A

Radiological

96
Q

(11.05) An explosive, aerosol, or other device intended to spread radiological material at a crime scene, also referred to as a “dirty bomb”.

A

Radiological Dispersion Device (RDD)

97
Q

(11.05) A device designed to expose people to radiation without dispersing material (e.g., a placed source).

A

Radiological Exposure Device (RED)

98
Q

(11.05) A procedure designed to preclude the detonation or functioning of any CBRNE device.

A

Rendered Safe Procedure

99
Q

(11.05) An area designated for the arrival and staging of equipment, vehicles, apparatus, or personnel resources to be utilized in the mitigation of an event or incident.

A

Staging Area

100
Q

(11.05) A violent act or an act dangerous to human life, in violation of the criminal laws of the United States or any segment thereof to intimidate or coerce a government, the civilian population, or any segment thereof, in furtherance of political or social objectives (U. S. Department of Justice).

A

Terrorism

101
Q

(11.05) Any suspected bomb, device, item, object, or material, or any container, the contents or origin of which is unknown, and due to circumstances, is suspicious in nature.

A

Threat or Suspected Item (TOSI)

102
Q

(11.05) A vehicle or vessel that is used as or to transport a large quantity of explosives.

A

Vehicle Borne Improvised Explosive Device (VBIED)

103
Q

(11.05) A person at the scene who has the authority to determine whether a search or evacuation should be conducted at a facility where a threat has been received, generally the person in charge of the facility.

A

Victim’s representative in authority

104
Q

(11.05) The area immediately surrounding the Hot Zone. Ingress and egress are restricted to JFRD HAZMAT and Bomb Technicians. This is the area in which decontamination activities are conducted. It is the area between the inner and outer perimeter.

A

Warm Zone

105
Q

(11.05) Any destructive device as defined in Section 921 of Title 18; of the United States Code (see Appendix “A”); any weapon that is designed or intended to cause death or serious bodily injury through the release, dissemination, or impact of toxic or poisonous chemicals, or their precursors; any weapon involving a disease organism; or any weapon that is designed to release radiation or radioactivity at a level dangerous to human life.

A

Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD)

106
Q

(11.05) A commonly used phrase to describe an unknown substance of a suspicious nature found at or delivered to a potential crime scene. It must be assumed to be hazardous or toxic until and unless determined otherwise, and is not necessarily either white or a powder.

A

“White Powder”

107
Q

(11.21) The __________ is responsible for investigating the cause of all civilian aircraft crashes.

A

National Transportation Safety Board (N.T.S.B.)

108
Q

(11.28) An individual actively engaged in killing or attempting to kill people in a confined and populated area; in most cases, they use firearms and there is no pattern or method to their selection of victims.

A

Active Shooter

109
Q

(11.28) An object or structure that provides protection from weapon fir e (e.g., a vehicle engine block, brick wall, etc.).

A

Cover

110
Q

(11.28) Differing from cover, concealment only provides protection from observation not weapon fire (e.g., a privacy fence, bush, interior drywall, etc. ).

A

Concealment

111
Q

(11.28) A dismounted movement technique where an officer(s) holds covered position while observing the incident site as another officer(s) moves forward toward cover. This technique alternates between covering officer(s) and moving officer(s) until the breach point is reached.

A

Bounding/Overwatch

112
Q

(11.28) The act of multiple armed law enforcement elements establishing positive communication and identification as they join to become one operational element.

A

Link-up Operations

113
Q

(12.04) The covert or overt observation of a location, person or conveyance with the intent to make an arrest, intercept a criminal act or take some type of police action.

A

Stakeout

114
Q

(12.04) The covert or overt observation of a location, person or conveyance in the furtherance of an investigation to obtain information or intelligence concerning activities and identities of individuals without the intent to make an arrest or take any police action.

A

Surveillance

115
Q

(12.04) All stakeouts shall be conducted when authorized by an __________ or higher authority.

A

Assistant Chief

116
Q

(15.01) Using analysis and statistical data to identify areas where high numbers of violations and crashes are occurring, the enforcement strategies of the Traffic Enforcement Squads will be reviewed periodically by Zone Traffic Lieutenants and Sergeants. Following the review, a deployment strategy will be developed for approval by the __________.

A

Zone Commander

117
Q

(15.01) Officers will not conduct traffic stops using an unmarked vehicle unless it is equipped with __________ and __________ and the officer operating the vehicle is __________, unless immediate and exigent circumstances exist.

A

emergency lights & siren & in uniform

118
Q

(15.01) Each radar unit shall be serviced and calibrated every __________ by qualified service technicians designated by the Sheriff’s Office.

