CASA IFR Cheat Sheet

Question 1

– Definition of category of aircraft for Part 61 Each of the following is a category of aircraft:
- What CASR is it?

Answer 1

a) aeroplane;
b) helicopter;
c) powered-lift aircraft;
d) gyroplane;
e) airship.

CASR 61.015

Question 2

– Definition of class of aircraft for Part 61.

What CASR is this covered by?

(1) Each of the following is a class of aircraft:

(2) For this Part, the single-engine aeroplane class includes:

Answer 2

CASR 61.020
(1),
a) single-engine aeroplane;
b) multi-engine aeroplane;
c) single-engine helicopter;
ca) powered-lift aircraft;
d) single-engine gyroplane;
e) airship
(2),
a) multi-engine centre-line thrust aeroplanes; and
b) multi-engine aeroplanes that are prescribed by a legislative instrument under regulation 61.050 (Prescription of multi-engine aeroplanes included in single-engine class).

Question 3

Part 61 Manual of Standards CASR 61.035 – Issue of Manual of Standards for Part 61

1) CASA may issue a Manual of Standards for this Part that sets out matters relating to flight crew licences, As stated in paragraph __________________ of the Act?

. (2) In particular, the manual of standards may set out standards for the following:

Answer 3

(1) For paragraph 98(5A)(a) of the Act,

(2)
a) approvals under regulation 61.040;
b) aeronautical and other knowledge required by this Part for the grant of a licence, rating or endorsement;
c) flight training;
d) other training and development requirements;
e) flight tests;
f) aviation and general English language proficiency;
g) general operating competencies for:
(i) aircraft of a particular class or type; and
(ii) activities authorised by operational ratings and endorsements;
h) competency in the use of an airborne collision avoidance system;
(i) flight reviews;
k) instrument proficiency checks;
l) night vision imaging system proficiency checks;
m) aerial application proficiency checks;
n) instructor proficiency checks;
o) competencies for glider pilot licences.

Question 4

Validity of an Instrument Proficiency Check CASR 61.880 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings – instrument proficiency check Paragraph 3 An instrument proficiency check is valid: From & For?

Answer 4

• From the period the holder passes the flight test to the end of the 12th month after the month in which the holder passes the flight test. or
• For the period during which the holder is successfully participating in an operator’s training and checking system for an IFR operation in the relevant aircraft. If the holder successfully completes an instrument proficiency check for the relevant aircraft within 3 months before the validity of the existing check expires, then the instrument proficiency check is valid to the end of the 12th month after the validity of the existing check.

Question 5

CASR 61.855 – Privileges of instrument ratings Subject to Subpart 61.E and regulations 61.860 to 61.880, States that the holder of an instrument rating is authorised to pilot an aircraft: ? (a) (b)

Answer 5

(a) under the IFR; or
(b) at night under the VFR.

Question 6

CASR 61.860 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings – general The holder of an instrument rating is authorised to:

Answer 6

• conduct an instrument approach only if the aircraft is equipped for that kind of operation;
• pilot an aircraft in a single-pilot operation under the IFR only if, at some time in the past, the holder has passed an instrument rating flight test in a single-pilot aircraft or has completed an instrument proficiency check in a single-pilot aircraft;
• conduct a circling approach under the IFR only if:
- the holder passed the instrument rating flight test within the previous 12 months and that flight test included a circling approach; or
- the holder’s most recent instrument proficiency check (or operator’s proficiency check that covers IFR operations and is conducted by a flight examiner who holds an instrument rating flight test endorsement) included a circling approach; or
-the holder is successfully participating in an operator’s training and checking system for an operation that includes circling approaches;
• conduct an instrument approach only if the holder has completed training in the conduct of that instrument approach and has demonstrated competence to CASA or an examiner.

Question 7

CASR 61.870 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings – recent experience: general

Requirement (in an aircraft or approved flight simulation training device)

To fly under the IFR Must have conducted?

Answer 7

At least three instrument approach operations within the previous 90 days.

Question 8

CASR 61.870 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings – recent experience: general

Requirement (in an aircraft or approved flight simulation training device)

To pilot an aircraft of a particular category Must have conducted?

Answer 8

At least one instrument approach operation in an aircraft of the same category (refer to Definitions) within the previous 90 days

Question 9

CASR 61.870 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings – recent experience: general

Requirement (in an aircraft or approved flight simulation training device)

2D approach Must have conducted?

Answer 9

At least one 2D instrument approach within the previous 90 days

Question 10

CASR 61.870 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings – recent experience: general

Requirement (in an aircraft or approved flight simulation training device)

3D approach Must have conducted?

Answer 10

At least one 3D instrument approach within the previous 90 days.

Question 11

CASR 61.870 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings – recent experience: general

Requirement (in an aircraft or approved flight simulation training device)

Azimuth guidance Must have conducted?

Answer 11

At least one 2D instrument approach using azimuth guidance within the previous 90 days.

Question 12

CASR 61.870 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings – recent experience: general

Requirement (in an aircraft or approved flight simulation training device)

Course deviation indicator Must have conducted?

Answer 12

At least one instrument approach using a CDI within the previous 90 days.

Question 13

All of the IFR recent experience requirements are considered to be met if the holder: ?

Answer 13

• the holder has successfully completed an operator proficiency check that covers IFR operations within the previous 3 months; or
• the holder is successfully participating in an operator’s training and checking system for an IFR operation.

Question 14

CASR 61.875 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings – recent experience: single pilot?

Answer 14

1) The holder of an instrument rating is authorised to pilot an aircraft under the IFR in a single-pilot operation only if the holder has conducted a flight or simulated flight under the IFR in a single-pilot operation within the previous 6 months.

2) For subregulation (1), the flight or simulated flight must:
a) have a duration of at least one hour; and
b) include at least one instrument approach or simulated instrument approach.

Question 15

Part 91 MOS Chapter 26.08 – Equipment – Aeroplane IFR flight

Requirements?

Answer 15

Approved GNSS, AI (1),ASI (2,3), ALT (3), VSI (3), T+S (4,5), DG (6), Compass, OAT, Clock (7).

(1) Primary and alternate power supply unless independent of T+S or a second AI required
(2) Pitot heat required on at least one ASI
(3) With alternate static source or a balanced pair of flush static ports
(4) Slip only if a second AI is available
(5) Primary and alternate power supply unless independent of other gyroscopic instruments or a second AI required
(6) Primary and alternate power supply unless independent of T+S or a second AI required
(7) Can be worn

Question 16

Part 91 MOS 26.25 – Altiude alerting system and assigned altitude indicator – IFR flights,

1) For an IFR flight, the following aircraft must be fitted with altitude alerting equipment in accordance with subsection (2): ?

Answer 16

a) a piston-engine aircraft operating in controlled airspace above FL 150;
b) an unpressurised turbine-engine aircraft operating in controlled airspace above FL 150;
c) a pressurised turbine-engine aircraft operating in any controlled airspace.

Question 17

Part 91 MOS 26.25 – Altiude alerting system and assigned altitude indicator – IFR flights,

2) For subsection (1), the altitude alerting equipment must: ?

Answer 17

a) include an assigned altitude indicator; and
b) alert the flight crew members if the aircraft approaches a preselected altitude; and
c) alert the flight crew members, including by an aural warning, if the aircraft deviates from a preselected altitude.

Question 18

Part 91 MOS 26.25 – Altiude alerting system and assigned altitude indicator – IFR flights,

3) If an aircraft, other than an aircraft to which subsection (1) applies, is operating under the IFR in controlled airspace, the aircraft must be fitted with?

Answer 18

Altitude alerting equipment that at least includes an assigned altitude indicator.

Question 19

Part 91 MOS 26.04 – Flight with inoperative equipment

1) Subject to subsection (2), an aircraft may begin a flight with equipment that is inoperative, despite a requirement under this Chapter that equipment must be fitted to, or carried on, the aircraft for the flight.
2) Subsection (1) only applies if the aircraft is operated: ? a), b) & in accordance with what regulation.

Answer 19

a) in accordance with the MEL for the aircraft for the flight; or
b) if the equipment is inoperative because of a defect that has been approved as a permissible unserviceability for the aircraft for the flight in accordance with regulation 21.007 of CASR — in accordance with the permissible unserviceability.

Question 20

Part 91 MOS 26.21 – Cockpit and cabin lighting requirement,
Equipment illumination include?

