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Australian IFR & Technical Questions > Operational 135 questions > Flashcards

Operational 135 questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the is the potential results, if operational procedure or technique are not followed when the terminology WARNING is used?

A

May result in personal injury or loss of life.

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2
Q

What is the is the potential results, if operational procedure or technique are not followed when the terminology CAUTION is used?

A

May result in Damage to equipment.

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3
Q

What is the is the purpose to operational procedure or technique when the terminology NOTE is used?

A

Considered essential to emphasise.

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4
Q

What is the meaning and intent of the terminology MUST, WILL & SHALL

A

They all denote a mandatory requirement.

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5
Q

What is the meaning and intent of the terminology SHOULD & MAY?

A

They denote an optional or recommended requirement.

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6
Q

What is the alternative name for the Chief Pilot?

A

HOFO. (Head of Flight Operations).

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7
Q

What is Air Maestro?

A

The electronic data base used to support the company’s Flight Operations function.

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8
Q

What is the meaning of consigned freight?

A

Means cargo that is unaccompanied, therefore requiring it to be associated with appropriate documentation.

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9
Q

What is Cargo?

A

Means things other than Passengers carried on an aircraft .

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10
Q

What is Relevant Cruise Speed?

A

Means the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed, in ISA conditions and still air.

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11
Q

Pilot?

A

A person in the possession of a valid pilots license issued by the Authority together with a current Class 1 medical certificate.

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12
Q

The Authority (CASA)?

A

The Australian Civil Aviation Safety Authority.

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13
Q

OEM?

A

Original Equipment Manufacturer.

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14
Q

Captain?

A

Is a pilot that holds a command endorsement on the aircraft type, thereby permitting them to occupy the left seat and act as pilot in command, during normal operations, or the right seat whilst conducting check and training operations.

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15
Q

Pilot in Command (PIC)?

A

The Pilot directly responsible for the operation of the aircraft weather at the controls or not. The PIC is the final authority on all decisions relating to the operation of the aircraft.

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16
Q

Pilot Flying (PF)?

A

The pilot occupying a control seat who is manually controlling the aircraft or supervising the input required for automated flight.

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17
Q

Left Seat / Right Seat Pilot?

A

Used to designate the pilot who accomplishes a task due to proximity to the controls or indicator.

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18
Q

Animals?

A

Any member of the animal kingdom other than man, including all domesticated and undomesticated mammals, birds, reptiles, fish, insects, crustaceans and shell fish.

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19
Q

Accountable manager?

A

Also referred to as the Managing Director.

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20
Q

Second Pilot?

A

A pilot occupying a control seat who is not flying the aircraft but holds a command endorsement for the aircraft type.

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21
Q

All flight are to be authorised, Who has to authorise the flights?

A

The HOFO or his or her delegate.

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22
Q

Who is responsible for assessing the risks identified or perceived to flight operations and making decisions to restrict or suspend operations?

A

The HOFO.

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23
Q

Who is responsible to communicate immediately they become aware, by any means practicable, of any risk viewed to endanger a company aircraft?

A

The Staff.

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24
Q

How would the HOFO advices staff of any decision to suspend or restrict flight operations?

a) VHF Radio
b) Mobile Phone
c) Sat phone
d) Home Phone
e) All of the above and as appropriate.

A

e) All of the above and as appropriate.

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25
Q

What documents is the Pilot in command to ensure are on all company aircraft on all flights?

A

→ Valid Maintenance Release or flight technical Log for a Part 42 approved aircraft.
→ Flight Log (CAR 30 aircraft only); Company form 401 or 406 as is appropriate.
→ Appropriate Crew License and current Class 1 Medical certificate.
→ Aircraft flight manual and other associated equipment manuals e.g. FMS.
→ Weight & Balance calculations.
→ Operational Documents folder including:
- Flight notification documents,
- NOTAMS & AIS briefings,
- Autherised weather forecasts for the planned route and planned alternate airdromes.
→ Cargo Manifest (If applicable),
→ Passenger list including the details of any person who may require special consideration in the event of an evacuation,
→ Cockpit check list
→ Minimum Equipment List (MEL) & maintenance control manual,
→ Jeppessen Airways Manual or AIP covering intended area of operation,
→Fuel Carnet/Credit cards,
→All Company operations manuals, content pertinent to the duties of the crew members and required for the conduct of the flight.

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26
Q

Where is the Passenger list to be kept for the duration of the flight?

A

On the ground.

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27
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to ensure all changes to a passenger list are update on a multi-flight journey? How soon should this be done?

A

The PIC.
As soon as practicable.

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28
Q

If a document is required to be carried on a flight, by what means can this be achieved?

A

By a paper copy or a freely available electronic copy of the material.

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29
Q

Where the aircraft flight manual conflicts with other publications what document takes precedence?

A

The flight manual.

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30
Q

Who is responsible for revision and updating the aircraft flight manuals?
How often will this take place?

A

The CAM.
Every 6 months

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31
Q

What are the second pilots Duties?

A

The second pilot’s duties are limited to alerting the PIC of any abnormal or emergency scenarios or take over if the pilot is incapacitated.

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32
Q

What number of passengers are required before cabin crew are required?

A

over 19.

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33
Q

AC?

A

Advisory Circular.

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34
Q

61PC

A

Part 61 Proficiency check.

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35
Q

ACAS?

A

Airborne Collision Avoidance System.

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36
Q

AFM?

A

Aircraft Flight Manual.

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37
Q

AMC?

A

Acceptable Means of Compliance.

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38
Q

ARA?

A

Airborne Radar Approach.

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39
Q

APC?

A

Aerial Application Proficiency Check.

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40
Q

CASR?

A

Civil Aviation Safety Regulations 1998.

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41
Q

CBT?

A

Computer-Based Training Systems.

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42
Q

CAO?

A

Civil Aviation Order.

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43
Q

EBT?

A

Evidence-Base Training

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44
Q

EDTO?

A

Extended Diversion Time Operations.

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45
Q

FSM?

A

Flight Crew Member.

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46
Q

FDAP?

A

Flight Data Analysis Program.

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47
Q

FSTD?

A

Flight Simulator Training Device.

