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NATOPS > Closed > Flashcards

Closed Flashcards

1
Q
  1. IR Anti-collision lights must not be operated when personnel are within ____ feet of the IR
    anti-collision light.A. 2
    B. 99
    C. 130
    D. 150
    Question #580 EPS-1.1 3.2.5 Page 3-4
A

X A. 2

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2
Q
  1. Atomized hydraulic fluid may exhibit visual characteristics of smoke. Open hydraulic service
    center door to shield body. If fire or hydraulic leak is present, _____ .A. Bailout
    B. Attempt to clean overhead
    C. Secure all hydraulic power
    D. Don oxygen mask prior to inspecting HSC
    Question #581 EPS-1.1 6.3 Page 6-2
A

X D. Don oxygen mask prior to inspecting HSC

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3
Q
  1. After the pilot sets____________, personnel are free to leave their takeoff (ditching) station.
A

A. Condition III
Question #585 EPS-1.1 16.2.3 Page 16-2

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4
Q
  1. IR anti-collision lights must not be operated when personnel are within 2 feet of the anti-
    collision light.

X A. True
B. False
Question #588 EPS-1.1 3.2.5 Page 3-4

A

X A. True

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5
Q
  1. If the source of fuselage or electrical fire of unknown origin cannot be determined with engines running on the ground:

A. Taxi back to your line and have maintenance check the aircraft.
B. Discharge fire bottles into likeliest location of fire.
C. Execute the Emergency Ground Evacuation procedure.
D. Continue searching.
Question #522 EPS-1.1 6.3 Page 6-3

A

X C. Execute the Emergency Ground Evacuation procedure.

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6
Q
  1. When using a Solid State Emergency Pack (AVIOX) _____ .A. Keep the actuator away from your body
    B. Relax so you don’t use up the oxygen faster
    C. Buddy breathe to save oxygen supplies
    D. Make sure it seals around your face
    Question #448 EPS-1.1 6.8 Page 6-14
A

X A. Keep the actuator away from your body

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7
Q
  1. Execution of emergency procedures is the responsibility of the _____ .

A. Senior Evaluator
B. Senior Line Officer embarked
C. Mission Commander
D. Pilot
Question #440 EPS-1.1 6.1 Page 6-1

A

X D. Pilot

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8
Q
  1. During emergencies, if the LPU is worn, crewmembers should turn on personal flashlights on
    SV-2s or Airsave vests in preparation for possible power loss.A. True
    B. False
    Question #52 EPS-1.1 6.1 Page 6-1
A

X A. True

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9
Q
  1. What signal will the crew receive that indicates which side to use during an emergency ground evacuation if the ladder is up?
A

X A. _____________________PA/ICS override announcement from the flight station.
Question #58 EPS-1.1 6.13 Page 6-19

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10
Q
  1. When operating below MOSA, how often shall the flight station receive MOSA reports?

A. Every 10 nm and every mile inside of 10 nm
B. Every 1 nm
C. Every 5 nm
D. Every 5 nm and every mile inside of 10 nm
Question #332 EPS-1.1 16.23.5.7 Page 16-21

A

X D. Every 5 nm and every mile inside of 10 nm

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11
Q
  1. Which seating positions in the EP-3E are NOT authorized ditching stations?

A. 7, 25 and 26
B. 7, 14A and 25
C. 14A, 23 and 24
D. 5, 7 and 14A
Question #490 EPS-1.1 1.3 Page 1-2

A

X A. 7, 25 and 26

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12
Q
  1. During a FOUO, with Bus A secured, the Copilot must select _____ as the HSI heading source.

A. INS-2
B. GPS
C. Magnetic Compass
D. INS-1
Question #549 EPS-1.1 6.4.1 Page 6-4

A

X D. INS-1

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13
Q
  1. What is provided by the AN/ARN-151 Control Display Navigation Unit (CDNU)?

A. Control, display, processing and operator interface
B. Storage for navigation databases
C. Routing of GPS timing signals
D. All of the above
Question #430 EPS-1.1 10.2.2.1 Page 10-31

A

X A. Control, display, processing and operator interface

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14
Q
  1. A 12 person MPLR is certified to carry ______ .

A. 14 people
B. 24 people
C. 12 people
D. 18 people
Question #544 EPS-1.1 6.26 Page 6-30

A

X D. 18 people

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15
Q
  1. In the event the DCMS fails, radio transmit and receive capability is _____ .

A. Available only to the flight station through U/VHF 1
B. Possible on UHF 2 via the Emergency Comm Panel
C. Not possible
D. Available on U/VHF 1 and HF 2
Question #447 EPS-1.1 6.37 Page 6-41

A

X D. Available on U/VHF 1 and HF 2

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16
Q
  1. Where is the emergency escape rope located?
A

X A. Above the main cabin door. ______________________________________
Question #61 EPS-1.1 6.15 Page 6-20

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17
Q
  1. Intention to ditch and time to water impact is indicated by _____ .

