Open

Question 1

1. Do not allow conditioned air duct temperature to decrease below _____ as turbine howl caused by ice formation on blade tips and water separator icing may occur.
   A. 0 degrees F
   B. 5 degrees C
   C. 5 degrees F
   D. 0 degrees C
   OPEN Question # 547 EPS-1.1 5.5.5 Page 5-6

Answer 1

X B. 5 degrees C

Question 2

2. During Preflight, the _____ is responsible for ensuring the HF-1 and HF-2 dog leg antennas are attached to the aircraft and that the slip mark
   is properly aligned.
   A. EWAC
   B. FE
   C. MTS OPERATOR
   D. NAV/COMM
   OPEN Question # 383 EPS-1.1 16.23.5.3 Page 16-18

Answer 2

X D. NAV/COMM

Question 3

3. Which scale charts are required when operating within 30 NM of any land mass?
   A. 1:500,000 (TPC)
   B. 1:2,000,000 (JNC)
   C. 1:1,000,000 (ONC)
   D. A OR C
   OPEN Question # 449 EPS-1.1 16.23.5.1 Page 16-17

Answer 3

X D. A OR C

Question 4

4. While in the en route portion of flight, a DR is required _____ .
   A. For every turn more than 30 degrees
   B. For every turn more than 20 degrees
   C. Every hour
   D. Every 45 minutes
   OPEN Question # 452 EPS-1.1 16.23.5.6 Page 16-20

Answer 4

X A. For every turn more than 30 degrees

Question 5

5. At which point on the air multiplier sight gauge indicates additional oil is needed?
   A. Anything below 3/4.
   B. Anything at or below 1/2.
   C. Anything at or below 7/8.
   D. Anything at or below 1/4.
   OPEN Question # 93 EPS-1.1 5.5.2.1 Page 5-3

Answer 5

X B. Anything at or below 1/2.

Question 6

6. When using the AN/APX-76A IFF, the challenged transponder responds on a frequency of _____ .
   A. 1090 MHz
   B. 1134 MHz
   C. 1030 MHz
   D. 271.0 MHz
   OPEN Question # 382 EPS-1.1 11.21 Page 11-63

Answer 6

X A. 1090 MHz

Question 7

7. Damage to the HF receiver-transmitter may occur if the transmitter is continuously keyed for a period in excess of __ minutes.
   If a continuous transmission for __ minutes is made, the transmitter must be allowed to cool for __ minutes prior to making
   subsequent transmissions.

OPEN Question # 128 EPS-1.1 9.5.2.6/9.5.4 Page 9-15/16

Answer 7

X A. ____________________ 5
X B. ____________________ 5
X C. ____________________ 5

Question 8

8. Both HF sets must be on in order to prevent damage while transmitting. If both sets are operated simultaneously in the same
   mode, select tuning frequencies at least ___ kHz apart to prevent damage to equipment.

OPEN Question # 209 EPS-1.1 9.5.2.6 Page 9-15

Answer 8

X A. ____________________ 20

Question 9

9. What is the minimum warm-up time that should be allowed prior to transmitting on the AN/ARC-94 HF Radio?

OPEN Question # 210 EPS-1.1 9.5.3.1 Page 9-16

Answer 9

X A. ____________________ 15 minutes

Question 10

10. The HF-1 antenna has an anti-resonant range from approximately _____ .
    A. 2 to 29.999 MHz
    B. 26.4 to 27.1 MHz
    C. 20 kHz to 25 kHz
    D. 29 to 30 MHz
    OPEN Question # 380 EPS-1.1 9.5.2.6 Page 9-15

Answer 10

X D. 29 to 30 MHz

Question 11

11. To reduce the possibility of explosion, ground transmit of operation of the ARC-243 (V) HF radio, including BIT, is prohibited unless the aircraft is ___ feet or more from aviation fuel storage areas, aircraft with open fuel lines/systems, and/or refueling of aircraft(s).
    A. 100 feet
    B. 200 yards
    C. 100 yards
    D. 200 feet
    OPEN Question # 590 EPS-1.1 9.6.4 Page 9-26