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48
Q

GM?

A

Guidance Material?

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49
Q

GPWS?

A

Ground Proximity Warning System.

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50
Q

HF?

A

Human Factors.

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51
Q

HOTC?

A

Head of Training & Checking

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52
Q

IFR?

A

Instrument Flight Rules.

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53
Q

IOS?

A

Instructor Operator Station.

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54
Q

IPC?

A

Instrument Proficiency Check.

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55
Q

LAHSO?

A

Land and Hold Short Operations.

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56
Q

LVO?

A

Low Visibility Operations.

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57
Q

MOS?

A

Manual of Standards.

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58
Q

NPC?

A

Night Vision Proficiency Check

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59
Q

NTS?

A

Non-Technical Skills.

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60
Q

OPC?

A

Operator Proficiency Check.

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61
Q

PBN?

A

Performance Based Navigation.

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62
Q

PRM?

A

Precision Radar Monitored Approach.

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63
Q

SMS?

A

Safety Management System.

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64
Q

SOP?

A

Standard Operating Procedures.

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65
Q

SPC?

A

Standardised Proficiency Check.

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66
Q

TAWS

A

Terrain Awareness Warning System.

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67
Q

TCAS?

A

Traffic Collision Avoidance System.

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68
Q

UPRT?

A

Upset Prevention and Recovery Training.

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69
Q

Who Is responsible for rostering?

A

The HOFO or (his or her Delegate).

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70
Q

Where will flight crew rosters be promulgated? and how long before a roster period will it be released?

A

Air Maestro.
One week prior.

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71
Q

What should a PIC do if they become aware of they don’t meet the requirements to carry out a rostered activity?

A

Contact the HOFO as soon as they become aware.

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72
Q

Before rostering a pilot for any duty, the HOFO or (his/her delegate) shall ensure that the pilot;

A

→ Is qualified to act as PIC of the aircraft and the pilot licence, rating and medical certificate is valid for the period of the roster.
→ Meets recency requirement of CASR 61.395.
→ Is qualified to act as pilot in command over the route.
→ Has met the requirements foe emergency procedures.
→ Has enough flight time, duty hours for the purposed roster.

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73
Q

Who has to approve amendments to a flight crew duty Roster? and who has to be notified of the changes?

A

The person who issued the original.
All personnel effected by the changes.

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74
Q

What time requirement dose a crew member on standby have to be from base?
and what is the dispatch time for domestic operations?

A

20 minutes.
1 hour.

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75
Q

Where are flight and duty time stored?

A

Air Maestro.

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76
Q

When should F&D times be entered into Air Maestro?
and any exceedances / discretion reports, notified to who?

A

At the completion of each days flying.
The HOFO.

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77
Q

SBP?

A

Senior Base Pilot.

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78
Q

What will the SBP be looking for when carrying out quarterly reviews of FTL’s?

A

→ Pilot Air Maestro logbook vs Pilots personal log book are accurate.
→ Time sheet vs FTL or Flight log are correct.

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79
Q

What start duty time is required at the start of a shift?
This may be reduced to?
By what circumstances?

A

45 minutes prior to flight.
30 minutes.
When operational assistance is available. i.e. AVPLAN, Champagne etc.

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80
Q

How long after a flight dose a duty period finish?

A

15 minutes or the completion of duty.

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81
Q

Who has to approve split shifts or duty extensions?

A

The HOFO

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82
Q

To maintain F&D time limitations to the commercial standard any private flights outside the company operations, need to be approved by the ________?

A

HOFO

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83
Q

To evaluate extensions to a flight and duty period the HOFO will use which risk assessment tool to determine the level of risk?

A

The Flight Safety International Single Pilot Resource Management Risk Assessment Tool.

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84
Q

When dose the PIC’s responsibilities commence for a flight?

A

From the earlier of the time the aircraft doors are close before take-off and the flight begins.

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85
Q

When dose the PIC’s responsibilities end for a flight?

A

The later of the time the aircraft’s doors are opened after landing and the time the flight ends.

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86
Q

What distance must an aircraft be from any sort of fuel spill or flammable material before starting an engine.
What must be done if this distance can’t be met?

A
  • 15m (50ft).
  • the fire hazard must be removed.
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87
Q

A Company aircraft engine shall not be started or operated within what distance of any sealed building;

A

• Within 5 metres (17 ft) of any sealed building;

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88
Q

A Company aircraft engine shall not be started or operated• within what distance of other aircraft?

A

Within 8 metres (25 ft) of other aircraft.

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89
Q

A Company aircraft engine shall not be started or operated within what distance of any exposed public area?

A

• within 15 metres (50 ft) of any exposed public area

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90
Q

A Company aircraft with a maximum take-off weight exceeding 5,700 kg (12,566 lb) the engine shall not be started or operated within what distance of any unsealed building?

A

• within 15 metres (50 ft) of any unsealed building.

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91
Q

A Company aircraft with a maximum take-off weight not exceeding 5,700 kg (12,566 lb) the engine shall not be started or operated within what distance of any unsealed building?

A

• within 8 metres (25 ft) of any unsealed building

92
Q

turboprop engines, shall not be operated within the appropriate distance of any other aircraft, fuelling equipment or exposed public areas which lie to the rear of and within a 15-degree arc either side of the exhaust outlet axis of that engine.
a) What is that distance at or below normal slow taxiing power?
b) What is the distance at power used to initiate movement of a stationary aircraft?

A

a) 15 meters (50ft)
b) 23 meters (75ft)

93
Q

Turbojet engines, shall not be operated within the appropriate distance of any other aircraft, fuelling equipment or exposed public areas which lie to the rear of and within a 15-degree arc either side of the exhaust outlet axis of that engine.
a) What is that distance at or below normal slow taxiing thrust?
b) What is the distance at thrust used to initiate movement of a stationary aircraft?

A

a) 30 meters (100ft)
b) 46 meters (150ft)

94
Q

The only persons permitted to start the engines of a Company aircraft are?

A

Endorsed Company pilots and licenced aircraft maintenance engineers who have been appropriately trained.

95
Q

When starting the engines of a Company aircraft, even if just for a ground test run, all crew and approved persons must use?

