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XoJet > Operational Control > Flashcards

Operational Control Flashcards

1
Q

Who has Operational Control

A

Director of Operations (DO) Skye Ropke

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2
Q

Who is the Chief Pilot

A

Tyler Stubblefield

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3
Q

What are the key Ops Specs

A

B050 - Areas of Operation Authorized (50 States)
C052 - Types of approaches authorized
D085 - Aircraft Listing
D092 - List of authorized RVSM aircraft

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4
Q

What is the definition of Operational Control

A

The ability to initiate, conduct, and terminate a flight.

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5
Q

Where does ultimate authority rest with?

A

Director of Operations - Skye Ropke

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6
Q

Who is the Chief Pilot (CP)

A

Tyler Stubblefield

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7
Q

Who is the Director of Maintenance (DM)

A

Todd Hattaway

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8
Q

Who is the ACP?

A

Susanne Kelly, Roger Adams

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9
Q

Who is the Flight Operations Duty Manager (FODM)

A

Jay Griffith, Matt Migneault, Chris Stolz

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10
Q

Who is the Operations Duty Officer (ODO)

A

Assigned and scheduled for 24 hours.

Standardization Captains

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11
Q

Who are the authorized persons for a release?

A 
Director of Operations (DO)
Chief Pilot (CP)
Director of Maintenance (DM)
Assistant Chief Pilot (ACP)
Flight Operations Duty Manager (FODM)
Operation Duty Officer (ODO) - Limited
Captain - Limited
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12
Q

Document control resides in what document?

A

Q-Pulse

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13
Q

What are the 4 critical advisories not part of manuals?

A
  • Safety Information
  • Policy Change
  • General Information
  • Specific Aircraft Information
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14
Q

What is the XOJET Certificate Number (AOC)?

A

AWKA298C

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15
Q

What are the 5 areas in the OpsSpecs?

A 
A-General & Authorizations
B-En Route
C-Terminal
D-Maintenance
E-Weight & Balance
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16
Q

What are the 4 levels to identify risk?

A

Level 1 Normal Risk
Level 2 Moderate Risk
Level 3 Elevated Risk
Level 4 Highest Acceptable Risk

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17
Q

Describe Level 1 Normal Risk and releases needed?

A

Standard flight WITH passengers - Self Release

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18
Q

Describe Level 2 Moderate Risk and releases needed?

A

Standard flight WITHOUT passengers - Self Release. Needs SOC approval prior to fueling.

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19
Q

Describe Level 3 Elevated Risk conditions?

A 
International
Class II (Outside the Service Volumes of the VOR)
New Captains
Contaminated Runways
Special Airports (SAG)
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20
Q

Describe the acronym RED CSE 2489 describing Level 4 Risk that REQUIRE an ODO release and which ones require a CPO release?

A 
Crew Self Evaluation (CSE) Red* 
2- RCAM2/Supplemental Oxygen*
4- High speed taxi*
    Maintenance flig8ht (with abnormal cList)*
    Maintenance confidence flight
    Ferry Permit
8- 80% DAAP
9- Part 91

*(Requires CPO release)

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21
Q

What is RCAM?

A

Runway Conditions Assessment Matrix. A score indicating runway conditions.

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22
Q

What does an RCAM value of 6 mean?

A

6 - Runway is dry.

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23
Q

What does an RCAM value of 5 mean?

A

5 - Frost or wet (1/8 inch or less water)

Wet, Dry Slush (1/8 inch or less)

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24
Q

What does an RCAM value of 4 mean?

A

4 - Temp -15c outside temp compacted snow.

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25
Q

What does an RCAM value of 3 mean?

A

3 - Wet Slippery Runway
Wet or Dry Snow over compacted
Dry snow/Wet Snow (over 1/8 inch )
Compacted snow (warmer than -15C)

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26
Q

What does an RCAM value of 2 mean?

A

2 - Greater than 1/8 inch over water or slush.

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27
Q

What does an RCAM value of 1 mean?

A

1 - ICE

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28
Q

What does an RCAM value of 0 mean?

A

0 - Wet ice
Slush over ice
Water over compacted snow
Dry snow or wet snow over ice

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29
Q

What is the Deceleration or Directional Control Observation for a RCAM of 5? How is the breaking action described?

A

Braking deceleration is normal for the wheel braking effort applied AND directional control is normal

Good Breaking

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30
Q

What is the Deceleration or Directional Control Observation for a RCAM of 4? How is the breaking action described?

A

Braking deceleration OR directional control is between Good and Medium.

Good to Medium Breaking

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31
Q

What is the Deceleration or Directional Control Observation for a RCAM of 3? How is the breaking action described?

A

Braking deceleration is noticeably reduced for the wheel braking effort applied OR directional control is noticeably reduced.