Answer 20

• Checklists and documents Compatible with each item of equipment In a normal position,
• Can read all placards and instrument markings,
• Eyes shielded from direct and reflected light,
• Variable intensity Cabin lighting for seatbelt,
• Oxygen normal and emergency exits,
• Independent portable light for each FCM

Question 21

Part 91 MOS 26.22 – Anti-collision lights include?

Answer 21

• 1 red beacon, or
• 2 white strobes, or
• A combination of these

Question 22

Part 91 MOS 26.23 – Landing lights, At least?

Answer 22

• 1 landing light

Question 23

Part 91 MOS 26.24 – Navigation lights Must be fitted when?

Answer 23

Operating by night.

Question 24

Speed Definitions,

• VMCA Minimum Control Speed, air (red radial) and includes what aircraft configurations?
• What is the basic definition of VMCA?

Answer 24

• critical engine inoperative
• live engine at take-off power
• landing gear retracted
• maximum of 5 degrees bank towards live engine
• propeller feathered (only for aircraft with automatic feathering devices)
• The minimum speed at which it is possible to maintain directional control of the aircraft with the critical engine inoperative.

Question 25

VMCG Minimum Control Speed, ground and includes what aircraft configurations?

Answer 25

- critical engine inoperative - live engine at take-off power The minimum speed, whilst on the ground, at which it is possible to maintain directional using only aerodynamic controls.

Question 26

- VSSE Single Engine Safety Speed? - VSSE is a manufacturer-stated speed intended to?

Answer 26

- The speed below which intentional simulated engine failures should not be conducted. - Provide a margin above VMCA.

Question 27

- VYSE Single Engine Best Rate of Climb Speed (blue radial) and includes what aircraft configuration? - What is the basic definition of VYSE?

Answer 27

- critical engine inoperative - live engine at take-off power - landing gear retracted - The speed at which the best rate of climb can be achieved with the critical engine inoperative.

Question 28

ERSA EMERG 1.5 – Communication Failure (JEPP EMERG – Emergency Procedures 3) In the event of communications failure, what must be maintained throughout all procedures?

Answer 28

- Maintain terrain clearance throughout all procedures.

Question 29

Communications Failure Indications by an Aircraft: In Flight? (i) during the hours of daylight? (ii) during the hours of darkness? (iii) If not equipped with a landing light? On the Ground? (i) during the hours of daylight: (ii) during the hours of darkness: (iii) If not equipped with a landing light?

Answer 29

(i)- by rocking the aircraft's wings; and Note: This signal should not be expected on the base and final legs of the approach. (ii) - by flashing on and off twice the aircraft's landing lights or, (iii)If not so equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation lights. (i) by waggling the aircraft's ailerons or rudder; (ii) by flashing on and off twice the aircraft's landing lights or, (iii) if not so equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation lights.

Question 30

Communications Failure, If VFR in Class G Airspace, what procedures should be followed? What is the SAR phone number?

Answer 30

a. Remain in VMC. b. Broadcast Intentions (prefix “TRANSMITTING BLIND"). c. Remain VFR in Class G airspace and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. d. Report arrival to ATS if on SARTIME or reporting schedules. - (SAR 1800 815 257).

Question 31

Communications Failure, If in Controlled/Restricted Airspace or IFR in any airspace?

Answer 31

a. Squawk 7600 b. Listen out on ATIS and/or voice modulated NAVAIDs. c. Transmit intentions and make normal position reports (assume transmitter is operating and prefix calls with "TRANSMITTING BLIND").

Question 32

Communications Failure, If in Controlled/Restricted Airspace or IFR in any airspace? if in VMC and are certain of maintaining VMC? What note: If proceeding to a Class D airspace?

Answer 32

a. Stay in VMC and land at the most suitable aerodrome. Note: Special procedures if proceeding to a Class D.

Question 33

Communications Failure, If in Controlled/Restricted Airspace or IFR in any airspace? If in IMC or are uncertain of maintaining VMC?

Answer 33

b. If no clearance limit received and acknowledged, proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged and climb to planned level. c. If a clearance limit involving an altitude or route restriction has been received and acknowledged: i. maintain last assigned level, or MSA if higher, for three minutes and/or ii. hold at nominated location for three minutes, then iii. proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged and climb to planned level. d. If receiving an ATS surveillance service: i. climb to MSA/LSALT, and, ii. if being vectored, maintain last assigned vector for two minutes, then iii. proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged. e. If holding: i. fly one more complete holding pattern, then ii. proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged.

Question 34

Communications Failure, If in Controlled/Restricted Airspace or IFR in any airspace? Destination Procedures: ?

Answer 34

a. Track to the destination in accordance with flight plan (amended by the latest ATC clearance acknowledged, if applicable). b. Commence descent in accordance with standard operating procedures or flight plan. c. Descend to the initial approach altitude for the most suitable approach aid in accordance with the published procedures. d. Carry out the approach to the prescribed minima.

Question 35

Communications Failure, If in Controlled/Restricted Airspace or IFR in any airspace? Actions at Minima?

Answer 35

a. If visual at the minima at an uncontrolled aerodrome, continue to land provided that a safe landing can be accomplished If visual at the minima at a controlled aerodrome continue to land provided that a clearance to land is received via a voice modulated NAVAID and/or light signal from the Tower. b. If not visual at the minima, depart for a suitable alternate aerodrome. c. If insufficient fuel is carried to divert to a suitable alternate, the pilot may hold or carry out additional approaches until visual. d. Certain Class D aerodromes have specific communications failure procedures which are shown at each aerodrome entry in the FAC section

Question 36

Take-off performance for aeroplanes CASR 91.795 – Take-off performance Part 91 MOS 24.02 – Take-off performance for aeroplanes Part 91 Plain English Guide – Take-off performance For small aeroplanes, the AFM take-off performance charts are normally unfactored and often do not contain performance information for the effects of runway slope, various surface conditions or wind effect. In some cases, they do not provide information on the effects of pressure and temperature variation. - It is your responsibility to be satisfied that the runway is long enough so you can take off safely (91.410). To account for various levels of pilot competency or aircraft degradation of performance due to age, it is recommended for aeroplanes with landing performance charts which are unfactored, that the following factors are applied to the landing distance required: - What are these factors for Aircraft <2000kg, aircraft >3500kg and aircraft between 2000kg & 3500kg?

Answer 36

(a) 1.15 for MTOW of 2,000 kg or less; (b) 1.25 for MTOW of 3,500 kg or greater; and (c) Between 2,000 kg and 3,500 kg, use linear interpolation

Question 37

Landing Distance Required CASR 91.800 – Landing performance Part 91 MOS 25.02 – Landing performance for aeroplanes Part 91 Plain English Guide – Landing performance For small aeroplanes, the AFM landing performances charts are normally unfactored and often do not contain performance information for the effects of runway slope, various surface conditions or wind effect. In some cases, they do not provide information on the effects of pressure and temperature variation. - It is your responsibility to be satisfied that the runway is long enough so you can land safely (91.410). To account for various levels of pilot competency or aircraft degradation of performance due to age, it is recommended for aeroplanes with landing performance charts which are unfactored, that the following factors are applied to the landing distance required: -What are these factors for Aircraft <2000kg, aircraft >4500kg and aircraft between 2000kg & 4500kg?

Answer 37

a) 1.15 for MTOW of 2,000 kg or less; b) 1.43 for MTOW of 4,500 kg or greater; c) Between 2,000 kg and 4,500 kg, use linear interpolation

Question 38

Visual Meteorological Conditions Part 91 MOS Section 2.07 Class G, Visibility = ? Clearance from clouds = ? When below 3000FT AMSL or 1000 AGL ?

Answer 38

- Visibility = 5000m or (above 10,000’ 8km) - Clearance from clouds = 1500m Horizontally & 1000’ Vertically. - When below 3000FT AMSL or 1000 AGL = can remain clear of cloud and in sight of ground or water if radio carried and used on appropriate frequency

Question 39

Visual Meteorological Conditions Part 91 MOS Section 2.07 Class E, Visibility = ? Clearance from clouds = ?

Answer 39

- Visibility = 5000m or (above 10,000’ 8km) - Clearance from clouds = 1500m Horizontally & 1000’ Vertically.

Question 40

Visual Meteorological Conditions Part 91 MOS Section 2.07 Class C, Visibility = ? Clearance from clouds = ?