A

The aircraft cockpit checklist, with, in the case of ground test runs, full operational test of the aircraft fire detection and extinguishing system.

96
Q

NOTE
Fuelling equipment does not include?

A

equipment and outlet points of an installation located below ground level when the equipment is stowed and covering hatches are in place.

97
Q

The pilot in command and the operator shall ensure that passengers do not embark or disembark or that freight is not loaded or unloaded from the aircraft whilst an engine of the aircraft is operating unless?

A

The passengers and/or the loading personnel have been given instruction and guidance to protect them from injury as a consequence of engine operation.

98
Q

The only persons permitted to start or taxi Company aircraft are?
and if required have completed the required?
Additionally the pilot must have completed all?

A
  • Company pilots that hold a valid class/type rating for the aircraft to be taxied,
  • Training and Flight review,
  • Company required training and be released to line by the HOFO.
99
Q

The Citation Mustang will only be started or taxied by?

A
  • Company pilots with a current type rating.
100
Q

Company Class rated aeroplanes that require Training and Flight Review are:

A

• Cessna C208
• Pilatus PC12
• King Air B200

101
Q

What other persons are also authorised to start or taxi Company aeroplanes?

A
  • Persons holding a valid Part 64 authorisation.
102
Q

When taxing Company aircraft what must be used in full?

A
  • The Checklist!
103
Q

When taxiing company aircraft are returned to a secure location ensuring all?

A

Tiedowns, chocks, bungs, and control locks have been appropriately reset.

104
Q

When taxing Company aircraft the Flight Technical Log or Flight Log will be completed. Specifically:

A
  • fuel at start and shutdown
105
Q

The only persons permitted to operate the flight controls of Company aircraft are?
Who have current?
And meet all?

A
  • Endorsed Company pilots.
  • first-class medical certificates
  • proficiency check and recency standards.
106
Q

CASA FOIs may operate the controls of Company aircraft provided they are?

A
  • endorsed on type and are occupying a control seat for the purpose of testing Company pilots or if they are receiving training from Company training pilots.
107
Q

The jump seat on Company aircraft if fitted may be occupied by a passenger only with the?

A

Express permission of the pilot in command.

108
Q

If the jump seat is to be occupied by unlicensed and/or unendorsed persons?

A

They must be advised of sterile cockpit procedures and the reasons for them.

109
Q

The carriage of CASA inspectors on Company aircraft requires approval from?

A

The HOFO.

110
Q

CASA Flying Operations Inspectors (FOIs) may be carried to undertake?

A
  • Examinations, inspections,
  • Checks of the ability of an aircraft crew,
  • The operation of an aircraft or its equipment,
  • The ground organisation provided by the Company for aircraft administration.
111
Q

Prior to a flight with a testing officer, it is essential that the authorised testing officer clearly agree with the Company pilot?

A

Which of them has command responsibility.

112
Q

It is Company policy that a Company pilot must always be the nominated PIC unless?

A

The FOI is conducting a proficiency check or rating issue on Company personnel as a flight examiner.

113
Q

Company operations are normally single pilot. When a Safety Pilot is rostered to fly the HOFO will?

A

Designate one pilot as the PIC who will have overall responsibility for the flight.

114
Q

In addition to being responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft during flight time, the Pilot in Command shall be responsible?

A

For the safety of persons and cargo on board and for the conduct and safety of the members of the crew.

115
Q

The Pilot in Command shall have final authority as to the operation of the aircraft while he/she is in command and?

A

For the maintenance of discipline by all persons on board.

116
Q

The Pilot in Command of a Company aircraft, with such assistance as is necessary and reasonable, may:

A

• take such action, including the removal of a person from the aircraft or the placing of a person under restraint or in custody, by force, as the pilot considers reasonably necessary to ensure compliance with the Act or the Regulations in or in relation to the aircraft; and

• detain the passengers, crew and cargo for such period as the pilot considers reasonably necessary to ensure compliance with the Act or the Regulations in or in relation to the aircraft.

117
Q

A person, other than a member of the operating crew, may not enter the crew compartment without the express permission of the?

A

Pilot in Command.

118
Q

The pilot in command for a flight shall not operate an aircraft in a manner that creates a?

A

Hazard to another aircraft, a person or property.

119
Q

No person approved to taxi a Company aircraft shall park an aircraft where it will be?

A

A hazard to the movement of other aircraft.

120
Q

The pilot in command may, if necessary for the safety of the aircraft or persons on the aircraft or a person or property on the ground direct?
a)
b)
c)
The pilot in command may also direct a person to?
d)

A

a) A person to do something, while the person is on the aircraft.
b) Not do something, while the person is on the aircraft.
c) Limit the doing of something, while the person is on the aircraft.

d) Leave the aircraft before the flight commences.

121
Q

The PIC may use actions and directions that may be conducted with any assistance and using such force as is reasonable and necessary to:
1. Remove……
2. Restrain……
3. Seize……
4. Place……
5. Detain……

A

• Remove a person or a thing from the aircraft before flight commences; or
• Restrain a person or a thing for the duration of the flight; or
• Seize a thing on the aircraft for the duration of or part of the flight; or
• Place a person on the aircraft in custody; or
• Detain a person or a thing, until the person or the thing can be released into the control of an appropriate authority.

122
Q

All persons on the aircraft shall comply with an instruction(s) given by?

A

The pilot in command. (PIC).

123
Q

A crewmember of an aircraft for a flight may, without warrant, arrest a person on the aircraft if:
a)……
b)……
c)……

A

a) the crewmember believes, on reasonable grounds, that the person is committing, is attempting to commit, is about to commit, has committed or has attempted to commit, an offence against the Act or CASA Regulations in relation to the aircraft; and

b)the purpose of the arrest is to ensure the safety of the aircraft or of its passengers, crew, or cargo; and

c) if the crewmember is not the pilot in command of the aircraft – the pilot in command has authorised the crewmember to arrest the person without warrant.

124
Q

The pilot in command of the aircraft must ensure that, as soon as practicable after the end of the flight, a person arrested is delivered into the custody of:

a) If the flight ends in Australia—

b) If the flight ends in a foreign country—

A

a) a constable.

b) a person in that country who is equivalent to a constable.