Answer 11

X D. 200 feet

Question 12

12. What is the required warm-up time for the ARC-243 (V) HF radio?
    A. 3 minutes
    B. 2 minutes
    C. 15 minutes
    D. 5 minutes
    OPEN Question # 591 EPS-1.1 9.6.4 Page 9-26

Answer 12

X D. 5 minutes

Question 13

13. SELCAL is assigned by BuNo number and can be changed at the EWMC’s discretion for OPSEC.
    A. True
    B. False
    OPEN Question # 592 EPS-1.1 9.6.4 Page 9-26

Answer 13

X B. False

Question 14

14. Attitude reference is normally selected when navigation capability is lost. Once ATT REF is deselected, NAV mode
    A. can not be used again on that flight.
    B. can only be used after completing a new ground alignment.
    C. can only be used after completing a new ground or in-flight alignment.
    D. can be used by switching the mode selector unit from ATT REF directly back to NAV.
    OPEN Question # 274 EPS-1.1 FIG 10-1 Page 10-2

Answer 14

X C. can only be used after completing a new ground or in-flight alignment.

Question 15

15. A rapid alignment can be accomplished on the ground resulting in alignment completion in approximately 30 seconds. However,
    for a rapid alignment to function, a normal alignment must have been accomplished prior to STS 02 and not accepted.
    A. True
    B. False
    OPEN Question # 275 EPS-1.1 10.1.4.2.2 Page 10-11

Answer 15

X A. True

Question 16

16. In the event primary 115 VAC power is momentarily interrupted or lost to the AN/ASN-179, the INU will ____ .
    A. be powered by 2 AN/WHL-1
    B. shutdown
    C. be powered by the Flight Essential DC bus
    D. be powered by a backup battery unit
    OPEN Question # 391 EPS-1.1 10.1.2.4 Page 10-6

Answer 16

X C. be powered by the Flight Essential DC bus

Question 17

17. On the AN/ASN-179 INU, malfunction code 3-22 indicates _____ .
    A. Excessive X/Y estimated gyro bias
    B. Grey Code failure
    C. Present position not entered
    D. MHRS not valid
    OPEN Question # 392 EPS-1.1 FIG 10-7 Page 10-14

Answer 17

X C. Present position not entered

Question 18

18. According to NATOPS, if the angle to a satellite is at 45 degrees elevation, the _____ of the SATCOM batwing antenna provides coverage. For a satellite at 85 degrees, the _____ antenna provides coverage..
    A. low angle monopole; low angle monopole
    B. low angle monopole; crossed dipole
    C. crossed dipole; low angle monopole
    D. crossed dipole; crossed dipole

OPEN Question # 403 EPS-1.1 12.3.1.1 Page 12-6

Answer 18

X D. crossed dipole; crossed dipole

Question 19

19. When preflighting the APU, what is the minimum amount of fuel required in fuel tank number 2 and 3 to provide adequate
    hydraulic oil cooling for the hydraulic pumps?
    A. 1000 gal, 1000 gal; for a total of 2000 gal.
    B. 1000 lbs, 1000 lbs; for a total of 2000 lbs.
    C. 500 gal, 500 gal; for a total of 1000 gal.
    D. 500 lbs, 500 lbs; for a total of 1000 lbs.
    OPEN Question # 113 EPS-1.1 5.5.2 Page 5-2

Answer 19

X B. 1000 lbs, 1000 lbs; for a total of 2000 lbs.

Question 20

20. Complete the following statements. When operating APU ground air in a high humidity environment for _____ minutes or longer,
    dehumidification shall be performed. Set temperature controllers to _____ position, then slowly increase to _____ position.
    Operate the ground air-conditioning system for a minimum of _____ minutes to stabilize the cabin and flight station.