A

six months

119
Q

(15.01) Written records of all radar maintenance and radar calibration shall be kept by the __________.

A

F.T.O. Sergeant

120
Q

(15.01) Maintenance records for radars shall be kept for _________ past the working life of the unit.

A

ninety days

121
Q

(15.07) When a driver was involved in a traffic crash, and the officer advises the driver that they are ending the traffic crash investigation and beginning a criminal DUI investigation, the procedure is commonly referred to as __________ and it separates the civil traffic crash investigation from the criminal DUI investigation.

A

“Switching Hats”

122
Q

(16.01) Refers to a specific person identified in reports by code number who, by direction, seeks out and furnishes criminal investigative or criminal intelligence information on a continuing basis to the Sheriff’s Office. These individuals may be compensated or otherwise rewarded for their information, (i.e. monetarily, deferred prosecution, leniency, etc).

A

Confidential Informant

123
Q

(16.01) A non-law enforcement person known to a member, who provides information, but does not wish to be identified or take an active part in an investigation. Confidential sources are not necessarily involved in criminal activity, but due to their various occupations, are in a position to obtain pertinent information and provide it to law enforcement. They are not usually expected to become witnesses and are not compensated for their assistance (i.e. no monetary compensation, deferred prosecution, etc).

A

Confidential Source

124
Q

(16.01) Refers to information with respect to an identifiable person or group of persons compiled by a criminal justice agency in the course of conducting a criminal investigation of a specific act or omission. This includes, but is not limited to, information derived from laboratory tests, reports of investigators or informants, or any type of surveillance.

A

Criminal Investigative Information

125
Q

(16.01) Refers to information with respect to an identifiable person or group of persons collected by a criminal justice agency in an effort to anticipate, prevent, or monitor possible criminal activity.

A

Criminal Intelligence Information

126
Q

(20.05) An initial notice and fine issued for running a red light monitored by a red light camera system.

A

Notice of Violation

127
Q

(20.05) The person or entity identified by the Florida Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicle (DHSMV), or other state vehicle registration office, as the registered owner of a vehicle. Such term shall also mean a lessee of a motor vehicle pursuant to a lease agreement of six months or more.

A

Registered Vehicle Owner

128
Q

(20.05) A Sworn Law Enforcement Officer selected by the Community Affairs Tele-Serv Lieutenant who has successfully completed training provided by the vendor prior to reviewing violations for prosecution.

A

Traffic Infraction Enforcement Officer

129
Q

(20.05) The company contracted by the City of Jacksonville for the purposes of providing recorded images by a Traffic Infraction Detector (to include: photographs, electronic/digital images, and videos) displaying the rear of the motor vehicle, clearly identifying the license tag of the vehicle.

A

Vendor

130
Q

(20.05) A device that uses a vehicle sensor installed to work in conjunction with a traffic control signal and a camera synchronized to automatically record two or more sequenced photographic, electronic images, and streaming video of only the rear of a motor vehicle at the time the vehicle failed to stop behind the bar or clearly marked stop line when facing a traffic control signal with a steady red light.

A

Traffic Infraction Detector

131
Q

(20.05) Shall mean the area embraced within the prolongation or connection of the lateral curb lines; or, if none, then the lateral boundary lines of the roadways of two highways which join one another at, or approximately at, right angles; or the area within which vehicles traveling upon different highways joining at any other angle may come in conflict. Where a highway includes two roadways 30 feet or more apart, every crossing of each roadway of such divided highway by an intersecting highway shall be regarded as a separate intersection. In the event such intersecting highway also includes two roadways 30 feet or more apart, every crossing of two roadways of such highways shall be regarded as a separate intersection.

A

Intersection

132
Q

(17.05) An investigator assigned to the Computer Forensic Investigator Unit who is specially trained in the recovery of digital evidence from electric media to include, but not limited to, cellular phones, computers and other electronic devices.

A

Computer Forensic Examiner

133
Q

(17.05) The application of scientific methods and proven techniques for the collection, preservation, validation, identification, analysis and interpretation of digital data for the purpose of documenting and presenting findings in a legal environment, either criminal or civil in nature.

A

Computer Forensics

134
Q

(17.05) An accurate and exact replica of all data apart from the physical media. It is an exact bit-by-bit copy of the entire digital storage component of a computer system.

A

Forensic Image

135
Q

(17.05) Any physical device on which data is stored electronically.

A

Digital Media

136
Q

(17.05) The process of performing a bit-by-bit copy of digital media evidence. This is usually conducted with the evidentiary digital media connected to a physical write-blocking device that prevents and original evidence from being modified.

A

Acquisition

137
Q

(17.05) Information or data that is contained within any form of magnetic or digital media device in the form of binary code.