125
Q

The Company is not required to carry Flight Attendants. However, the Company may carry an ablebodied person on some flights to assist with passenger relations, managing catering supplies, assisting with passenger facilitation.

  • These persons are not to operate?
  • This remains the responsibility?
A
  • The cabin door or any emergency equipment.
  • Of the flight crew.
126
Q

Company aircraft may be flown under simulated instrument flying conditions in accordance with the following requirements:

A

• At all times the pilot not flying must have adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft.

• Unless on a published SID, STAR or instrument approach, flying in simulated instrument flying conditions must not be conducted below 5,000’ AGL, or when on an instrument approach below the minimum decent height or decision altitude.

• Single engine turbine aircraft conducting emergency training procedures must comply with the conditions above or 500’ AGL when not on an instrument approach.

127
Q

Training flights must be conducted only under the following conditions:

A

• The only persons on board must be operational crew, crew under training or CASA inspectors observing training operations on board the aircraft.

• Training flights involving simulated emergency procedures must be conducted by day in VMC conditions.

128
Q

Proving flights are exercises normally required by CASA to assess the operational capability and readiness of an operator to conduct operations either?

A
  • As a new AOC applicant or;
  • An AOC holder adding additional aircraft or authorisations to their AOC.
129
Q

Proving flights will normally be conducted as a normal operational flight with passengers on board. Simulated emergencies will normally be limited to inflight diversions due simulated conditions such as a depressurisation or on-board fire.
What will not normally be carried out on a Proving flight?

A

Simulated engine failures involving closing of power levers, unusual attitudes etc. will not normally be carried out on a proving flight.

130
Q

-
-

A
  • Following particular significant maintenance events or ;
  • When a maintenance release or flight technical log entry has been made which has invalidated the maintenance release/flight technical log;
  • When ground trouble shooting has failed to identify the problem.
131
Q

When an assessment flight is required it will be carried out in accordance with the requirements of the maintenance program or schedule applicable to the aircraft and?

A
  • Will only be initiated on the advice of the CAM.
132
Q

In cases where a special flight permit is required to conduct a flight, the procedures for the conduct of an assessment flight will also be adhered to and are listed as?

A
  • Assessment flights will be conducted by day in VMC,
  • With only the operating crew plus engineering staff on board,
  • Assessment flights require either HOFO or GMFO and CAM’s approval,
133
Q
  • As part of this approval and prior to an assessment flight, the PIC, HOFO/GMFO, CAM and any required engineer will brief the intended flight. At a minimum, the details will be discussed.
    What are the six listed details?
    -
    -
    -
    -
    -
    -
A

• The reason for the assessment flight,
• The personnel are required to be onboard,
• Which aircraft systems are required to be checked during the test flight, if at all,
• Any limitations relevant for the assessment flight,
• Weather, airspace, and traffic considerations,
• Any other relevant threats pertinent to the flight.

134
Q

The Company from time to time may subcontract flights to another Company. In these cases, the Company will ensure that the subcontracted Company has?

A
  • Been appropriately audited by Aviar Safety and Quality before being approved for use and,
  • The client has been informed.
135
Q

Pilots are not permitted to plan a flight with the intent of requesting special VFR operations based on known or forecast weather conditions.

A
136
Q

-

A
  • Delay or reschedule the flight or,
  • If approved to do so plan under the IFR.
137
Q

Dose anything in this section of the ops manual stop a pilot from flying special VFR?

A
  • No.
    Nothing in this section prevents a pilot from requesting Special VFR if this represents the safest option with regards to the circumstances.
138
Q

When an aircraft is operated with a single pilot a person may occupy the right-hand control seat providing:

A

The person is a crew member assigned to duty for the flight by the Company;
• An authorised officer who is carrying out an audit, check, examination, inspection, or test under these Regulations
• The PIC has filled all other available seats;
• The PIC is satisfied adequate instructions have been given to the passenger including the following items: - - - - -
- no interference with aircraft controls will occur;
- seat position; feet clear of rudder pedals;
- hands and knees clear of all flight controls; sterile cockpit requirements are briefed refer to 2B4.6
• Communication between the passenger and the pilot is always available during flight. Passengers are not to be seated in a control seat on Scheduled operations..

139
Q

The Pilot-in-Command shall not permit persons to, and a person shall not manipulate the flight controls other than?

A
  • Than those authorised by the pilot of the aircraft.
140
Q

Carriage of goods in the cockpit of Company Aircraft is?

A

Prohibited.

141
Q

Cargo may be carried in passenger compartments provided?

A

It’s adequately stowed and does not obstruct aircraft emergency exits at any time in flight.

142
Q

Cargo may be stowed using approved methods found?

A

In the AFM.

143
Q

When cargo may be carried on an unoccupied passenger seat provided?

A

The next adjacent seat is clear or is an aisle seat.

144
Q

Cargo carried on an unoccupied passenger seat, shall have the weight evenly distributed over the squab and shall not exceed what weight?

A
  • 77 kg.
145
Q

Passenger’s small personal carry-on items that can be stowed in approved stowage compartments i.e. where are these stowage areas?

A
  • Under a seat,
  • In a seat pocket,
  • In an approved storage cabinet/overhead bin.
146
Q

A Restricted Person is?

A

a. a deportee (within the meaning of subsection 5(1) of the Migration Act 1958); or
b. a removee (within the meaning of subsection 5(1) of the Migration Act 1958); or
c. a person in custody; or
d. a passenger carried on an aircraft:
- i. who is on the aircraft because the passenger has been refused entry to a country; or,
- ii. whose passport does not include a visa required for entry to the passenger’s destination country.

147
Q

Under the Aviation Transport Security Act 2004, and Aviation Transport Security Regulations 2005?

A

Operators of a prescribed air service have particular security responsibilities.

148
Q

Whenever Restricted Persons are carried in Company aircraft the department requesting the carriage of Restricted Persons must provide notice to the Company not later than?

A

• 48 hours before the intended start of the flight; or
• a later time agreed by the Company and the department requesting carriage.

149
Q

The number of Restricted Persons permitted for carriage in Company aircraft is found in what section of the operations manual?