OPEN Question # 114 EPS-1.1 5.5.6 Page 5-7

Answer 20

X A. ____________________ 30
X B. ____________________ AUTO 2-DOT
X C. ____________________ 3-DOT
X D. ____________________ 15

Question 21

21. When pre-flighting the APU, the refrigeration turbine oil level gauges should be at least _____ full.
    A. 1/4
    B. 1/2
    C. 3/4
    D. 13/16
    OPEN Question # 378 EPS-1.1 5.5.2.1 Page 5-3

Answer 21

X C. 3/4

Question 22

22. Before starting the APU, which of the following are to be removed?
    A. Engine plug covers, cabin exhaust fan outflow duct plug, TAS and pitot covers
    B. Cabin exhaust fan outflow duct plug, AOA, TAS and pitot probe covers
    C. Engine oil cooler plugs, static plugs
    D. Hydraulic Service Center plug, TACAN, pitot and AOA probe covers
    OPEN Question # 478 EPS-1.1 5.5.2.1 Page 5-3

Answer 22

X B. Cabin exhaust fan outflow duct plug, AOA, TAS and pitot probe covers

Question 23

23. During the APU preflight, check that the intake and exhaust door areas and air multiplier duct is clear of obstructions, FOD and
    _____ .
    A. Fluid leaks
    B. Evidence of pilferage
    C. Proper alignment of actuators
    D. Prop wash
    OPEN Question # 479 EPS-1.1 5.5.2.1 Page 5-2

Answer 23

X A. Fluid leaks

Question 24

24. The command “Prepare to Bail Out” should be issued only after it is determined that ditching cannot be safely accomplished.
    A. True
    B. False
    OPEN Question # 419 EPS-1.1 6.32 Page 6-36

Answer 24

X A. True

Question 25

25. Concerning EP-3E operations, Condition III is entitled _____ .
    A. Equipment Check
    B. Routine Flight
    C. Operational Check
    D. Aircraft Inspection
    OPEN Question # 398 EPS-1.1 16.2.3 Page 16-2

Answer 25

X C. Operational Check

Question 26

26. Prior to entering oceanic airspace, a SELCAL check should be conducted with ATC to verify operation of ______ and entered ______.

OPEN Question # 594 EPS-1.1 9.6.5.1 Page 9-28

Answer 26

X A. ____________________ HF SELCAL mode
X B. ____________________ SELCAL code

Question 27

27. Upon receipt of an ATC SELCAL, lower squelch to ____ to reply.
    A. 5
    B. 7
    C. 0
    D. 2
    OPEN Question # 595 EPS-1.1 9.6.5.1 Page 9-28

Answer 27

X C. 0

Question 28

28. You must select SAVE before selecting the RTN button to save the changes you made in the SETUP page of the ARC-243 (V) radio control set.
    A. True
    B. False
    OPEN Question # 596 EPS-1.1 9.6.4 Page 9-26

Answer 28

X B. False

Question 29

29. When selecting an operating frequency for either ARC-243 (V) HF R/T care must be taken not to select a frequency within _____ of the associated antenna antiresonant frequency.

OPEN Question # 597 EPS-1.1 9.6.5 Page 9-27

Answer 29

X A. ____________________ 500 kHZ

Question 30

30. To avoid electrical shocks being received by personnel, do not transmit or perform a BIT on the ARC-243 (V) radios when the aircraft is on the ground without ensuring the aircraft is _____ first.

       OPEN        Question # 598      EPS-1.1    9.6.4    Page 9-26

Answer 30

X A. ____________________ grounded

Question 31

31. On the ARC 243 (V) HF radios, when primary power is lost to the DCMS, HF-2 transmit and receive functions can be accomplished via the _____________.