Answer 40

- Visibility = 5000m or (above 10,000’ 8km) - Clearance from clouds = 1500m Horizontally & 1000’ Vertically.

Question 41

Visual Meteorological Conditions Part 91 MOS Section 2.07 Class D, Visibility = ? Clearance from clouds = ?

Answer 41

- Visibility = 5000M 600M - Clearance from clouds = 600m Horizontally, 1000’ above & 500’ below

Question 42

Transponder codes AIP ENR 1.6 Para 7.1.4 – Operation of SSR Transponders (Jepp ATC – ATS Surveillance Services and Procedures 7.1.4), Operation Code VFR in Class E or OCTA? IFR OCTA? IFR in Class E or civil flights in CTA?

Answer 42

- 1200 - 2000 - 3000

Question 43

VHF Theoretical Maximum Range To determine the theoretical maximum range of VHF transmissions, the following formula can be used: ?

Answer 43

d = 1.23 (√(Htx) + √(Hrx)) - Where: d = distance in NM - Htx = elevation in feet of transmitter - Hrx = height in feet above ground level of receiver

Question 44

Light Signals to Aircraft AIP ENR 1.5 Para 12 – Signals for the Control of Aerodrome Traffic (JEPP ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 4) Steady green, - In Flight? - On Airport?

Answer 44

- Authorised to land if pilot satisfied no collision risk exists - Authorised to take-off if pilot satisfied no collision risk exists

Question 45

Light Signals to Aircraft AIP ENR 1.5 Para 12 – Signals for the Control of Aerodrome Traffic (JEPP ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 4) Steady Red, - In Flight? - On Airport?

Answer 45

- Give way to other aircraft and continue circling. - Stop

Question 46

Light Signals to Aircraft AIP ENR 1.5 Para 12 – Signals for the Control of Aerodrome Traffic (JEPP ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 4) Green flashes! - In Flight? - On Airport?

Answer 46

- Return for landing. - Authorised to taxi if pilot satisfied no collision risk exists

Question 47

Light Signals to Aircraft AIP ENR 1.5 Para 12 – Signals for the Control of Aerodrome Traffic (JEPP ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 4) Red flashes! - In Flight? - On Airport?

Answer 47

- Airport unsafe – do not land - Taxi clear of landing area in use

Question 48

Light Signals to Aircraft AIP ENR 1.5 Para 12 – Signals for the Control of Aerodrome Traffic (JEPP ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 4) White flashes! - In Flight? - On Airport?

Answer 48

- No significance - Return to starting point on airport

Question 49

Light Signals to Aircraft AIP ENR 1.5 Para 12 – Signals for the Control of Aerodrome Traffic (JEPP ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 4) Acknowledgements by aircraft: In flight: 1. during the hours of daylight: ? 2. during the hours of darkness: ? Acknowledgement of aircraft On the ground: 1. during the hours of daylight: 2. during the hours of darkness:

Answer 49

Acknowledgements by aircraft: In flight: 1. by rocking the aircraft’s wings Note: this signal should not be expected on the base and final legs of the approach 2. by flashing on and off twice the aircraft’s landing lights or, if not so equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation lights Acknowledgement of aircraft On the ground: 1. by moving the aircraft’s ailerons or rudder 2. by flashing on and off twice the aircraft’s landing lights or, if not so equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation lights

Question 50

Phraseology Class G Airports AIP GEN 3.4 Para 6 – Phraseologies (Jepp ATC – Communications 7) - Taxi,

Answer 50

- Brisbane Centre - ABC - Cessna 310 - POB 2 (for IFR flights other than RPT) - IFR -Taxiing Roma - For Archerfield - RWY 18

Question 51

Phraseology Class G Airports AIP GEN 3.4 Para 6 – Phraseologies (Jepp ATC – Communications 7) Departure Report In ADS-B or SSR Coverage?

Answer 51

- Brisbane Centre - ABC - 3 miles east of Longreach - Passing 2000 - Climbing to 9000 - Estimating MOVBA at 25

Question 52

Phraseology Class G Airports AIP GEN 3.4 Para 6 – Phraseologies (Jepp ATC – Communications 7) Departure Report Outside ADS-B or SSR Coverage?

Answer 52

- Brisbane Centre - ABC - Departed Blackall 51 - Tracking [to intercept] 236 - Climbing to 10000 - Estimating EXXON at 21

Question 53

Phraseology Class G Airports AIP GEN 3.4 Para 6 – Phraseologies (Jepp ATC – Communications 7) Departure Report Where radio contact was unable to be established on the ground and a SARWATCH needs to begin?

Answer 53

- Brisbane Centre - ABC - Airborne Blackall 51 - Tracking [to intercept] 305 - Climbing to 10000 - Estimating Longreach at 26

Question 54

Phraseology Class G Airports AIP GEN 3.4 Para 6 – Phraseologies (Jepp ATC – Communications 7) Inbound If leaving CTA on descent?

Answer 54

- Brisbane Centre And all stations Longreach - ABC - Cessna 310 - 35 miles northwest of Moranbah - Leaving 10000 - Estimating the circuit 55 - Centre and all stations Longreach

Question 55

Phraseology Class G Airports AIP GEN 3.4 Para 6 – Phraseologies (Jepp ATC – Communications 7) Cancel SAR?

Answer 55

- Brisbane Centre - ABC - Landed Longreach - Cancel SARWATCH

Question 56

Class D Airports Airways Clearance Delivery Where a Delivery frequency is specified?

Answer 56

- Tamworth Delivery - ABC - To Wagga - Request clearance

Question 57

Phraseology! Class D Airports, Airways Clearance Delivery Where no Delivery frequency is specified?

Answer 57

- Mackay Ground - ABC - To Townsville - Request clearance

Question 58

Phraseology! Class D Airports, Taxi?

Answer 58

- Mackay Ground - ABC - POB 2 (for IFR flights other than RPT) - Information Alpha - IFR - Request taxi

Question 59

Phraseology! Class D Airports, Tower transfer, When close to, or at, the holding point and ready for departure?

Answer 59

- Mackay Tower - ABC - Ready

Question 60

Phraseology! Class D Airports, Departure Report?

Answer 60

- Rockhampton Tower - ABC - Tracking 166 from the VOR - Climbing to 7000

Question 61

Phraseology! Class D Airports, Departure Report When Departing via a SID?

Answer 61

- Rockhampton Tower - ABC - Tracking via the BUDGI 1 - Climbing to 7000

Question 62

Phraseology! Class D Airports, Inbound?

Answer 62

- Mackay Tower - ABC - Cessna 310 - Information Alpha - 25 miles on the 135 radial - Descending to 6000 - [Visual]

Question 63

Phraseology! Class C Airports, Airways Clearance Delivery Where a Delivery frequency is specified?

Answer 63

- Townsville Delivery - ABC - To Cairns - Request clearance

Question 64

Phraseology! Class C Airports, Airways Clearance Delivery Where no Delivery frequency is specified?

Answer 64

- Essendon Ground - ABC - To Albury - Request clearance

Question 65

Phraseology! Class C Airports, Taxi?

Answer 65

- Canberra Ground - ABC - POB 2 (for IFR flights other than RPT) - Information Alpha - IFR - Request taxi

Question 66

Phraseology! Class C Airports, Tower transfer When close to, or at, the holding point and ready for departure?

Answer 66

- Canberra Tower - ABC - Ready

Question 67

Phraseology! Class C Airports, Airborne Report Tracking via a SID where a heading has been assigned to you?

Answer 67

- Canberra Departures - ABC - Turning left 020 - Passing 3000 - Climbing to 9000

Question 68

Phraseology! Class C Airports, Airborne Report Tracking via a Procedural SID that does not require a heading to be assigned to you?

Answer 68

- Canberra Departures - ABC - Passing 3000 - Climbing to 9000

Question 69

Phraseology! Class C Airports, Airborne Report When instructed to maintain RWY heading?

Answer 69

- Canberra Departures - ABC - Maintaining runway heading - Passing 3000 - Climbing to 9000

Question 70

Phraseology! Class C Airports, Airborne Report When assigned heading approximates RWY bearing?

Answer 70

- Canberra Departures - ABC - Heading 120 - Passing 3000 - Climbing to 9000

Question 71

Phraseology! Class C Airports, First contact with Approach?