Medium Breaking

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32
Q

What is the Deceleration or Directional Control Observation for a RCAM of 2? How is the breaking action described?

A

Braking deceleration OR directional control is between Medium and Poor.

Medium to Poor Breaking

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33
Q

What is the Deceleration or Directional Control Observation for a RCAM of 1? How is the breaking action described?

A

Braking deceleration is significantly reduced for the wheel braking effort applied OR directional control is significantly reduced.

Poor Breaking

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34
Q

What is the Deceleration or Directional Control Observation for a RCAM of 0? How is the breaking action described?

A

Braking deceleration is minimal to non-existent for the wheel braking effort applied OR directional control is uncertain.

Nil Breaking

35
Q

What is the lowest RCAM vaue we can use for a RWY at XOJET?

A

2

36
Q

What weather conditions is an automatic cancelling of flight ops (landing/TO)

A

Freezing Rain/Drizzle, Severe Icing, Severe Turbulence, RCAM/FICON <2, Surface winds >50 knots, Tailwinds >10 knots, X-Winds >FSM Limtis, Deemed Unsafe.

Ground contact SOC, In-Flight Avoid/divert

37
Q

What happens when an aircraft is 30 mins overdue?

A

Attempt to make contact.

38
Q

What happens when an aircraft is 45 mins overdue?

A

Initiate the Emergency Response Plan (ERP)

39
Q

What are the three SMS reports?

A
  • Crew Self Evaluations (CSE)
  • Captain’s Report
  • Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP)
40
Q

What is the Crew Self Evaluation (CSE), where can I find it, what are the levels?

A

Primary tool to manage fatigue. Access this through the pilot portal. Green, Amber, Red, Black.

41
Q

What is an ASAP report?

A

Used to identify hazards and mitigate risk. An agreement with the FAA to anonymously report a safety concern.

42
Q

How long do you have to fill out an ASAP report?

A

24 hours to be afforded the protections of the ASAP program.

43
Q

What activity generates an immediate reporting to the, SOC, ODO, FODM, CPO (SAUDII FSDO)

A

S - Safety Violations
A - Aborted takeoffs
U - Unscheduled Landings
D - Deviations from normal procedures
I - Inability of flight crew member to perform duties
I - Incidents or accidents
F - Flight that encounters significant WX
S - Significant deviation from planned route
D - Delay of Greater than 15 mins
O - Other info relating to safety of flight

44
Q

What defines an aborted takeoff?

A

Aircraft on runway for intended takeoff and vacates the rwy for ANY reason OTHER than a takeoff cancelled by ATC.

If you cross over the HOLD SHORT with the intention of takeoff, and you abort.

45
Q

What is the correct action for an aborted takeoff?

A

You must either TAXI to the gate, or an area off the runway safe enough to contact MX Control/CPO and inform them of the abort and reason.

46
Q

What are the limiting factors for T/O?

A
  • Max structural
  • Climb limit APG
  • Part 135 landing distance (60%) with weight at destination (small hop)
47
Q

When would we add an additional 15% to the landing runway?

A
  • Wet Runway

- Visibility is less than 3/4 SM

48
Q

What is the normal landing distance available, with additional 15% needed?

A

60% Factor = 1.67 x (Actual landing distance to determine runway required)

Additional 15% = 1.92 x (Actual landing distance to determine runway required)

49
Q

If the runway is DRY and we are UNABLE to land within 60% of the runway, what do we do?

A

We use a DAAP. (OPSPEC C049)

  • Allows landing within 80% of the available runway.
  • Crew requirements to land is 100 PIC in type.
  • Add 15% if viability is less than 3/4 mile.
  • Wet runway N/A
50
Q

With a DAAP what does the 80% factor as, what does the additional 15% factor as?

A

DAAP 80% = 1.25

Additional 15% = 1.44

51
Q

What is a BOE?

A

Border overflight exemption (BOE) allows us to fly into the US and continue to destination without stopping at the first customs airport.

52
Q

Why do we need four levels of risk?

A

To assess risk.

53
Q

What is a level 1 release?

A

Self release with passengers on board

54
Q

What is a level 2 release?

A

Self release with no passengers on board.

Always check with SOC before fueling.

55
Q

What are the 6 criteria for a Level 3 release?

A 
International Flight
Class II navigation 
New Captain
SAG airports
Contaminated runway
VFR only airports
*Note self release maybe be applicable, check flow chart
56
Q

What are the 9 criteria for a Level 4 release? CSE RED 2-4-8-9

A

Crew Self Evaluation is red
2- Supplemental Oxygen needed on board (MX release)
RCAM of 2 or less
4- Maintenance Flight (CPO notified if special checklist)
This must be done day in VFR conditions
Maintenance Confidence flight - Can be reposition.
May require CPO office approval
High speed taxi (CPO needs to be notified)
Ferry Flight
8-DAAP
9- Part 91 flight

57
Q

What are the three SMS (Safety Management System) reports?