A. Four short rings on the command bell
B. ICS PA announcement
C. One long ring on the command bell
D. Both A and B are correct
Question #333 EPS-1.1 6.19 Page 6-21

A

X B. ICS PA announcement

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18
Q
  1. Should conflict exist between the procedures found in the NATOPS manual and those found in
    Maintenance Instruction Manuals, the NATOPS manual will govern.

A. True
B. False
Question #443 EPS-1.1 Paragraph 2 Page 3

A

X A. True

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19
Q
  1. With oxygen available for the entire crew, staying at high altitude and depressurizing may help
    to control fuselage fires.

A. True
B. False
Question #322 EPS-1.1 6.4.1 Page 6-5

A

X A. True

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20
Q
  1. Satellite acquisition that results in a valid “NAV” solution should occur within _____ minutes.

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Question #415 EPS-1.1 10.2.4 Page 10-39

A

X A. 5

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21
Q
  1. Emergency procedures shall be handled in strict accordance with Chapter 6 of the NATOPS
    manual. There is no latitude for deviations from those procedures.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #51 EPS-1.1 6.1 Page 6-1
A

X B. False

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22
Q
  1. How often is an aircraft positional fix required during the mission portion of flight?
    A. Every 20 minutes
    B. Every 30 minutes
    C. Once per hour
    D. Every turn more than 30 degrees
    Question #423 EPS-1.1 16.23.5.7 Page 16-21
A

X C. Once per hour

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23
Q
  1. The SDU-39/N Distress Marker Light has _____ mode(s) of operation, including _____.
    A. 1; white
    B. 2; white and infrared
    C. 3; white, infrared and blue
    D. 4; white, infrared, blue and NVG
    Question #484 EPS-1.1 6.24.1 Page 6-30
A

X C. 3; white, infrared and blue

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24
Q
  1. The area between the fuselage and the No.2 or No.3 propeller is considered a propeller arc
    hazard area and should always be avoided.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #46 EPS-1.1 3.2.1 Page 3-2
A

X A. True

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25
Q
  1. What is the approximate maximum distance that present position can be updated in the AN/ASN-179 INS?
    A. 30 arc-minutes
    B. Present position cannot be updated manually
    C. 15 degrees
    D. 15 arc-minutes
    Question #412 EPS-1.1 10.1.5.7 Page 10-25
A

X A. 30 arc-minutes

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26
Q
  1. The ARN-83 low-frequency ADF is used for routine point-to-point radio navigation. The ADF
    receiver operates on AM signals in the ____ to ____ frequency range. This system is installed
    on all aircraft.

A. 190; 1750 GHz
B. 190; 1750 MHz
C. 190; 1750 kHz
D. 190; 1750 Hz
Question #407 EPS-1.1 10.4.1 Page 10-44

A

X C. 190; 1750 kHz

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27
Q
  1. The goal of CRM is to:
    A. Increase mission effectiveness
    B. Reduce mishaps resulting from poor crew coordination
    C. Add a metric to crew workups
    D. Both A and B are correct
    Question #532 EPS-1.1 16.1.1 Page 16-1
A

X D. Both A and B are correct

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28
Q
  1. Upon hearing the APU fire horn located on the aft bulkhead of the Main Load Center, what
    action do you take?
A

X A. ______________________Immediately evacuate the aircraft.
Question #11 EPS-1.1 6.2 Page 6-1

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29
Q
  1. After all personnel have evacuated the aircraft during a ditch, move rafts out from under any
    part of the aircraft that might strike them as it sinks.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #466 EPS-1.1 6.26.1 Page 6-31
A

X A. True

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30
Q
  1. Which EP-3E crew station is responsible for obtaining the port water breaker in the event of a
    ditch?
A

X A. ___________________Station 20 or S and T Operator
Question #79 EPS-1.1 FIG 6-1 Page 6-11

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31
Q
  1. All crewmembers shall wear _____ during electrical fire or fire of unknown origin.
    A. Flight gloves
    B. Helmet
    C. Helmet and flight gloves
    D. Flight gloves and SV-2
    Question #340 EPS-1.1 6.4 Page 6-3
A

X A. Flight gloves

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32
Q
  1. Which is NOT a possible effect accompanying explosive decompression?
    A. Hypothermia
    B. Hypoxia
    C. Gas pains
    D. Momentary dazed sensation
    Question #341 EPS-1.1 6.9.1 Page 6-18
A

X A. Hypothermia

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33
Q
  1. What is the preferred location to assemble after executing emergency ground evacuation
    procedures?
    A. Well off to the side of the aircraft.
    B. Well upwind of the aircraft.
    C. Well forward of the aircraft.
    D. Well behind the aircraft.
    Question #59 EPS-1.1 6.13 Page 6-19
A

X D. Well behind the aircraft.