Answer 71

- Brisbane Approach - ABC - Cleared to 6000 - Information Echo - [Visual]

Question 72

Preflight Fuel Requirements CASR 91.455 Part 91 MOS 19.02, Final Reserve Fuel & Contingency Fuel, MTOW ≤ 5700 kg ?

Answer 72

- Day VFR 30 minutes - Night VFR 45 minutes - IFR 45 minutes - Contingency Fuel not required.

Question 73

Preflight Fuel Requirements CASR 91.455 Part 91 MOS 19.02, Final Reserve Fuel & Contingency Fuel, Turbojet or > 5700 kg turboprop IFR or VFR?

Answer 73

- 30 minutes - 5% Contingency Fuel,

Question 74

Preflight Fuel Requirements CASR 91.455 Part 91 MOS 19.02, Final Reserve Fuel & Contingency Fuel, Piston > 5700 kg IFR or VFR?

Answer 74

- 45 minutes - 5% Contingency Fuel,

Question 75

Alternate Requirements! Suitability of Alternates Part 91 MOS 8.07 – Destination Alternate Aerodromes – restrictions AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.7.1.2 – Alternate Aerodromes – General (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.1.2) When a flight is required to provide for an alternate aerodrome, any aerodrome may be so nominated for that flight provided: ?

Answer 75

a. it is suitable as a destination for that flight; and b. is not an aerodrome for which that flight would require to provide for an alternate aerodrome; and c. is not a helideck

Question 76

Alternate Requirements! Alternates Could Very Well Prove Life Savers Aids Part 91 MOS 8.05 – Destination Alternate Aerodromes – navigation AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.7.3 – Radio Navigation Aids (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.3) Part 91 aircraft: A destination alternate aerodrome must be planned for an IFR flight by night to a planned destination aerodrome that is: ?

Answer 76

a) not served by an instrument approach procedure; or b) is served by 1 or more instrument approach procedures, none of which the pilot is able to conduct.

Question 77

Alternate Requirements! AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.7.2.10 – Weather Conditions (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.3) For IFR flights, the alternate minima are as follows: ?

Answer 77

a. For aerodromes with an instrument approach procedure that the pilot is able to conduct, the alternate minima published on the chart (see ENR 1.5, Section 6). b. By day only – for aerodromes without an instrument approach procedure, or that has an instrument approach procedure but the pilot is unable to conduct that procedure, the alternate minima is the lowest safe altitude for the final route segment plus 500FT and a visibility of 8KM.

Question 78

Alternate Requirements AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.7.3.3 – Radio Navigation Aids (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.3) If aircraft navigation is to be conducted using a GNSS receiver certified only to (E)TSO C-129, navigation to a destination alternate aerodrome must be planned using a navigation system other than GNSS. Author’s Note: ?

Answer 78

(This also requires provision for a ground-based IAP if an approach in VMC is not possible). CASA have specifically clarified this with RPT operators to mean that if a TSO-C129 or 129a GNSS is being used, then an alternate must be planned for unless either the weather conditions described above are met or the alternate requirements can be met by the use of ADF or VOR.

Question 79

Alternate Requirements Night VFR aircraft must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome within one hour flight time of the destination unless: ?

Answer 79

a. the destination is served by a radio navigation aid (NDB/VOR) and the aircraft is fitted with the appropriate radio navigation system capable of using the aid, and the pilot is competent in using the aid, or b. the aircraft is fitted with an approved GNSS, as defined in the relevant MOS for the kind of operation being conducted), and the pilot is competent in using the GNSS.

Question 80

Alternate Requirements Clouds, Visibility and Wind Part 91 MOS 8.04 – Destination Alternate Aerodromes – weather AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.7.2 – Weather Conditions (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.2.1) Except when operating an aircraft under the VFR by day within 50NM of the point of departure, the pilot in command must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome when arrival at the destination will be during the currency of, or up to 30 minutes prior to the forecast commencement of, the following weather conditions: ?

Answer 80

- Cloud - more than SCT below the alternate minimum (see AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.7.2.10 and Para 10.7.2.11 (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.2.10 and 3.2.11)); or - Visibility - less than the alternate minimum; or - Visibility - greater than the alternate minimum, but the forecast is endorsed with at least a 30% percentage probability of fog, mist, dust or any other phenomenon restricting visibility below the alternate minimum; or - Wind - a crosswind or tailwind component more than the maximum for the aircraft. - Note: Wind gusts must be considered.

Question 81

Alternate Requirements Provided and PROB AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.7.1.3 – General (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.1.2) When an aerodrome forecast is not available, the pilot in command must? If a TAF has been endorsed with a probability of conditions being ?

Answer 81

- Make provision for a suitable alternate that has an available forecast. AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.7.2 – Weather Conditions (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.2.1 - Below the alternate minima, an alternate must be planned for.

Question 82

Alternate Requirements Lighting Part 91 MOS 8.06 – Destination Alternate Aerodromes – aerodrome lighting AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.8.1.1 – Suitability of Aerodromes (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 2.1) When aerodrome lighting is required and PAL is not being used, the pilot in command or operator must ensure that arrangements have been made for the lighting to be operating during the following periods: ?

Answer 82

a. departure: 10 minutes before departure to at least 30 minutes after takeoff; b. arrival: from at least 30 minutes before ETA to the time landing and taxiing has been completed. AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.7.4 – Runway Lighting (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.4)

Question 83

Alternate Requirements Lighting Part 91 MOS 8.06 – Destination Alternate Aerodromes – aerodrome lighting AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.8.1.1 – Suitability of Aerodromes (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 2.1) Portable Lighting When a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome where the runway lighting is portable, provision must be made for flight to an alternate aerodrome unless arrangements are made for a responsible person to be in attendance during the period specified in AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.8.1.1 (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 2.1), to ensure?

Answer 83

That the runway lights are available during that period.

Question 84

Alternate Requirements Lighting Part 91 MOS 8.06 – Destination Alternate Aerodromes – aerodrome lighting AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.8.1.1 – Suitability of Aerodromes (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 2.1) If No Standby Power Available When a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome with electric runway lighting, whether pilot activated or otherwise, but without standby power, provision must be made for flight to an alternate aerodrome unless?

Answer 84

Portable runway lights are available and arrangements have been made for a responsible person to be in attendance during the period specified in AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.8.1.1 (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 2.1), to display the portable lights in the event of a failure of the primary lighting. An alternate aerodrome nominated in accordance with the requirements in AIP ENR 1.1 paras 10.7.4.2 and 10.7.4.3 (Jepp ATC - Airports and Ground Aids 3.4.2 and 3.4.3) need not have standby power or standby portable runway lighting.

Question 85

Alternate Requirements Lighting, Part 91 MOS 8.06 – Destination Alternate Aerodromes – aerodrome lighting AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.8.1.1 – Suitability of Aerodromes (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 2.1) Pilot Activated Lighting When a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome with PAL and standby power, provision must be made for a flight to an alternate aerodrome equipped with runway lighting unless?

Answer 85

A responsible person is in attendance to manually switch on the aerodrome lighting. An alternate aerodrome nominated in accordance with the requirements in AIP ENR 1.1 paras 10.7.4.2 and 10.7.4.3 (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.4.2 and 3.4.3) need not have standby power or standby portable runway lighting.

Question 86

Alternate Requirements Lighting, Part 91 MOS 8.06 – Destination Alternate Aerodromes – aerodrome lighting AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.8.1.1 – Suitability of Aerodromes (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 2.1) Lighting Systems for Alternate Aerodrome An aerodrome served by PAL may be nominated as an alternate aerodrome. There is no requirement for a responsible person to be in attendance, but the aircraft must be equipped with: ?

Answer 86

a. dual VHF; or b. single VHF and HF and carries 30 minutes holding fuel to allow for the alerting of ground staff in the event of a failure of the aircraft’s VHF communication.

Question 87

Alternate Requirements Storms AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.7.2.1 – Weather Conditions (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.2.1) The pilot in command must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome when arrival at the destination will be during the currency of, or up to 30 minutes prior to the forecast commencement of, the following weather conditions: ? AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.7.2.5 – Weather Conditions (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.2.5) When thunderstorms or their associated severe turbulence or their probability is forecast at the destination, sufficient additional fuel must be carried to permit the aircraft to proceed to a suitable alternate or to hold for: ?

Answer 87

- A thunderstorm or associated severe turbulence, or a forecast of at least a 30% probability of such an event; a. 30 minutes when the forecast is endorsed INTER; or b. 60 minutes when the forecast is endorsed TEMPO.