       OPEN        Question # 599      EPS-1.1    9.6.3    Page 9-25

Answer 31

A. ____________________ Emergency Communications Panel

Question 32

32. Approximately how many wingspans of an EP-3E represent the personnel safety standoff for operation of the APS-134 radar on
    the ground?
    A. 1.5
    B. End of wingtips
    C. 3
    D. 1
    OPEN Question # 31 EPS-1.1 1.2/3.2.5 Page 1-1/3-4

Answer 32

X A. 1.5

Question 33

33. Single type hearing protection, either ear plugs or circumaural, is adequate when entering or departing a P-3 via the boarding
    ladder with the APU running.
    A. True
    B. False
    OPEN Question # 48 EPS-1.1 FIG 3-1 Page 3-3

Answer 33

X A. True

Question 34

34. Complete the following statement. Sound intensity levels of _____ and higher have been recorded inside P-3 aircraft during
    flight. Consideration _____ be given to wearing hearing protection while off headset, as unprotected exposure may result in
    temporary or permanent hearing loss.
    A. 75dB; should
    B. 85dB; should not
    C. 85dB; should
    D. 75dB; should not
    OPEN Question # 49 EPS-1.1 FIG 3-1 Page 3-3

Answer 34

X C. 85dB; should

Question 35

35. Structural failure of the air multiplier turbo compressor can cause extensive damage or injury to personnel in the adjacent areas.
    All personnel approaching the extendable radome area must be aware of the potential for air multiplier assembly damage as a
    result of blocking the air intake.
    A. True
    B. False
    OPEN Question # 87 EPS-1.1 3.2.7 Page 3-4

Answer 35

X A. True

Question 36

36. If, during flap extension, the observer indicates a clearance danger exists, flap travel shall be stopped immediately. How is this
    accomplished?
    A. Placing a wooden beam in the path of travel
    B. Securing hydraulic power
    C. Immediately placing flap handle in UP position
    D. Securing electric power to the flap handle
    OPEN Question # 88 EPS-1.1 3.2.8 Page 3-4

Answer 36

X B. Securing hydraulic power

Question 37

37. The Safety Diamond Area is defined by imaginary lines connecting the extremities of the nose, wing tips, and tail extending out
    how many feet from the aircraft?
    A. 4
    B. 3
    C. 6
    D. 5
    OPEN Question # 89 EPS-1.1 3.2.9 Page 3-5

Answer 37

X D. 5

Question 38

38. International Maritime Satellite (INMARSAT) is the radio frequency distribution (RFD) component of _______ connectivity aboard
    the EP-3E aircraft. It is also the vehicle through which _______ data is received and transmitted.

OPEN Question # 456 EPS-1.1 12.11.1 Page 12-22

Answer 38

X A. ____________________ FORCENET
X B. ____________________ HITS

Question 39

39. TIBS Data Interface (TDI) controls and processes all message transfers to and from the IBS-I Network and provides the
    encryption/decryption using the _____.

OPEN Question # 566 EPS-1.1 12.8.1 Page 12-18

Answer 39

X A. ____________________ KGV-11

Question 40

40. Your crew was originally scheduled for 21 crewmembers. If you add a passenger, which previously empty ditching station is
    now occupied?
    A. 16
    B. 7
    C. 14A
    D. 21
    OPEN Question # 379 EPS-1.1 FIG 6-7 Page 6-27

Answer 40

X D. 21

Question 41

41. With the EHSI, when a DME data is invalid or it becomes unavailable, the DME readout will indicate what?

OPEN Question # 192 EPS-1.1 FIG 10-22 Page 10-61

Answer 41

A. ____________________ Red or white dashes respectively.

Question 42

42. In non-CNS/ATM, which of the following display ranges is not selectable when using the EHSI control panel in map mode?
    A. 10
    B. 250
    C. 100
    D. 500
    OPEN Question # 393 EPS-1.1 10.6.2.2.3 (c) Page 10-58

Answer 42

X C. 100

Question 43

43. In the AN/PRC-112B Series radios, it is important to not install dissimilar batteries, as doing so may cause them to explode due
    to differences in chemical composition.
    A. True
    B. False
    OPEN Question # 250 EPS-1.1 6.29.3.2 Page 6-34

Answer 43

X A. True

Question 44

44. Why should the AN/PRC-149 operator first acquire the GPS satellites in GPS mode prior to transmitting on the triple frequency
    beacon mode or the 406 beacon mode?