A
  • Volume 2: Aircraft Operations
  • General Part B
  • Page 28 of 188
150
Q

NOTE Restricted Persons must be escorted by?

A

An appropriately trained and qualified person.

151
Q

The Company requires all pilots to depart where practically possible?

A

On time.

152
Q

Pilots are to ensure that all factors reasonably under their control have been?

A

Well considered and prepared before departure.

153
Q

Prior preparation is critical to ensuring?

A

On time performance.

154
Q

The Company considers an aircraft to have departed on time should the aircraft off blocks time be within?

A

Five minutes of the scheduled departure time as annotated on the passenger manifest.

155
Q

For the purposes of tracking on time performance the Company has codes in relation to on-time performance. The PIC will ensure that appropriate delay codes for each sector are entered into take flite at the end of the duty shift. A list of delay codes is detailed in?

A

Appendix A2.12.

156
Q

2A2.19 Aeroplane Registration Requirements are found What CASA documents?

A
  • CASR 119.080 (h)
  • CASR 119.205 (l) refers
157
Q

The MD will verify that any aircraft lease arrangement does not compromise operational safety, given the nature of the operations covered by the AOC. Each lease agreement is to be reviewed to ensure that?

A
  1. The lessor and lessee are properly identified on the lease.
  2. The lease is signed by the appropriate personnel in both the lessor’s and the lessee’s organisations.
  3. The effective date of the lease is identified.
  4. Aircraft delivery details are included.
  5. The registered operator of the aircraft is assigned to Aviair Pty Ltd.
  6. Operational control is specifically identified as being assigned to Aviair Pty Ltd.
  7. Should the aircraft require a MEL to operate this requirement is included in the lease agreement.
  8. Responsibilities for performing maintenance are specifically identified and assigned to particular parties to the lease. Unless otherwise specifically agreed this will be Aviair Pty Ltd CAMO.
  9. Responsibilities for keeping aircraft maintenance records are specifically identified and assigned to particular parties to the lease. Unless otherwise specifically agreed this will be Aviair Pty Ltd CAMO.
  10. The aircraft is to follow the maintenance programs of Aviair Pty Ltd CAMO.
  11. The lease is to be a dry lease.
158
Q

The CAMO have in place a system to identify, control and manage continuing airworthiness and maintenance control applicable to the leased aircraft. This must include the following?

A

• control of scheduled and unscheduled maintenance;
• management of different maintenance schedules and systems of maintenance; and
• systems to ensure compliance with the relevant airworthiness requirements, including AD and service bulletins.

159
Q

Aviair Pty Ltd shall be responsible for all aircraft leases, the following as per this Operations Manual Series:

A

• flight crew scheduling;
• dispatch procedural control;
• training of flight crew; and
• all cargo loading procedures and personnel training associated with the loading of the aircraft including Dangerous Goods procedures and training.

160
Q

A list of Company aircraft is contained in the CAMO Exposition. What section is this and is required by what Part of the regulations?

A

Section 1.4.1 as required by Part 42 of the regulations.

161
Q

2A2.20 Crew Activities Necessary for Safe Operation are found in what part of the regulatory frame work?

A

CASR 135.120 refers

162
Q

No activity other than those needed for the safe operation of the aircraft shall be requested of the flight crew by the Company or undertaken by flight crew during?

A
  • take-off,
    -initial climb,
    -final approach or landing of the aeroplane for the flight.
    -Only those activities essential for the safe flight of the aircraft and that the crew are satisfied is an essential activity may be undertaken at these times.
163
Q

The company does not differentiate between subcontracted and full-time pilots, to the extent that any requirement of the operations manual that would apply to a full-time pilot equally applies to subcontracted pilots. This includes but is not limited to:

A

• Pilot qualification and experience requirements;
• Training and checking requirements as described in the training and checking manual;
• Absence and recency requirements as described in Volume 2 of the operations manual.

164
Q

Subcontracted pilots must maintain a full record of?

A

flight and duty times including any flight and duty accrued while not operating for the company.

165
Q

The subcontracted pilots Air Maestro records will be inspected by the applicable senior base pilot before being?

A

Rostered for duty following a tour away from company operations.

166
Q

The flight category of Company flights will be either of three types of operations, what are they?

A

Non-Scheduled and Scheduled for air transport operations and aerial work flights.

167
Q

All Company aircraft will be flown either under what flight rules?

A

The IFR or VFR flight rules.

168
Q

For an IFR flight the aeroplane must be what type of aeroplane?

A

Multi-engine aeroplane or a prescribed single engine aeroplane.

169
Q

All Company flight shall have a submitted flight plan. Each flight plan must be prepared in consideration of the following: list the four main considerations of planning?

A

• the safety of the aeroplane, and of the people on board the aeroplane, during the flight; and • the aeroplane’s performance; and
• the expected aeroplane operating limitations and conditions for the flight; and
• meteorological conditions for the flight.

170
Q

All Company VFR flights shall have a submitted flight plan and will hold a SARTIME which will equal estimated time of arrival plus, how many minutes?

A

30 minutes.

171
Q

Part 91.245 MOS requires before take-off for a flight, the pilot in command of an aircraft to complete the following checks: list the checks required?

A

a. a check to confirm that each aerodrome, air route and airway facility that the pilot plans to use for the flight will be available for use;
b. a check of the following:
- i. all Head Office and FIR NOTAMs applicable to the enroute phase of the flight;
-ii. all location-specific NOTAMs for relevant aerodromes;

c. a check to confirm the availability of GNSS integrity as applicable;
d. a check to confirm that:
-i.all equipment required to be fitted to, or carried on, the aircraft by or under the civil aviation legislation is available and functioning properly; and
-ii. emergency and survival equipment carried on the aircraft is readily accessible;
e. a check to confirm that each crewmember is fit to perform the crewmember’s duties;
f. a check to confirm that:
-i. the aircraft’s hatches, access ports, panels and fuel tank caps are secured; and
-ii. the control locks, covers and ground safety devices and restraints have been removed; g.if the aircraft is an Australian aircraft — a check to confirm that there is either:
-i. a certificate of release to service for the most recent maintenance carried out on the aircraft; or
-ii. a maintenance release for the aircraft;
h. a check to confirm that the aircraft’s flight controls have been tested and are functioning correctly;
I. for each system fitted to the aircraft for measuring and displaying pressure altitude, a check of the system’s accuracy in accordance with the procedures mentioned in approved aircraft specific checklists and appropriate AFM;
j. if an amount of supplemental oxygen or protective breathing equipment is required by or under the civil aviation legislation to be carried on the aircraft for a flight crewmember for the flight — checks to ensure the following (as the case requires):
-i. that the required amount of supplemental oxygen is available;
-ii. that the protective breathing equipment is operative;
-iii. that the oxygen mask is connected to the supply terminal;
-iv. that each communication system associated with the oxygen mask is connected to the aircraft’s communication system;
k. if the oxygen mask is adjustable — that the mask fits the flight crewmember correctly.