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following is true concerning the use of the PRC-90-2 high power signal beacon
    A. It is used only in 243.0 MHz beacon mode to transmit through foliage.
    B. It increases transmission range.
    C. It reduces battery life from approximately 18 to 8.5 hours.
    D. Both A & C are correct.
    Question #526 EPS-1.1 6.29.1.1 Page 6-33
A

X D. Both A & C are correct.

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35
Q
  1. Which antenna is used by the AN/ARC-243 HF-2 radio?
    A. Long wire assembly
    B. ALD-9
    C. Port dog-leg
    D. Starboard dog-leg
    Question #460 EPS-1.1 9.6.1 Page 9-18
A

X D. Starboard dog-leg

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36
Q
  1. After completing the ground evaluation (open/closed book exams), personnel have _____ days
    to complete the flight evaluation.
    A. 30
    B. 60
    C. 90
    D. 180
    Question #321 EPS-1.1 17.1.2 Page 17-1
A

X B. 60

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37
Q
  1. When securing the portable oxygen regulator, what position should the PRESSURE lever be
    left in?
    A. TEST MASK
    B. 100-PERCENT OXYGEN
    C. OFF
    D. NORMAL
    Question #348 EPS-1.1 5.7 Page 5-9
A

X D. NORMAL

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38
Q
  1. It is permissible to swap the survival item pockets between the left and right sides on the
    AIRSAVE survival vest.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #70 EPS-1.1 6.21 Page 6-28
A

X B. False

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39
Q
  1. What is the required warm-up time for the AN/ARC-94 HF radio?
    A. 10 minutes
    B. 15 minutes
    C. 5 minutes
    D. 2-3 minutes
    Question #461 EPS-1.1 9.5.3.1 Page 9-16
A

X B. 15 minutes

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40
Q
  1. Who directs the pilot in the positioning of the aircraft to optimize collection opportunities?
    A. SEVAL
    B. Navigator
    C. Copilot
    D. Special Evaluator
    Question #518 EPS-1.1 16.23.11.7 Page 16-35
A

X A. SEVAL

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41
Q
  1. What is the maximum range of the AN/ARN-118 TACAN system?
    A. 300 NM or LOS
    B. 250 NM or LOS
    C. 180 NM or LOS
    D. 390 NM or LOS
    Question #370 EPS-1.1 10.4.1 Page 10-44
A

X D. 390 NM or LOS

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42
Q
  1. A steady WARN light on the AN/ASN-179 INS indicates _____ .
    A. System malfunction has occurred and NAV data is no longer available
    B. INS has switched over to backup 28-volt DC power
    C. WARN light will never illuminate steady
    D. System degradation, but still usable
    Question #416 EPS-1.1 FIG 10-2 Page 10-5
A

X A. System malfunction has occurred and NAV data is no longer available

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43
Q
  1. For all operations, cabin ambient temperature should be maintained below _____ .
    A. 27 degrees F
    B. 27 degrees C
    C. 72 degrees F
    D. 72 degrees C
    Question #472 EPS-1.1 5.5.5 Page 5-6
A

X B. 27 degrees C

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44
Q
  1. How many additional crewmembers are allowed in the flight station during takeoff and landing?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    Question #513 EPS-1.1 16.2.5 Page 16-3
A

X B. 2

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45
Q
  1. While preflighting your parachute, you notice your Thin Pack parachute has a torn vacuum
    seal. What action should you take?
    A. The parachute is still good for one month after the vacuum seal breaks.
    B. The parachute should be replaced immediately.
    C. You can fly up to 5 flights before replacing it.
    D. Parachute performance is not degraded, however, the parachute should be replaced as
    soon as practicable.
    Question #527 EPS-1.1 6.31.1 Page 6-36
A

X D. Parachute performance is not degraded, however, the parachute should be replaced as
soon as practicable.

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46
Q
  1. In order to avoid severe bodily injury when utilizing the Thin Pack Parachute, the _____ must
    be properly adjusted.

Question #85 EPS-1.1 6.32 Page 6-37

A

X A. ___________________ Leg straps.

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47
Q
  1. An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if
    not carefully observed or followed is referred to as a ______________ in NATOPS.

Question #29 EPS-1.1 N/A Page 53

A

X A. ______________________Caution

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48
Q
  1. During Condition I, all observer windows and overwing hatches should be manned while in
    daylight or darkened at night.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #569 EPS-1.1 16.2.1 Page 16-2
A

X A. True

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49
Q
  1. Which device must be installed in the main cabin door during all aircraft towing operations?

Question #92 EPS-1.1 3.3 Page 3-5

A

X A. ______________________The SAR Bar.