OPEN Question # 251 EPS-1.1 6.29.4.1 Page 6-35

Answer 44

A. _____________Doing so will ensure first 406.025 MHz signal will include position if radio is not turned off between GPS mode acquisition and beacon mode.

Question 45

45. The PRC-149 will give what indication that it has acquired GPS satellites?

OPEN Question # 282 EPS-1.1 6.29.4.1 Page 6-35

Answer 45

A. ____________________ Once acquired, the GPS LED will light continuously.

Question 46

46. Prior to performing maintenance on the APS-134 radome, the manual hydraulic shutoff valves for hydraulic systems No. 1 and
    No. 2 shall be closed and the _____ circuit breaker shall be pulled.
    A. Biglook
    B. Main
    C. APS-134 R/T
    D. Antenna Interlock
    OPEN Question # 579 EPS-1.1 3.2.4 Page 3-2

Answer 46

X D. Antenna Interlock

Question 47

47. During normal use of the BAROSET knob, If momentary locking of the barocounter is experienced, what procedure is to be done
    in an effort to avoid internal gear displacement, which causes excessive altitude errors?

OPEN Question # 38 EPS-1.1 2.3.1.1 Page 2-9

Answer 47

X A. ____________________ Rotate the knob a full turn in the opposite direction and approach the setting again with caution.

Question 48

48. When the local barometric pressure is set, the altimeter should agree within +/- _____ feet of field elevation.
    A. 50
    B. 150
    C. 75
    D. 100
    OPEN Question # 39 EPS-1.1 2.3.1.1 Page 2-9

Answer 48

X C. 75

Question 49

49. During a FOUO, when this Bus is secured, DCMS at all stations will become inoperative.

OPEN Question # 56 EPS-1.1 6.4.1 Page 6-5

Answer 49

X A. ____________________ Essential BUS

Question 50

50. What is the minimum number of personnel required to conduct an aircraft move in or around the flight line or hangar?
    A. 6
    B. 4
    C. 5
    D. 3
    OPEN Question # 91 EPS-1.1 3.3 Page 3-5

Answer 50

X A. 6

Question 51

51. What is the maximum airspeed at which one can recover the HF antenna?

OPEN Question # 116 EPS-1.1 6.33 Page 6-40

Answer 51

X A. ____________________ 170 KIAS

Question 52

52. Why is it important to keep hands clear when replacing the overwing emergency escape hatch in flight?

OPEN Question # 117 EPS-1.1 6.33 Page 6-40

Answer 52

A. ____________Negative pressure over the wings tends to seat/reseat the hatch prematurely.

Question 53

53. From the list of the following procedures, indicate the correct procedures and their sequence for launching the Multi-Place Life
    Raft (MPLR).

    1) Connect the liferaft painter to your life vest.
    2) Ensure the MPLR actuation/mooring line is attached to the aircraft.
    3) Push or lift the liferaft through the exit.
    4) Actuate the MPLR with two distinct sharp pulls of the actuating handle.
    5) Locate the actuation handle in the international orange flap and actuate with one smooth pull.

OPEN Question # 1 EPS-1.1 6.26.1 Page 6-30

Answer 53

X A. ____________________ 2, 3, 5

Question 54

54. When launching the MPLR _____ .
    A. Ensure the actuation/mooring line is attached to the aircraft.
    B. Remove the liferaft from its carrying case.
    C. Inflate the liferaft before launching.
    D. Attach the liferaft painter to your AIRSAVE.
    OPEN Question # 457 EPS-1.1 6.26.1 Page 6-30

Answer 54

X A. Ensure the actuation/mooring line is attached to the aircraft.