172
Q

All Company flights shall also meet the requirements of subregulation 135.035 where planning will consider the relevant cruising speed of the aircraft to be flown.
What section of the ops manual is this found in?

A

See 2A1.8.

173
Q

NOTE

Where do you find comprehensive guidance on all flight planning and briefing information?

A

Refer to the Jeppesen Airway Manual Flight Planning section for comprehensive guidance on all flight planning and briefing information.

174
Q

For all Company flights a flight forecast must be obtained. The pilot in command must ensure that the forecasts cover the period for the flight and the aerodrome forecasts for the destination and alternate aerodromes, to be nominated in the flight plan, are valid for a period of?

A

Not less than 30 minutes before and 60 minutes after the planned ETA.

175
Q

When a flight is delayed so that the meteorological and operational information does not cover the period of the flight, what must be done to ensure the flight can be concluded safely?

A

Weather updates must be obtained, as necessary, to allow the flight to be concluded safely.

176
Q

When a pre-flight briefing is obtained more than one hour prior to EOBT, pilots should obtain an update before each departure to ensure that the latest information available can be used for the flight.
Where is this information obtained?

A
  • The update should be obtained via the Company service provider or NAIPS, or
  • by telephone or when this is impractical, by radio.
177
Q

Company aircraft are fitted, or pilots are required to carry Sat-phone. Why is this a mandatory requirement?

A

This provides an alternative means of communication.

178
Q

A requirement for flight in remote and oceanic areas using GNSS is that an appropriate enroute GNSS prediction analysis be conducted prior to each flight.
Where and how is this obtained?

A

The Company service provider online program will normally do a GNSS analysis as part of each Company flight plan.

179
Q

The PIC must during pre-flight planning assess the weather at the destination to determine if the runway will be wet for the scheduled arrival. For the purpose of flight planning, a wet runway will be assumed whenever it is operationally required to consider the below met conditions, whether forecasted on a TAF or GAF:

A

• Periods of moderate rain;
• Periods of heavy rain;
• Periods of thunderstorm rain

180
Q

A wet runway means a runway that:

A

• is covered by surface water not more than 3 mm deep; or
• is covered by slush or loose snow equivalent to surface water not more than 3 mm deep; or
• has enough moisture on the surface to cause it to appear reflective but without significant areas of standing water.

181
Q

If the runway is forecast to be wet, then the following Pre-flight safety factors must be applied to the Actual Landing Distance derived from the AFM or FMS:
Where in the operations manual is this found?

A

1.1.4 Landing Distance Factors.

182
Q

If a forecast indicates the runway will be dry at the time of landing but on arrival (in-flight) the runway is wet the landing distance factoring will be?

A

In accordance with the pre-flight safety factors listed in section 1.1.4 Landing Distance Factors.

183
Q

Aircrew must ensure they are aware of any Nav Data Alerts that may affect their flight. To ensure this the following process will be followed:

A

• Nav Data Alerts are received by the HOFO and then are uploaded to a Nav Data Alerts in Air Maestro Library.
• The Nav Data Alerts will be saved in .pdf format to EFB under Fleet/NAV Data Alerts.
• Flight Crew will review the Nav Data Alerts as part of their Departure / Arrival Brief.

184
Q

All flights regardless of the category of flight operations or flight rules will submit a flight plan. All procedures as per?

A

ENR 1.10 Flight Planning.

185
Q

All VFR flights will hold SARTIMES with?

A

CENSAR.

186
Q

The pilot in command of an aircraft for a flight where a SARTIME has been nominated must ensure that the SARTIME is cancelled?

A

Not later than the time nominated.

187
Q

The pilot in command must ensure that ATS is notified of changes in any of the following:

A

a) the aircraft callsign or registration;
b) the flight rules under which the flight will be operating;
c) serviceability of the equipment that, as stated in the flight plan, is carried on board;
d) the planned departure time (but only if changed by more than 30 minutes);
e) the route, landing points and destination alternate aerodromes;
f) the cruising level;
g) the cruising speed;
h) the number of POB (except for a flight that is a Schedule or Unscheduled air transport operation).

188
Q

Aircraft and specific planning data are locked and may only be altered with?

A

The Chief Pilots approval.

189
Q

Domestic Flights The Company uses Champagne Flight planner and AVPLAN to obtain flight forecasts, pre-flight briefing, and NOTAMs as well as lodging of flight plans and generation of navigation logs for all domestic flights. The logon details for the Company accounts and initial training for the required planning software will be given to crew on joining the Company. The below table lists the approved flight planning software for each aircraft type:

A

Aircraft Type …………….Approved Flight Planning Software
King Air B200 ……………Champagne and AVPLAN
Baron 58 …………………..Champagne
PC12 …………………………Champagne and AVPLAN
C208B ……………………….Champagne
Citation C510 …………….AVPLAN and Universal

190
Q

If internet access is not available, can you still use Champagne Flight Planner and AVPLAN?
Where will you have to obtain flight forecasts, pre-flight briefing and NOTAMs from?

A
  • Yes they may still be used however winds will have to be inputted manually.
  • Obtained through an approved external source such as NAIPS.
191
Q

International Flights.
The Company uses Universal Aviation online flight planning website to obtain flight forecasts, preflight briefing and NOTAMs as well as lodging of flight plans and generation of navigation logs for all international flights. Where are login details found?