A

Captains Report
Crew CSE
ASAP

58
Q

When and why and how quickly do we need to do an ASAP?

A

Why= to identify hazards and mitigate risk, and protect ourselves.H
How=Pilot Portal>Saftey>ASAP
When=Within 24 hours or a 3 day email extension

59
Q

What 5 steps do we do in case of an accident?

A 
Notify emergency services
Notify the SOC
Preserve the wreckage and records
Wait for the controlling agency
File a Captains report and an ASAP
60
Q

What does SOC stand for?

A

Systems Operations Control

61
Q

If you have a HAZMAT spill what reports are required?

A

Captains report

ASAP report

62
Q

What are the 5 HAZMAT exceptions?

A 
Alcohol 
Dry ICE no more than 5.5 pounds per person
Small arms ammo
Pepper Spray no larger than 4 ounces
Toiletries and aerosols
63
Q

What are the 5 types of hidden HAZMAT?

A 
Scuba tanks
Biologics
Cryogenics 
Chemicals
COMAT
64
Q

Under what conditions can an electric wheelchairs be accepted?

A

The battery must be secured in its frame

The battery must be disconnected and the terminals protected to prevent a short circuit.

65
Q

Under what conditions can we carry lithium batteries?

A

In carry in bags only and NEVER in checked in bags

66
Q

What is the first step if an EFB is INOP

A

You must call the help desk and generate a ticket.

67
Q

Can one EFB be INOP?

A

Yes if you have a second set of charts and an open help desk ticket.

68
Q

Can you have two EFB’s INOP?

A

Yes, with a laptop that reads PDF files and the crew has one set of printed charts and a help desk ticket is open.

69
Q

Where do we get our flight plan and in what two formats?

A 
We get them from the GDC
XO format is domestic
XW format is international class II
70
Q

Which document is our Briefing document?

A

Form 705 (The master document)

71
Q

What must we do to validate the master document?

A

It must be printed, reviewed, and signed by both pilots.

72
Q

What are our altitude restrictions and procedures? (6)

A
  • No turns below 400 feet
  • Climb to 1500’ expeditiously
  • Traffic pattern is 1500 AGL
  • Brief the MSA and MEA
  • Fly at or above the GS/VASI/PAPI or on a visual 3 degree slope to 1/2 mile out.
  • Boom mikes below 18,000’
73
Q

What are the holding speeds?

A

To 6000’ 200 knots
6001 to 14,000 230 knots
14,001 and above 265

74
Q

What are the 8 conditions causing operations to be suspended? WIND/ICE

A
  1. Service Turbulence
  2. Severe icing
  3. FICON less than 2
  4. Surface wings greater than 50 knots
  5. Tailwinds greater than 10 knots
  6. Crosswind greater than the FSM
  7. Freezing rain
  8. Any unsafe condition
75
Q

What are the 8 procedures not allowed?

A
  1. Special VFR
  2. VFR/IFR on top
  3. Contact approaches
  4. RNP approaches
  5. Standard passenger weights
  6. HAZMAT
  7. Power back with thrust reversers
  8. Ferry flights with contamination
76
Q

What do we need for VFR flight operations?

A

A company flight plan, maintain VFR.

If you are VFR without a published DP or IAP you need an alternate.

77
Q

Is a charted visual approach allowed to a SAG airport at night?

A

Yes

78
Q

What types of VFR operations are prohibited?

A

Cancelling IFR and landing VFR at SAG airports

Night VFR arrivals at mountainous airports

79
Q

How close to our destination can we cancel IFR and continue VFR?

A

Within 35NM with company VFR flight plan on file

80
Q

In order to accept a visual approach how close to the airport must you be?

A

35NM

81
Q

A VFR climb on course is an IFR procedure. What are the criteria?

A
  • Day only
  • It must be requested by the crew
  • It must meet APG
  • Crew is responsible for terrain avoidance
82
Q

What are our takeoff mins?

A

5000’ or 1 mile
*Can be lowest CAT 1 visibility minimums
OpSpecs allow as low as 500RVR off the 10-9A page
Captain must have 100 PIC, SIC can fly with 100 PIC
or with a check airman.

83
Q

What is XOJET’s stabilized approach criteria?

A
  • Normal power settings
  • Correct vertical/lateral flight path
  • Ref to Ref +10
  • ILS is within one dot of LOC and GS
  • Stable at 1000’ for an approach or 500’ for a visual
  • Touchdown -250’ to +500 from the 1000’ touchdown marker.
84
Q

What is a “diverse” airport?

A

An airport without a SID or ODP on the 10-9 page

Must maintain 3.3% TERPS climb rate (200’ NM)

XoJet (3 decks)

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