Question 55

55. Responsibility for all transmissions rests with which aircrew position? Assume a full tactical crew.
    A. Senior Evaluator
    B. Aircraft Commander
    C. Special Evaluator
    D. Mission Commander
    OPEN Question # 123 EPS-1.1 7.2 Page 7-1

Answer 55

X D. Mission Commander

Question 56

56. Message releasing authority may be delegated to other officers in the crew. However, the mission commander should at all
    times be made aware of the content of outgoing messages.
    A. True
    B. False
    OPEN Question # 124 EPS-1.1 7.2 Page 7-1

Answer 56

X A. True

Question 57

57. The preferred means of submitting routine NATOPS change recommendations is directly to the model manager via _____ .
    A. the AIRS website
    B. form DD 214
    C. form OPNAV 3710/6
    D. form DD 1348
    OPEN Question # 377 EPS-1.1 N/A Page 51

Answer 57

X A. the AIRS website

Question 58

58. LT Evergone just completed his NATOPS requalification on January 15th. His previous evaluation was last March 10th. What is
    the expiration date of his new qual?
    A. March 31st
    B. January 15th
    C. March 10th
    D. January 31st
    OPEN Question # 384 EPS-1.1 17.1.7.2 Page 17-4

Answer 58

X D. January 31st

Question 59

59. Renewal evaluations are valid for 12 months from the last day of the month of the expiration date of current evaluation if
    accomplished within _____ days preceding expiration.
    A. 30
    B. 120
    C. 60
    D. 90
    OPEN Question # 577 EPS-1.1 17.1.7.2 Page 17-4

Answer 59

X C. 60

Question 60

60. It is during the dead of winter in Brunswick. The ambient air temperature is a chilly -25.6 degrees Celsius. What is the
    maximum pressure that you should see indicated on your oxygen bottle?

OPEN Question # 95 EPS-1.1 FIG 3-3 Page 3-12

Answer 60

X A. ____________________ 1,409 psi

Question 61

61. You are conducting a preflight in Bahrain. Your ambient air temperature is a staggering 33.3 degrees Celsius. What is the
    minimum pressure that you should see indicated on your oxygen bottle?

OPEN Question # 96 EPS-1.1 FIG 3-3 Page 3-12

Answer 61

X A. ____________________ 1,601 psi

Question 62

62. What is the power source for the Vertical Gyro?
    A. Main AC Bus A
    B. Ext MDC
    C. MEAC
    D. FEDC
    OPEN Question # 400 EPS-1.1 FIG 2-8 Page 2-26

Answer 62

X C. MEAC

Question 63

63. What is the power source for the KIR-1C?
    A. Monitorable Essential AC
    B. Monitorable Essential DC
    C. Main AC Bus A
    D. Flight Essential DC
    OPEN Question # 451 EPS-1.1 FIG 2-8 Page 2-25

Answer 63

X C. Main AC Bus A

Question 64

64. The power source for the 60 Hz converter is _____ .
    A. Main AC Bus A
    B. Main AC Bus B
    C. Monitorable Essential DC
    D. Monitorable Essential AC
    OPEN Question # 459 EPS-1.1 FIG 2-8 Page 2-33

Answer 64

X B. Main AC Bus B

Question 65

65. If properly configured, the UHF-4 RT-1273 with the KY-58 at station 4 is secure voice SATCOM capable.
    A. True
    B. False
    OPEN Question # 402 EPS-1.1 9.8.2.2 Page 9-37

Answer 65

X A. True

Question 66

66. Diphase is the primary communications mode for the KY-58 across DOD and NATO.
    A. True
    B. False
    OPEN Question # 506 EPS-1.1 9.7.4.1.1 Page 9-35