A

The logon details for the Company accounts will be given to crew on joining the Company.

192
Q

If internet access is not available, the Company has been assigned the Echo Team at Universal and they can be contacted by;

A

Telephone:
N. America: +1 (866) 882-4743
Worldwide: +1 (713) 378-2710
Fax: +1 (713) 943-4654
Manager: Jerri Banks Phone: +1 (713) 378-486
Email: EchoTeam2univwea.com or
Email: customercare@univ-wea.com

193
Q

The echo team will:

A

• lodge flight plans;
• provide weather and operational briefings;
• obtain flight clearances where necessary;
• arrange handling and fuel and other services at each destination.

194
Q

The Company flight planning systems also allows the computation of PNR, ETP for engine out operations as well as depressurised operations. These computations are required for all multi-engine pressurised flights to meet what CASA requirements?

A

CAAP 234-1 requirements.

195
Q

On joining the Company, each pilot will be given training on the use of Champagne Flight Planner and Universal system as appropriate. What Volume and section of the Ops Manual are the found in?

A

See Volume 4 Section 2B3.2 for syllabus of training.

196
Q

The standard cruise speed selection is high speed cruise. Maximum range speeds are obtained from the aircraft performance manual. What Volume and section of the Ops manual are they found in?

A

See Volume 3 for specific aircraft performance information.

197
Q

Flight crew must always plan for an alternate where?

A

Weather and/or operational conditions require it.

198
Q

International flights to remote destinations or destinations not serviced by more than one runway and no 3D approach should?

A minimum 30-minute island reserve must be carried if an alternate is not possible. Refer to?

A
  • Have an alternate planned, where possible, even though the forecast does not require it.
  • Remote Island Fuel Policy 2B2.22
199
Q

Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) are referenced in what publications?

NOTAMs must be obtained for all flights either through?

A
  • AIP-GEN 3.1 and 2, Jeppesen manual
  • Champagne Flight Planner, AVPLAN, Universal Flight Planning, NAIPS or local aviation services.
200
Q

Unscheduled Air Transport Operations and Aerial Work.
It is the PIC’s responsibility to have an adequate knowledge of the route to be flown, the aerodromes which are to be used and the designated alternate aerodromes, including a knowledge of:

A

• the terrain;
• the seasonal meteorological conditions;
• the meteorological, communication and air traffic facilities, services and procedures;
• the search and rescue procedures;
• the navigational facilities;
• all available enroute and terminal charts;
• NOTAMS;
• airport data;
• entry requirements for international operations;
• overflight clearance requirements for international operations;
• facilitation including fuel availability;
• ground handling agents.

201
Q

When planning a flight the PIC should also take advantage of firsthand knowledge from?

A

Other pilots who may have flown the route.

202
Q

Scheduled Air Transport Operations – Route Check Requirements,
Prior to being rostered for a flight duty period on a scheduled air transport service, a pilot must be assessed in accordance with?

A

the Aviair training and checking system, as competent to perform the duties assigned to the person for the flight.

203
Q

Specific route training will be required on scheduled services prior to?

A

pilots being approved to operate such flights as Pilot in Command.

204
Q

Scheduled services are generally available to the public for booking and can be defined as flights operating on long term contracts with fixed schedules. For example?

These types of operations will always have a route guide in accordance with?

For pilots to be deemed competent on these routes, they must have completed, during initial ICUS or transition training, which includes a?

Records of this training shall be included on?

A
  • All RASS and IRFN operations are defined as flights with fixed schedules.
  • Section Volume 7, 7C3.
  • flight on the specific route with a qualified supervisory/training pilot or a check pilot.
  • The pilot’s line training checklist.
205
Q

Planning altitudes and flight levels,
The PIC will plan at appropriate hemispherical or quadrantal levels or altitudes. ASEA flights must always also Flight plan to remain within the?

A

ASEA safety distance. See also 2C6 and 2C7 of this manual.

206
Q

Restricted and prohibited areas,

Can a PIC fly over a prohibited area?

Can a PIC fly an aircraft over or within a restricted or danger area if the flight is not in accordance with the conditions specified in the notice declaring the area to be a restricted or danger area.

A
  • No, The pilot in command must not fly the aircraft over a prohibited area.
  • No.
207
Q

If the pilot in command of an aircraft finds that the aircraft is over or in a prohibited, restricted or danger area the pilot must:

A

• immediately fly the aircraft to a position which is not over or in the area; and
• when the aircraft is clear of the area, report the circumstances to air traffic control; and
• land at such aerodrome, if directed, as is designated by air traffic control and, for that purpose, obey any instructions given by air traffic control as to the movement of the aircraft.

208
Q

Minimum Safe Altitudes/Lowest Safe Altitude (LSALT) are found in what publications?

A

AIP-GEN Air route details, Jeppesen departure, approach and landing procedures section.

209
Q

Minimum altitudes for IFR Company operations will be in accordance with?

A

The published Enroute and terminal area charts.

210
Q

When operating outside Australia, attention must be paid to high mountainous terrain where the LSALT may be higher than the engine out operating altitude.
What alternative planning is required?

Furthermore, consideration must be given to the oxygen system.
What are these considerations?

A
  • In such cases an alternative route must be planned to ensure engine out performance is adequate to provide safe terrain clearance.
  • Duration and the ability to descend to 10,000 feet should it become necessary due to depletion of the O2 supply.
211
Q

Terrain and obstacle clearance,
Obstacle/terrain avoidance while below the LSALT or MSA as applicable, is a pilot responsibility except in the circumstances outlined as follows:

A

ATC is responsible for terrain clearance when an aircraft has been assigned a level using ATS surveillance service terrain clearance procedures until:
• the pilot is assigned the responsibility for maintaining such clearance visually, or
• a visual or instrument approach is commenced, or
• the aircraft is being flown in VMC

212
Q
  • ASEA Terrain, obstacle and departure criteria, Are?
  • ASEA pilots may depart visually, however terrain clearance must be assured visually until the?
A
  • When operating Company pilots will depart in accordance with a published standard instrument departure (SID), or,
  • circles the aircraft within the circling area until the minimum safe altitude has been reached when operating in instrument meteorological conditions.
  • Minimum safe altitude has been reached and before entering instrument metrological conditions.
213
Q

Regardless of the type of departure procedure pilots will also ensure that glide to a safe landing area can be achieved?