Question 88

Special Alternate Weather Minima Part 91 MOS 8.08 – Alternate Minima – Australian aerodromes AIP ENR 1.5 Para 6.2 – Special Alternate Weather Minima (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 8.2) Special alternate weather minima are available for specified approaches at some airports for use by aircraft with dual ILS/VOR approach capability. Dual ILS/VOR approach capability must include:? Special alternate weather minima are identified on applicable instrument approach charts by a double asterisk adjacent to the ALTERNATE title and a note detailing the special minima. These special alternate minima will not be available (minima will revert to the standard alternate minima) during periods when: ?

Answer 88

a. duplicated LOC; and b. duplicated GP; and c. duplicated VOR; and d. either: (i) duplicated DME; or (ii) duplicated GNSS; or (iii) single DME and single GNSS. a. local METAR/SPECI or forecasting services are not available; or b. an airport control service is not provided

Question 89

Departure Altimeter Checks AIP ENR 1.7 Para 1.1 – Pre-flight Altimeter Check (Jepp ATC – General Flight Procedures 1.1) Whenever an accurate QNH is available and the aircraft is at a known elevation, pilots must conduct an accuracy check of the aircraft altimeter(s) at some point prior to take-off. Note: Where the first check indicates that an altimeter is unserviceable, the pilot is permitted?

Answer 89

To conduct a further check at another location on the same airfield; for example, the first on the tarmac and the second at the runway threshold (to determine altimeter serviceability).

Question 90

Departure AIP ENR 1.7 Para 1.2 – IFR Altimeters (Jepp ATC – General Flight Procedures 1.1.2) With an accurate QNH set, the altimeter(s) should read the nominated elevation to within? If an altimeter has an error in excess of ± 75FT, the altimeter must be considered? When two altimeters are required for the category of operation, one of the altimeters must read the nominated elevation to within 60 ft. When the remaining altimeter has an error between 60 ft and 75 ft, flight under the IFR to the first point of landing, where the accuracy of the altimeter can be re-checked? In the event that the altimeter shows an error in excess of 60 ft on the second check, the altimeter must be considered? An aircraft fitted with two altimeters but requiring only one for the category of operation may continue to operate under the IFR provided one altimeter reads the nominated elevation to within 60 ft. Should the remaining altimeter have an error in excess of 75 ft that altimeter must be placarded? When an aircraft is fitted with only one altimeter and that altimeter has an error between 60 ft and 75 ft, flight under the IFR to the first point of landing, where the accuracy of the altimeter can be re-checked? In the event that the altimeter shows an error in excess of 60 ft on the second check the altimeter is to be considered?

Answer 90

- 60FT. - unserviceable. - is approved. - unserviceable for flight under the IFR. - unserviceable and the maintenance release appropriately endorsed. - is approved. - unserviceable for flight under the IFR.

Question 91

Departure AIP ENR 1.7 Para 1.3 – VFR Altimeters (Jepp ATC – General Flight Procedures 1.1.3) With an accurate QNH set, a VFR altimeter(s) should read site elevation to within? If an aircraft fitted with two VFR altimeters continues to fly with one altimeter reading 100FT (110FT) or more in error, the faulty altimeter must be placarded?

Answer 91

- 100FT (110FT at test sites above 3,300FT) to be accepted as serviceable by the pilot. - unserviceable and the error noted in the maintenance release.

Question 92

Departure Altimeter tests, AIP ENR 1.7 Para 1.4 – Accurate QNH and Site Elevation (Jepp ATC – General Flight Procedures 1.1.4) A QNH can be considered accurate if it is provided by ATIS, Tower or an automatic remote-reporting aerodrome sensor. Area or forecast QNH must? Site elevation must be derived from?

Answer 92

- not be used for the test. - aerodrome survey data published by Airservices or supplied by the aerodrome owner.

Question 93

Take-off Minima Part 91 MOS Chapter 15.06 – Take-off minima for other aeroplanes The take-off minima in this section apply to a take-off that: ? The take-off minima are: ?

Answer 93

a) is not a low-visibility take-off; and b) is not conducted using a qualifying multi-engine aeroplane. a) a cloud ceiling of 300 ft; and b) visibility of 2 000 m

Question 94

Take-off Minima Part 91 MOS Chapter 15.03 – Take-off minima requirements, A pilot in command must not commence a take-off if, at the time of take-off: ?

Answer 94

a) the meteorological conditions are less than the take-off minima for the aircraft; or b) the meteorological conditions that would exist if it were necessary to return to land at the departure aerodrome because of engine failure, are not: (i) at or above the landing minima for any IAP that the pilot in command is able to conduct at the aerodrome; or (ii) such as to allow a visual approach for the return to land.

Question 95

Take-off Minima Part 91 MOS Chapter 15.05 The take-off minima in this section apply to a take-off that: a) is not a low-visibility take-off; and b) is conducted using a qualifying multi-engine aeroplane. The take-off minima are: ?

Answer 95

a) visibility of 800 m Author’s Note: This minima can be reduced to a visibility of 550M under certain conditions. Refer Part 91 MOS Chapter 15.05

Question 96

Take-off Minima Part 91 MOS Chapter 15.02 A qualifying multi-engine aeroplane means an IFR aeroplane that is: ?

Answer 96

a) either: ? (i) a multi-engine jet-powered aeroplane with an MTOW of more than 2 722 kg; or (ii) a multi-engine turboprop-powered aeroplane with an MTOW of more than 5 700 kg that is: a. operated by at least 2 pilots; or b. operated by 1 pilot and fitted with operative autofeather; and c. in the event of an engine failure — capable of maintaining terrain clearance until reaching the minimum height for IFR flight.

Question 97

En Route Local QNH, Area QNH and Transition Layers AIP ENR 1.7 Para 2 – Altimeter Setting Rules (Jepp ATC – General Flight Procedures 1.2) - For all operations at or below the Transition Altitude, the altimeter reference setting will be: ? a. b. - For all operation at or above the Transition Level, the altimeter reference must be?

Answer 97

a. the current Local QNH of a station along the route within 100NM of the aircraft; or b. the current Area QNH Forecast if the current Local QNH is not known. - 1013.2 hPa.

Question 98

En Route Local QNH, Area QNH and Transition Layers AIP ENR 1.7 Para 2 – Altimeter Setting Rules (Jepp ATC – General Flight Procedures 1.2) - The position to change between QNH and 1013.2 hPa shall always be: ? a. b.

Answer 98

a. on climb after passing 10,000 ft and prior to levelling off; b. or on descent prior to entering the Transition Layer.

Question 99

En Route Local QNH, Area QNH and Transition Layers AIP ENR 1.7 Para 2 – Altimeter Setting Rules (Jepp ATC – General Flight Procedures 1.2) - What is the transition altitude? - What is the requirement for altimeters setting in the flight levels? - Are you allowed to cruise in the transition layer? - When departing an Aerodrome what do you set on the altimeters? - what are the transition level requirements based on QNH requirements?

Answer 99

- 10,000 ft. - 1013.2 hPa - No. - Set local QNH if known or airfield elevation. - Transition level. FL130 ➡️ QNH < 963 hPA FL125 ➡️ QNH < 980 hPA, but ≥ 963 hPa FL120 ➡️ QNH < 997 hPA, but ≥ 980 hPa FL115 ➡️ QNH < 1013.2 hPA, but ≥ 997 hPa FL110 ➡️ QNH ≥ 1013.2 hPa

Question 100

Navigation Requirements Under the IFR AIP ENR 1.1 Para 4.1 – Flight Under the IFR (Jepp ATC – General Flight Procedures 5.1) - An aircraft operating under the IFR must be navigated by: ? - Author’s Note: Distance able to be flown = 6.66 x rated coverage Maximum time interval of 2 hours between fixes still applies Fix can be achieved before station passage with GNSS or co-located DME within rated coverage

Answer 100

a. an approved area navigation system that meets performance requirements of the intended airspace or route; or b. use of a radio navigation system or systems where, after making allowance for tracking errors of ± 9° from the last positive fix, the aircraft will come within the rated coverage of a radio aid which can be used as a fix. The maximum time interval between fixes must not exceed two hours; or c. visual reference to the ground or water by day, on route segments where suitable enroute radio navigation aids are not available, provided that weather conditions permit flight in VMC and the visual position fixing requirements of AIP ENR 1.1 Para 4.1.2.1.b (Jepp ATC – General Flight Procedures 5.2.1.b) are able to be met.