A

Digital Evidence

138
Q

(18.01) A conversation between two or more people where questions are asked to obtain information from the interviewee.

A

Interview

139
Q

(18.01) Either asking a suspect/witness a direct question or, in the presence of the suspect, making a statement that is intended, or should reasonably be expected to elicit an incriminating response from the suspect/witness.

A

Interrogation

140
Q

(18.07) A formal or informal on-going organization, association, or group that has as one (1) of its primary activities the commission of criminal or delinquent acts, and consists of three (3) or more persons who have a common name or common identifying signs, colors, or symbols including, but not limited to, terrorist organizations and hate groups.

A

Criminal Gang

141
Q

(18.07) An activity committed with the intent to benefit, promote, or further the interests of a criminal gang, or for the purposes of increasing a person’s own standing or position within a criminal gang; or
An activity in which the participants are identified as criminal gang members or criminal gang associates acting individually or collectively to further any criminal purpose of a criminal gang; or
An activity that is identified as criminal gang activity by a documented reliable informant; or
An activity that is identified as criminal gang activity by an informant of previously untested reliability and such identification is corroborated by independent information.

A

Criminal Gang-Related Activity

142
Q

(18. 07) A person who meets two (2) or more of the following criteria:
1. Admits to criminal gang membership;
2. Is identified as a criminal gang member by a parent or guardian;
3. Adopts the style of dress of a criminal gang;
4. Adopts the use of hand sign identified as used by a criminal gang;
5. Has a tattoo identified as used by a criminal gang;
6. Associates with one (1) or more known criminal gang members;
7. Is identified as a criminal gang member by a documented reliable informant;
8. Is identified as a criminal gang member by an informant of previously untested reliability and such information is corroborated by independent information;
9. Is identified as a gang member by physical evidence;
10. Has been observed in the company of known gang members four (4) or more times (observation in a custodial setting requires willful association);
11. Has authored any communication indicating responsibility for the commission of any crime by the criminal gang.

A

Criminal Gang Member

143
Q

(18.07) Personnel assigned to identify, monitor, investigate and coordinate the exchange of intelligence information concerning the identity of criminal gangs, gang members, gang associates, or gang-related activity.

A

Gang Investigations Unit

144
Q

(18.07) An inscription on a wall or other surface typically representing names, nicknames, slogans, messages or symbols of importance to a gang. Can be used to threaten or challenge other rival gangs.

A

Graffiti

145
Q

(18.07) Has the meaning provided in Florida State Statutes (F.S.S.) 934.02 and includes, but is not limited to, photographs, video, telephone communications, text messages, facsimile, electronic mail messages as defined in F.S.S. 668.602, and instant message real-time communications with other individuals through the Internet or other means.

A

Electronic Communication

146
Q

(18.08) Any weapon (including a starter gun) which will, is designed to, or may readily be converted to expel a projectile by the action of an explosive; the frame or receiver of any such weapon; any firearm muffler or firearm silencer; any destructive device; or any machine gun.

A

Firearm

147
Q

(18.08) Any bomb, grenade, mine, rocket, missile, pipe bomb, or similar device containing an explosive, incendiary, or poison gas and includes any frangible container filled with an explosive, incendiary, explosive gas, or expanding gas, which is designed or so constructed as to explode by such filler and is capable of causing bodily harm or property damage; any combination of parts either designed or intended for use in converting any device into a destructive device and from which a destructive device may be readily assembled; any device declared a destructive device by the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms; any type of weapon which will, is designed to, or may readily be converted to expel a projectile by the action of any explosive and which has a barrel with a bore of one-half inch or more in diameter; and ammunition for such destructive devices, but not including shotgun shells or any other ammunition designed for use in a firearm other than a destructive device.

A

Destructive Device

148
Q

(18.08) The illegal diversion of legally owned firearms from lawful commerce into unlawful commerce.

A

Firearms Trafficking

149
Q

(18.08) Any individual prohibited by State and/or Federal law from owning or possessing a firearm and ammunition.

A

Prohibited person

150
Q

(18.08) A term used to describe when the actual buyer of a firearm uses another person to execute the paperwork necessary to purchase a firearm from a federal firearms licensed dealer.

A

Straw Purchase

151
Q

(18.08) A license that enables an individual or company to engage in a business pertaining to the interstate or intrastate sale of firearms.

A

Federal Firearms License (FFL)

152
Q

(18.08) A computer database managed by the U.S. Department of Justice’s Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF). It enables law enforcement agencies to track the movement of a recovered firearm from its first sale by the manufacturer through the distribution chain to the retail purchaser.

A

E-Trace

Operational Orders (2 decks)

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