A

Should the aircrafts engine fail.

214
Q

Some ASEA aircraft are capable of outclimbing the glide profile of the aircraft while others cannot. The PIC must carefully consider?

A
  • the aircraft climb capabilities,
  • availability of safe landing areas after take-off,
  • aircraft weight and
  • meteorological conditions when choosing how to depart.
215
Q
  • When ASEA aircraft glide to a safe landing site cannot be assured the PIC will depart?
  • Pilots operating from controlled aerodromes must make the tower aware of any set height requirements on?
  • When operating from an unfamiliar aerodrome pilots are encouraged to?
A
  • Overhead the aerodrome.
  • Call for initial clearance.
  • Call the tower in advance to discuss specific operational requirements.
216
Q

Aircraft Performance Limitations,

  • It is the responsibility of the pilot in command to ensure the performance of the aircraft is adequate for the?
  • What checklist and performance information should be used?
A
  • Prevailing conditions and weight of the aircraft.
  • The OEM Checklist performance information is to be used or the FMS Performance Database, if installed.
217
Q

ATC must be advised of the tracking requirements if an engine failure occurs.
If ATC Departure procedure is to be flown, what are the requirements for AOB and speeds?

A
  • All turns are conducted at 15 degrees AOB unless otherwise specified. If greater than 15 degrees AOB required, the aircraft must be flown at V2 + 10kts.
218
Q

Performance requirements Air Transport Aircraft,

Take-off distance factoring – standard take-off factoring will be applied to the Take-off Distance Required as derived from the applicable section within the Aircraft Flight Manual. The standard takeoff factoring will be determined in accordance with?

A

a) for an aeroplane with an MTOW of not more than 2 000 kg – 1.15; and
b) for an aeroplane with an MTOW of more than 2 000 kg, but less than 3 500 kg – a factor derived by linear interpolation between 1.15 and 1.25, according to the aeroplane’s MTOW; and
c) for an aeroplane with an MTOW of 3 500 kg or more – 1.25.

Pilots must also ensure that the take-off run required, and the take-off distance required multiplied by the mentioned factors, exceed the take-off run available and the take-off distance available respectively.

219
Q

Performance requirements Air Transport Aircraft

Landing distance factoring – a standard landing factor will be applied to the Landing Distance Required as derived from the applicable section within the Aircraft Flight Manual. The standard landing factoring will be determined in accordance with the below:

A

a) for an aeroplane with an MTOW of not more than 2 000 kg – 1.15; and

b) for an aeroplane with an MTOW of more than 2 000 kg, but less than 4 500 kg – a factor derived by linear interpolation, between 1.15 and 1.43, according to the aeroplane’s MTOW; and
c) for an aeroplane with an MTOW of 4 500 kg or more – 1.43; or
d) for a jet-driven multi engine aeroplane with MTOW of more than 2 722kg – 1.67. Refer section 2B1.1.4 Landing distance factors for additional factoring considerations when operating on wet runways. Information on aircraft performance can be provided to the Pilot in Command via Company route guides however this infomormation must be used as an indicative guide only and may use more conservative factoring than mentioned above.

220
Q

In relation to aircraft performance requirements, what is the PIC responsible for?

A

The Pilot in Command is responsible for ensuring that the aircarft performance requirements have been complied with at all times.

221
Q

Aircraft performance category,

Company aircraft must be flown in the appropriate category for all instrument approach procedures. Standard operating procedures for each Company aircraft type are contained in what publication?

A

Volume 3.

222
Q

Balance filed length – Multi engine aircraft,

Only aircraft operating flights for the BHP Billiton Group and Chevron must meet balanced field length criteria for all take-offs. The PIC must use the Balanced Field Length charts in the appropriate AFM to calculate the?

A

Maximum take-off weight permitted to ensure balanced field length is available for that take-off.

223
Q

Performance requirements Multi Engine Turbojet Aircraft

  • What is the preferred method of determining performance?
  • Can the crew specify various parameters for each location/runway as well as the preferred method of delivery of the analysis? And:
A
  • Aircraft performance analysis is provided by Aircraft Performance Group (APG).
  • Yes and: The performance and limitations are as outlined in the AFM for the specific airplane considered.
224
Q

Performance requirements Multi Engine Turbojet Aircraft,

  • Regulated take-off weight (RTOW) and Regulated landing weight (RLW) charts can be obtained?
  • These charts will normally only provide maximum take-off and landing weights for the prevailing conditions and will only be used?
  • Should APG provide an alternate departure procedure for a particular runway, APG Special procedures will normally?
  • Take-off distance – will be calculated using the approved APG data and?
  • Landing distance - will be calculated using the approved APG data and?
A
  • For each airport from APG.
  • When a proposed operation will encounter possible limiting conditions.
  • Be briefed and flown.
  • Factored so to ensure all take-off performance requirements can be complied with.
  • Factored so to ensure landing distance performance requirements.
225
Q
  • The pilot in command of a flight must ensure that the aircraft is flown at not more than the maximum indicated airspeed limits mentioned in the table in what section of the operations manual and what CASA rules are they governed by?
  • The requirements to follow these limitations are unless the?
A
  • Volume 2,
    1.8.5 Airspeed Limits
  • CASR 91.090 and 91.283 refer
  • Requirements of aviation safety state otherwise.
226
Q

-ETPs for normal, depressurised and one engine inoperative conditions are to be calculated using?
-PICs are responsible as per?
-To ensure that at any time on all flights after take-off, the fuel on board the aircraft should be enough in the event of a loss of pressurisation or an engine failure to land at?
Where the PIC has nominated an aerodrome other than the planned departure and destination aerodrome, they must ensure?

A
  • Universal Weather Flight Planner or Champagne Flight Planner for all multi-engine pressurised flights.
  • CAAP 234-1
  • An adequate aerodrome.
  • That the weather and NOTAMs for the ETP alternate aerodrome will allow for the safe landing of the aircraft.

Australian IFR & Technical Questions (3 decks)

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