Answer 66

X B. False

Question 67

67. The WJ-8604 receiver housed in the WJ-9903 enclosure operates between what frequencies?

OPEN Question # 458 EPS-1.1 14.4.2.2 Page 14-5

Answer 67

X A. ____________________ 20 MHz to 2 GHz

Question 68

68. When the NATOPS refers you to NTRP 3-22.2-EP-3E for further guidance, what publication is it referring you to?
    A. EDP Positional Card
    B. Classified NATIP
    C. EP-3E Tactical Pocket Guide
    D. Crew Station Maintenance Manual
    OPEN Question # 385 EPS-1.1 N/A Page 49

Answer 68

X B. Classified NATIP

Question 69

69. The Medium-band Omni distribution group is associated with _____ .
    A. TB 2 to TB 6
    B. TB 1 and TB 2
    C. FB 1 only
    D. FB 1 to FB 4
    OPEN Question # 404 – add to ACCESS Bank-614 EPS-1.1 13.4.1.1 Page 13-8

Answer 69

X D. FB 1 to FB 4

Question 70

70. When operating in a standoff environment, ICS updates are required at ____ , ____ , and ____ .

OPEN Question # 568 EPS-1.1 16.3.3 Page 16-4

Answer 70

X A. ____________________ 10 nm
X B. ____________________ 5 nm
X C. ____________________ Every mile inside of 5 nm

Question 71

71. The Video Matrix Switch associated with the Story Classic system routes signal outputs to the station 20 patch panel and the
    _____ .
    A. Story Classic VME
    B. WJ-9908 enclosures
    C. OM-75/A Demodulator group
    D. Audio matrix switch
    OPEN Question # 455 EPS-1.1 13.3.5 Page 13-5

Answer 71

X C. OM-75/A Demodulator group

Question 72

72. The ST RFD software resides on a __________ hard drive in the VME chassis.
    A. Communication Pre-Processor (CPP)
    B. Story Teller Correlator (STC)
    C. Mission Avionics System Interface (MASI)
    D. Port Server/Pool Manager
    OPEN Question # 600 EPS-1.1 12.3 Page 12-5

Answer 72

X C. Mission Avionics System Interface (MASI)

Question 73

73. List the four subsystems that comprise the EP-3E FORCEnet architecture:

OPEN Question # 601 EPS-1.1 12.11.2 Page 12-22

Answer 73

A. ______________________INMARSAT
B. ______________________ADNS
C. ______________________Networks (JWICS/SIPRNET/COI)
D. ______________________HITS

Question 74

74. During evasion with Condition 1 set, helmets should be worn.
    A. True
    B. False
    OPEN Question # 602 EPS-1.1 16.2.1 Page 16-2

Answer 74

X A. True

Question 75

75. The Banshee Lite System Server contains the ______, the ________, and provides a storage area for ______ and ______ files.

OPEN Question # 603 EPS-1.1 13.7.5.1 Page 13-19

Answer 75

X A. ____________________ LH software
X B. ____________________ Bird’s Eye GUI
X C. ____________________ signal
X D. ____________________ audio

Question 76

76. The Banshee Lite workstation and the system server look very similar and are located at station 15. Care should be taken to avoid mixing up the hard drives.
    A. True
    B. False
    OPEN Question # 604 EPS-1.1 13.7.5.9 Page 13-22

Answer 76

X A. True

Question 77

77. AAS-44C MTS is operated at station 4. The video is sent to stations _______ for situational awareness and analysis.
    A. 1, 13, and 14
    B. 1, 12, and 13
    C. 12, 13, and 14
    D. 1, 6, and 13
    OPEN Question # 605 EPS-1.1 15.2 Page 15-3

Answer 77

X A. 1, 13, and 14

Question 78

78. The AAS-44C MTS contains two Class IV lasers the Laser Range Designate (LRD) and Laser Target Marker (LTM) that can produce permanent blindness to people and animals up to ____ kilometers for the LRD and up to ____ meters for the LTM.