Question 101

Deviations in Controlled Airspace AIP ENR 1.1 Para 4.2.5 – Aircraft Deviations in Controlled Airspace - Advice to ATC (Jepp ATC – General Flight Procedures 5.6) The pilot must immediately notify ATC for any of the deviations described below: ?

Answer 101

- NDB is ± 5° - VOR is Half-scale deflection - RNP/RNAV is Outside the prescribed RNP/RNAV value - DME is ± 2 NM - VISUAL is 1 NM

Question 102

Holding, Sector Entries AIP ENR 1.5 Para 3.4 – Entry Into the Holding Pattern (Jepp TERMINAL – Holding Procedures Para 4) Sector 1 entry (Parallel Entry) procedure?

Answer 102

a) On reaching the holding fix, the aircraft is turned onto an outbound heading for the appropriate time (taken from over or abeam the holding fix whichever is later), or until the reaching the limiting DME distance if earlier; then b) the aircraft is turned onto the holding side to intercept the inbound track or to return to the fix; and then c) on the second arrival over the holding fix, the aircraft is turned to follow the holding pattern.

Question 103

Holding, Sector Entries AIP ENR 1.5 Para 3.4 – Entry Into the Holding Pattern (Jepp TERMINAL – Holding Procedures Para 4) Sector 2 entry (Offset or Teardrop Entry) procedure?

Answer 103

a) On reaching the holding fix, the aircraft is turned onto a heading to make good a track of 30 degrees from the reciprocal of the inbound track on the holding side; then b) flown outbound: 1. for the appropriate period of time from the holding fix, where timing is specified, up to a maximum of 1 minute and 30 seconds; or, if earlier 2. until the appropriate limiting DME distance is attained, where distance is specified; then c) the aircraft is turned in the direction of the holding pattern to intercept the inbound holding track; then d) on second arrival over the holding fix, the aircraft is turned to follow the holding pattern.

Question 104

Holding, Sector Entries AIP ENR 1.5 Para 3.4 – Entry Into the Holding Pattern (Jepp TERMINAL – Holding Procedures Para 4) Sector 3 entry (Direct Entry) procedure?

Answer 104

On reaching the holding fix, the aircraft is turned to follow the holding pattern. Outbound timing begins abeam the fix, or when the abeam position cannot be determined, from completion of the outbound turn.

Question 105

Holding, Sector Entries AIP ENR 1.5 Para 3.4 – Entry Into the Holding Pattern (Jepp TERMINAL – Holding Procedures Para 4) DME Arc Entry Having reached the fix, the aircraft must enter the holding pattern in accordance with either?

Answer 105

Sector 1 or Sector 3 entry procedure.

Question 106

Holding Limitations AIP ENR 1.5 Para 3.3 – Limitations (Jepp TERMINAL – Holding Procedures 3) (a) Speed. IAS must not exceed? - Up to and inc. FL140? - ABV FL140? - Above FL200? (b) Outbound timing begins? (c) Time/Distance outbound. The outbound leg must be no longer than: ? (d) Turns. All turns in nil wind should be at a bank angle of? (e) Wind allowance. Allowance should be made in heading and in timing to compensate for the effects of wind to ensure the inbound track is regained before? (f) Exiting. For ATC traffic management, jet aircraft in CTA must leave an en route holding pattern at 250KT IAS, unless?

Answer 106

(a) - 230 KIAS (170 KIAS Cat A & B aircraft.) - 240 KIAS - 265 KIAS (b) Abeam the fix of on attaining the outbound heading, whichever comes later. (c) (1) up to and inc. FL140 – 1 minute or the time or distance limit specified on the chart; (2) above FL140 – 1.5 minutes or the time or the distance limit specified on the chart. (d) 25° or rate one, whichever requires the lesser bank. (e) passing the holding fix inbound. (f) otherwise published or advised by ATC. Pilots may request a variation to this requirement.

Question 107

Approaches Types of Instrument Approaches Part 61 Manual of Standards Volume 2, Schedule 2, Section 5, Operational Rating and Endorsement Standards Instrument Approach 2D, What navigation systems and procedures are or can be used?

Answer 107

Instrument Approach 2D - NDB VOR DME or GNSS Arrival Procedure, - RNP APCH LNAV and - RNP APCH LP [prev. RNAV (GNSS)] LLZ

Question 108

Approaches Types of Instrument Approaches Part 61 Manual of Standards Volume 2, Schedule 2, Section 5, Operational Rating and Endorsement Standards Instrument Approach 3D, What navigation systems and procedures are or can be used?

Answer 108

Instrument Approach 3D, - ILS - MLS - GLS - RNP-LNAV/VNAV (Baro) - RNP-LPV

Question 109

Approaches Types of Instrument Approaches Part 61 Manual of Standards Volume 2, Schedule 2, Section 5, Operational Rating and Endorsement Standards. Azimuth guidance operations, What navigation systems and procedures are or can be used?

Answer 109

Azimuth guidance operations - NDB - DME or GNSS Arrival Procedure (using an ADF)

Question 110

Approaches Types of Instrument Approaches Part 61 Manual of Standards Volume 2, Schedule 2, Section 5, Operational Rating and Endorsement Standards. Course deviation indicator operations, What navigation systems and procedures are or can be used?

Answer 110

Course deviation indicator operations - ILS - LLZ - RNP APCH LNAV and RNP APCH LP [prev. RNAV (GNSS)] - RNP-LNAV/VNAV (Baro) - RNP-LPV - VOR - DME/GNSS Arrival Procedure (using a CDI)

Question 111

Setting QNH Before IAF Part 91 Manual of Standards 14.03 AIP ENR 1.5 Para 5.3 – QNH Sources (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 7.3) Prior to passing the IAF, pilots are required to set either: ? Where Airservices Australia instrument approach charts are identified by a shaded background to either the minima titles for IAL charts or the published minima for DME or GNSS Arrival Procedures, landing, circling and alternate minima have been calculated assuming the use of Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) QNH. These minima may be reduced by 100FT whenever an actual aerodrome QNH is set. Jeppesen instrument approach charts have minima for both actual aerodrome QNH and forecast aerodrome QNH. Approved sources of actual QNH are ATC and ATIS except when the aerodrome forecast QNH is provided, AWIS and Bureau of Meteorology accredited meteorological observers. An actual aerodrome QNH obtained from an approved source is valid for a period of 15 minutes from the time of receipt. Note: METAR QNH does not meet this requirement. When the actual aerodrome QNH is not available, ATC will report the Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) QNH on the ATIS. The ATIS will include information in the format “ACTUAL QNH NOT AVAILABLE, AERODROME FORECAST QNH...” Note: Forecast QNH reported by ATC or on the ATIS is not an approved source of actual QNH. Where the forecast area QNH is used, the minima used must be increased by 50FT.

Answer 111

(a) the actual aerodrome QNH from an approved source, or (b) the Forecast Aerodrome (TAF) QNH, or (c) the forecast area QNH

Question 112

Setting QNH Before IAF Part 91 Manual of Standards 14.03 AIP ENR 1.5 Para 5.3 – QNH Sources (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 7.3) Where Airservices Australia instrument approach charts are identified by a shaded background to either the minima titles for IAL charts or the published minima for DME or GNSS Arrival Procedures, landing, circling and alternate minima have been calculated assuming the use of Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) QNH. These minima may be reduced by? Jeppesen instrument approach charts have minima for both?

Answer 112

- 100FT whenever an actual aerodrome QNH is set. - actual aerodrome QNH and forecast aerodrome QNH.

Question 113

Setting QNH Before IAF Part 91 Manual of Standards 14.03 AIP ENR 1.5 Para 5.3 – QNH Sources (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 7.3) Approved sources of actual QNH are? _________________,except when the aerodrome forecast QNH is provided, AWIS and Bureau of Meteorology accredited meteorological observers. An actual aerodrome QNH obtained from an approved source is valid for a period of?__________________. Note: METAR QNH?_________________. When the actual aerodrome QNH is not available, ATC will report the Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) QNH on the ATIS. The ATIS will include information in the format “ACTUAL QNH NOT AVAILABLE, AERODROME FORECAST QNH...” Note: Forecast QNH reported by ATC or on the ATIS is?_______________. Where the forecast area QNH is used, the minima used must be increased by?