OPEN Question # 607 EPS-1.1 15.2 Page 15-3

Answer 78

A. ____________________ 9
B. ____________________ 200

Question 79

79. Which of the following is not part of the minimum survival equipment for the AIRSAVE:
    A. Pen light
    B. Whistle
    C. Compass
    D. Shroud line cutter
    OPEN Question # 610 EPS-1.1 6.21.1 Page 6-28

Answer 79

X A. Pen light

Question 80

80. The Noble Sentry system contains a ______ subsystem, _______subsystem, and the ______ subsystem.

       OPEN         Question # 611     EPS-1.1    11.8.1    Page 11-38

Answer 80

A. ____________________ Specific Emitter Identification (SEI)
B. ____________________ Low Probability of Intercept (LPI)
C. ____________________ Automatic Identification System (AIS)

Question 81

81. Identify the Noble Sentry subsystem that uses a theater-specific library, which is uploaded before missions.
    A. Specific Emitter Identification (SEI)
    B. Low Probability of Intercept (LPI)
    C. Automatic Identification System (AIS)
    D. Vessel Traffic Services (VTS)
    OPEN Question # 612 EPS-1.1 11.8.1 Page 11-38

Answer 81

X A. Specific Emitter Identification (SEI)

Question 82

82. During the use of the portable navigation GPS unit PSN-11, when the receiver is connected to an external power source, the internal BA-5800/U lithium battery shall not be installed.
    A. True
    B. False
    OPEN Question #637(from previous closed bank)NOW QUESTION 615 EPS-1.1 10.2.5 Page 10-41

Answer 82

X A. True

Question 83

83. Before powering up the ODIN Systel processor, the ________ at station 4 must be powered up.
    A. Video Distribution Amplifier (VDA)
    B. Video Encoder (V-BRICK)
    C. Keyboard Video Mouse (KVM)
    D. DSR-45 Digital Recorder
    OPEN Question #617 now Question 616 EPS-1.1 15.2.9 Page 15-10

Answer 83

X C. Keyboard Video Mouse (KVM)

Question 84

84. ___ is the ability of the receiver to detect and exclude a bad satellite from the navigation solution,
    which requires the receiver to be tracking a minimum of ___ satellites.

Question #620 now Qeustion 617 EPS-1.1 10.7.2.3.2 Page 10-63

Answer 84

A. FDE
B. 6

Question 85

85. . ___ is the ability of the receiver to determine if the integrity of the navigation solution meets the
    integrity requirements for the phase of flight and requires the receiver to be tracking a minimum of
    ___ satellites.

Question #618 EPS-1.1 10.7.2.3.1 Page 10-63

Answer 85

A. RAIM
B. 5

Question 86

86. In an emergency, the RINU-G INS will operate from the aircraft battery until battery voltage drops below what voltage?
    A. 28VDC
    B. 32VDC
    C. 17.5VAC
    D. 17.5VDC
    Question #621 now Question 620 EPS-1.1 10.7.3 Page 10-66

Answer 86

X D. 17.5VDC

Question 87

87. Loss of which of the following will cause a loss of GPS signal to both RINU-Gs?
    A. Antenna
    B. Amplifier
    C. Splitter
    D. Any of the above
    Question #619 EPS-1.1 10.7.2.6 Page 10-64

Answer 87

X D. Any of the above

Question 88

88. When securing the AN/ARC-94 HF systems, set _____ .
    A. HF-1 to 19.999 MHz and HF-2 to 29.999 MHz
    B. HF-1 and HF-2 to 00.000 MHz
    C. HF-1 to 20.999 MHz and HF-2 to 29.999 MHz
    D. HF-1 to 20.999 MHz and HF-2 to 20.999 MHz
    Question #381 EPS-1.1 9.5.6 Page 9-17

Answer 88

X A. HF-1 to 19.999 MHz and HF-2 to 29.999 MHz