Answer 113

-ATC and ATIS - 15 minutes from the time of receipt. - does not meet this requirement. - not an approved source of actual QNH. - 50FT.

Question 114

Aerodrome Operating Minima AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.18 – Aerodrome Operating Minima (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 2.6) - Landing minima are published on Australian approach charts as? ________________. - Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height is?_________________. - Landing minima are the basis for determining AOM. Operators must establish AOM for each aerodrome to be used for operations. After consideration of the factors listed below, operators may determine that their AOM should be higher than the published landing minima: ?

Answer 114

- MDA/H or DA/H. - not published. - a) The type, performance and handling characteristics of the aeroplane. b) The composition, experience and competence of the flight crew. c) The means used to determine and report meteorological conditions. Author’s Note: the prescriptive 50 feet PEC addition no longer appears in the AIP.

Question 115

Approach Ban for IFR Flights CASR 91.310 Part 91 MOS 16 – Approach ban for IFR flights - Author’s note: this rule was introduced to ensure that aircraft utilising low-visibility operations were able to make approaches in a timely manner and not be held up by other aircraft who were unlikely to successfully land from an instrument approach when the meteorological conditions are below the minima. For an aircraft conducting an IAP at an aerodrome: • that has an air traffic control service in operation; and • for which RVR reports are available for IAPs to the relevant runway PIC must?

Answer 115

- Not descend below 1,000 feet AAL where the TDZ RVR (for other than low-visibility operations) or - controlling zone RVR (for low-visibility operations) is reported by ATC as continually less than the landing minima for the IAP Despite the above, the PIC may continue the IAP if already below 1,000 feet AAL when this information is received.

Question 116

Flying Below Lowest Safe Altitude CASR 91.305 – Minimum heights – IFR flights AIP GEN 3.3 Para 4 – Calculation of Lowest Safe Altitude (Jepp ATC – Climb and Cruise 3.6.4) “T V I V C” An aircraft must not be flown under the IFR, lower than the published lowest safe altitude or the lowest safe altitude calculated in accordance with this section, unless permitted by CASR?

Answer 116

“T V I V C” - Take-off or landing - Visual approach or departure - Instrument approach or departure - ATC clearance - VMC by day - 91.265, 91.267 and 91.305 or another civil aviation legislation provision.

Question 117

Descent Below the Straight-in MDA or DA AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.7.2 – Descent Below the Straight-in MDA (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.17.2) “VMC” what ist this mnemonic? Author’s note: VMC in the above mnemonic device does not mean visual meteorological conditions.

Answer 117

- Visual reference can be maintained - Minima requirements adhered to - Continuously in a position where a landing can be made with normal rates of descent and manoeuvres

Question 118

Descent Below the Straight-in MDA or DA AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.7.2 – Descent Below the Straight-in MDA (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.17.2) Descent below the straight-in MDA or continuation of the approach below the DA during APVs, may only occur when: ?

Answer 118

• visual reference can be maintained; • all elements of the meteorological minima are equal to or greater than those published for the aircraft performance category (see AIP ENR 1.5 Para 5.1.1 (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 7.1.1)); and • the aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal flight manoeuvres that will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing.

Question 119

Circling Approaches and Visual Circling AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.6.6 – Circling Approaches and Visual Circling (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.16.6) “VMC, Day Obstacle, Night MDA” Author’s note: VMC in the above mnemonic device does not mean visual meteorological conditions.

Answer 119

- Visibility along flight not less than specified for circling - Maintain visual contact with landing environment - Inside circling area - By day not below obstacle clearance - By night not below MDA until downwind, base or final

Question 120

Circling Approaches and Visual Circling AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.6.6 – Circling Approaches and Visual Circling (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.16.6) During visual circling, descent below the circling MDA may only occur when the pilot: ?

Answer 120

a) Maintains the aircraft within the circling area; and b) Maintains a visibility, along the intended flight path, not less than the minimum specified on the chart for the procedure; and c) Maintains visual contact with the landing runway environment (i.e., the runway threshold or approach lighting or other markings identifiable with the runway); and either • By day: While complying with a), b) and c), maintains visual contact with obstacles along the intended flight path and an obstacle clearance not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway; or • By day and night: While from a position within the circling area on the downwind, base or final leg, complete a continuous descent from MDA to the threshold using rates of descent and manoeuvres normal to the aircraft type.

Question 121

Circling Approaches and Visual Circling AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.6.6 – Circling Approaches and Visual Circling (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.16.6) Note 1: The concept is as follows:

Answer 121

1) The pilot maintains visual contact with the landing runway while the aircraft is circled at MDA to a position within the traffic pattern that intercepts a normal downwind, base or final approach. If the MDA is above the downwind height, the pilot maintains MDA and downwind spacing until he/she reaches a position from which descent at normal approach rates to join base can be made (see Figure 1). 2) When daylight exists and obstacles can be seen, the pilot has the option of descending from MDA from any position within the circling area while maintaining an obstacle clearance not less than that required for the aircraft performance category. 3) Once the pilot initiates descent below circling MDA, the obstacle protection offered by visual circling at the MDA ends and he/she is responsible for ensuring the required clearance from obstacles is maintained visually.

Question 122

Circling Approaches and Visual Circling AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.6.6 – Circling Approaches and Visual Circling (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.16.6) Note 2: The pilot should maintain the maximum practical obstacle clearance. Author’s Note: altogether, circling approaches should be avoided when safer alternatives exist (such as runway-aligned approaches). Furthermore, descent to minimum obstacle clearance during visual circling should be avoided wherever possible. AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.6.2 – Restrictions on Visual Circling (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.16.2)

Answer 122

- Visual circling is prohibited in ‘no circling’ sectors by day in less than VMC and at night. After initial visual contact, the basic assumption is that the runway environment (i.e. the runway threshold or approach lighting aids or other markings identifiable with the runway) will be kept in sight while at the MDA for circling (Reference: ICAO Doc 8168 [Jepp ATC 200 series]). The visual circling procedure conducted at or above the circling MDA will provide protection from obstacles within the circling area (see Note 1 (3) and Note 3). The information provided by spot heights on IAL charts must be treated with caution. Spot heights on IAL charts do not necessarily indicate the highest terrain, or all obstacles in the circling area. In addition, the charts may not cover all of the circling area. Before commencing an instrument approach, pilots should familiarise themselves with the location and altitude of obstacles in the circling area by studying an appropriate topographic map.

Question 123

Circling Areas AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.6.6 – Circling Approaches and Visual Circling (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.16.6) Aircraft category A

Answer 123

- Circling area 1.68(NM) - Obstacle clearance 300 (ft)

Question 124

Circling Areas AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.6.6 – Circling Approaches and Visual Circling (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.16.6) Aircraft category B

Answer 124

- Circling area 2.66 (NM) - Obstacle clearance 300 (ft)

Question 125

Circling Areas AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.6.6 – Circling Approaches and Visual Circling (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.16.6) Aircraft category C

Answer 125

- Circling area 4.2 (NM) - Obstacle clearance 400 (ft)

Question 126

Circling Areas AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.6.6 – Circling Approaches and Visual Circling (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.16.6) Aircraft category D

Answer 126

- Circling area 5.28 (NM) - Obstacle clearance 400 (ft)

Question 127

Circling Areas AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.6.6 – Circling Approaches and Visual Circling (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.16.6) Aircraft category E

Answer 127

- Circling area 6.94 (NM) - Obstacle clearance 500 (ft)

Question 128

Approach Speeds AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.15 – Handling Speeds (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures Para 2.3) ACFT CAT A

Answer 128

- VAT = < 91 - Initial and intermediate approach speeds = 90 – 150 (110*) * Max speed for reversal procedures - Final approach speeds = 70 – 100 - Max speeds for circling = 100 - Max speeds for missed approach = 110

Question 129

Approach Speeds AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.15 – Handling Speeds (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures Para 2.3) ACFT CAT B

Answer 129

- VAT = 91 – 120 - Initial and intermediate approach speeds = 120 – 180 (140*) * Max speed for reversal procedures - Final approach speeds = 85 – 130 - Max speeds for circling = 135 - Max speeds for missed approach = 150

Question 130

Approach Speeds AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.15 – Handling Speeds (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures Para 2.3) ACFT CAT C

Answer 130

- VAT = 121 - 140 - Initial and intermediate approach speeds = 160 - 240 - Final approach speeds = 115 – 160 - Max speeds for circling = 180 - Max speeds for missed approach = 240

Question 131

Instrument Approach Tolerances – Flight Tests Part 61 Manual of Standards Volume 4, Schedule 8, Section 1, Table 5 – Instrument Approach Tolerances 2D approach Lateral Path Tracking

Answer 131

± 5° of nominated track using Azimuth guidance ± 1/2 scale deflection of nominated track using lateral course deviation indicator guidance With the RNP value specified for the published minimum altitude ± 2 (NM) of a DME or GNSS arc.

Question 132

Instrument Approach Tolerances – Flight Tests Part 61 Manual of Standards Volume 4, Schedule 8, Section 1, Table 5 – Instrument Approach Tolerances 3D approach Lateral Path Tracking

Answer 132

± 5° of nominated track using Azimuth guidance ± 1/2 scale deflection of nominated track using lateral course deviation indicator guidance With the RNP value specified for the published minimum altitude ± 2 (NM) of a DME or GNSS arc.

Question 133

Instrument Approach Tolerances – Flight Tests Part 61 Manual of Standards Volume 4, Schedule 8, Section 1, Table 5 – Instrument Approach Tolerances 3D approach Vertical Path

Answer 133

- ± 1/2 scale deflection or +/_75 ft for RNP BARO VNAV Procedure - For RNP LPV transient’s associated with aircraft configuration changes above +1/2 scale are acceptable - Transients associated with aircraft configuration changes above +75 ft are acceptable.

Question 134

Instrument Approach Tolerances – Flight Tests Part 61 Manual of Standards Volume 4, Schedule 8, Section 1, Table 5 – Instrument Approach Tolerances Minimum Altitude

Answer 134

+100 ft, -0 ft at published minima descent altitude, missed approach initiated not below decisions altitude.

Question 135

Instrument Approach Tolerances – ILS AIP ENR 1.5 Para 7.3 – Altimeter Checks and Flight Tolerances (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures Para 2.7.3.1) The final approach segment contains a fix at which the glide path/altimeter relationship should be verified. If the check indicates an unexplained discrepancy, the ILS/GLS approach should be discontinued. Pilots must conform to the following flight tolerances: ?

Answer 135

a. To ensure obstacle clearance, both LOC/GLS final approach course and glideslope should be maintained within half scale deflection (or equivalent on expanded scale). b. If, at any time during the approach after the FAP, the LOC/GLS final approach course or glideslope indicates full scale deflection a missed approach should be commenced.

Question 136

DME or GNSS Arrivals - General AIP ENR 1.5 Para 11 – DME or GNSS Arrival Procedures (Jepp TERMINAL – DME/GNSS Arrival Procedures) The DME or GNSS Arrival Procedure is an instrument approach procedure that provides descent guidance along a specified track or sector, to the visual circling area of an aerodrome. Azimuth guidance is required from the specified radio navigation aid. The requirements of subsections 1.6, 1.9 and 1.13 apply. - What are the requirements to start the descent? - If manoeuvring within a sector is required, the pilot must ensure? - Manoeuvring within a sector after passing the final approach fix is?

Answer 136

- Descent is not permitted until the aircraft is established within the appropriate sector or on the specified inbound track. - That the aircraft is contained within the sector, at or above the appropriate segment minimum safe altitude. - Prohibited.

Question 137

DME or GNSS Arrivals – Operations in Controlled Airspace AIP ENR 1.5 Para 11 – DME or GNSS Arrival Procedures (Jepp TERMINAL – DME/GNSS Arrival Procedures) The clearance “CLEARED DME (or GNSS) ARRIVAL” constitutes a clearance for final approach and authorises an aircraft to descend to the minimum altitude specified in the appropriate DME or GNSS Arrival procedure. - ATC is?

Answer 137

- Not permitted to impose any altitude restriction on such a clearance.

Question 138

DME or GNSS Arrivals – Operations in Controlled Airspace AIP ENR 1.5 Para 11 – DME or GNSS Arrival Procedures (Jepp TERMINAL – DME/GNSS Arrival Procedures) When cleared for a DME or GNSS Arrival in controlled airspace an aircraft must not orbit, enter a holding pattern, or use holding pattern entry procedures. - ATC will?

Answer 138

- Not issue a clearance for a DME or GNSS arrival that involves the use of a holding pattern entry procedure.

Question 139

DME or GNSS Arrivals – Operations in Controlled Airspace AIP ENR 1.5 Para 11 – DME or GNSS Arrival Procedures (Jepp TERMINAL – DME/GNSS Arrival Procedures) - When ATC cannot issue a clearance for an unrestricted DME or GNSS arrival, the phrase? - Such an instruction authorises descent in accordance with?

Answer 139

- “DESCEND TO (level) NOT BELOW DME (or GNSS) STEPS” may be used. - The DME or GNSS steps only to the specified altitude.

Question 140

DME or GNSS Arrivals – Operations in Controlled Airspace AIP ENR 1.5 Para 11 – DME or GNSS Arrival Procedures (Jepp TERMINAL – DME/GNSS Arrival Procedures) - ATC may clear an aircraft to intercept the final approach segment of another instrument approach procedure. When clearing an aircraft for such a procedure, ATC will use the phrase? - and will?

Answer 140

- “DESCEND TO (level) NOT BELOW DME (or GNSS) STEPS” - Issue further instructions prior to the aircraft’s reaching the cleared level.

Question 141

DME or GNSS Arrivals – Operations in Controlled Airspace AIP ENR 1.5 Para 11 – DME or GNSS Arrival Procedures (Jepp TERMINAL – DME/GNSS Arrival Procedures) Nothing in these procedures absolves the pilot in command from their responsibilities to maintain the aircraft on the authorised track or within the defined sector. - Note 1: Where the track being flown is not aligned with the landing runway, a clearance for a DME or GNSS Arrival includes? - Note 2: Where possible, DME and GNSS arrival procedures are designed to contain the aircraft within controlled airspace and provide ___________ separation from the CTA lower limit. However, there are locations where the procedure commences in Class G airspace, or which can take aircraft into Class G airspace on descent. Pilots should?

Answer 141

- A clearance to manoeuvre within the circling area to position the aircraft on final for landing. - 500FT - Check procedures to ensure that aircraft are contained in CTA where required.

Question 142

Visual Approaches – rules related to ATC AIP ENR 1.1 Para 2.11.3.1 – ATC Authorisation (Jepp ATC – Departure, Approach and Landing Procedures 1.9.3.1) Visual Approaches – issued by ATC Day May be issued when...

Answer 142

- Within 30NM - Continuous visual reference to ground or water - VIS 5000M

Question 143

Visual Approaches – rules related to ATC AIP ENR 1.1 Para 2.11.3.1 – ATC Authorisation (Jepp ATC – Departure, Approach and Landing Procedures 1.9.3.1) Visual Approaches – issued by ATC Night May be issued when...

Answer 143

- Within 30NM - Continuous visual reference to ground or water - VIS 5000M - If being vectored, assigned MVA and given heading or tracking instructions to intercept final or to position within circling area

Question 144

Visual Approach Requirements for IFR Flights AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.14 – Visual Approach Requirements for IFR Flights (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.19) - Visual Approaches – by pilot Day - Pilot need not commence or may discontinue IAP when... - Maintain at an altitude not less than? - Maintain track/heading on the route authorised until?

Answer 144

- Within 30NM - Clear of cloud In sight of ground or water - VIS 5000M or AD in sight - If in CTA – 500FT above the lower limit of the CTA unless clearance received to depart and re-enter CTA - CASR 91.265 or 91.267 - Within 5NM

Question 145

Visual Approach Requirements for IFR Flights AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.14 – Visual Approach Requirements for IFR Flights (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.19) - Visual Approaches – by pilot Night - Pilot need not commence or may discontinue IAP when... - Maintain at an altitude not less than? - Maintain track/heading on the route authorised until? - Until

Answer 145

- Within 30NM - Clear of cloud In sight of ground or water - VIS 5000M - If in CTA – 500FT above the lower limit of the CTA unless clearance received to depart and re-enter CTA - LSALT/MSA, DGA step, or last assigned altitude if being vectored - Within the circling area; or - Within 3NM and AD in sight if no IAP or not authorised to use IAP or if VFR - 5NM on PAPI; or - 7NM on PAPI (ILS RWY); or - 10NM on glideslope; or - 14NM YSSY runways 16L and 34L established not below GS and less than full scale azimuth deflection