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50
Q
  1. During a FOUO, administer oxygen to personnel overcome by smoke/fumes before attempting
    to move them from the scene of the fire.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #548 EPS-1.1 6.4 Page 6-3
A

X B. False

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51
Q
  1. Which of the following represents external inputs to the AN/ASN-179 INS?
    A. True heading, magnetic heading
    B. Magnetic heading, wind vector
    C. Initial aircraft position, true heading
    D. True airspeed, initial aircraft position
    Question #429 EPS-1.1 10.1.1 Page 10-1
A

X D. True airspeed, initial aircraft position

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52
Q
  1. When conducting a heading deviation check, if INS #1 true heading reads 045 and INS #2 true
    heading reads 049, this represents an acceptable variance.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #450 EPS-1.1 16.23.5.5 Page 16-20
A

X B. False

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53
Q
  1. Minimum survival equipment for the AIRSAVE survival vest is the same as for the SV-2B
    survival vest.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #464 EPS-1.1 6.21 Page 6-28
A

X A. True

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54
Q
  1. When Condition V is set, the aircraft interior should be reasonably darkened at night.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #356 EPS-1.1 16.2.5 Page 16-3
A

X A. True

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55
Q
  1. What indication would you have when approaching an aircraft that is radiating its radar on the
    ground?

Question #205 EPS-1.1 3.2.5 Page 3-4

A

X A. ______________Taxi lights turned on.

X B. ______________Rotating beacon turned on.

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56
Q
  1. There are four emergency exit lights that are on board the aircraft. Where are they located?

Question #27 EPS-1.1 6.17 Page 6-20

A

1) Main cabin door.
2) Port overwing emergency exit.
3) Flight station auxiliary emergency exit.
4) Starboard overwing emergency exit.

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57
Q
  1. DCMS connectivity is provided to personnel at ditching stations 21-24 by:
    A. Digital Intercommunication Interface (DII)
    B. There is no provision for DCMS connectivity at these stations
    C. Digital Crewmember Interface (DCI)
    D. Extra headset outlets at station 19 and 20
    Question #541 EPS-1.1 9.2.2.4 Page 9-3
A

X A. Digital Intercommunication Interface (DII)

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58
Q
  1. The DISC-ICS switch on the AN/AIC-37 DCMS performs what function?

A. Disconnects all audio except NAV and Station 11 from crewmember’s headset fixed
B. Disconnects all audio from crewmember’s headset fixed position
C. Disconnects all audio except EM/PA from crewmember’s headset fixed position
D. Disconnects all radio audio from crewmember’s headset fixed position
Question #468 EPS-1.1 FIG 9-3 Page 9-4

A

X C. Disconnects all audio except EM/PA from crewmember’s headset fixed position

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59
Q
  1. In the EP-3E, the maximum variance allowed for a TAS check is _____ knot(s).
    A. 1
    B. 3
    C. 5
    D. 10
    Question #372 EPS-1.1 16.23.5.5 Page 16-20
A

X C. 5

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60
Q
  1. Who is responsible for preflighting the forward fire bottle and portable oxygen bottle?
    A. Navigator
    B. EWOP
    C. LABOP
    D. SEVAL
    Question #514 EPS-1.1 15.23.6.3 Page 15-23
A

X B. EWOP

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61
Q
  1. What is the function of the navigation interconnection box (NAV-J box)?
    A. Route navigation, attitude and status signals throughout the aircraft
    B. Generate 26 Vac synchro excitation voltage to all equipment that generates analog signal
    outputs
    C. Provide proper switching of NAVAID, heading and attitude signals as selected on the HSI
    control panels
    D. All of the above
    Question #473 EPS-1.1 10.5.5 Page 10-45
A

X D. All of the above

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62
Q
  1. When performing a bailout, after inflating your LPU it is mandatory to snap your waist lobes
    together.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #339 EPS-1.1 6.32 Page 6-37
A

X A. True

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63
Q
  1. How many portable fire extinguishers are on board the EP-3E aircraft?
    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 5
    Question #474 EPS-1.1 6.6 Page 6-14
A

X B. 3

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64
Q
  1. During an actual bailout or bailout drill, personnel shall utilize the parachute assigned to them
    during the brief.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #63 EPS-1.1 6.30 Page 6-36
A

X A. True

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65
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an operating mode of the AN/ARC-187?
    A. HAVEQUICK
    B. Line of Sight
    C. SATCOM
    D. SINCGARS
    Question #319 EPS-1.1 9.7.1 Page 9-29
A

X D. SINCGARS

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66
Q
  1. Which pitot-static system does the TAS computer utilize?
    A. Back end
    B. Pilot
    C. Nav
    D. Copilot
    Question #428 EPS-1.1 10.1.2.8 Page 10-6
A

X D. Copilot

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67
Q
  1. The decomposition by-products produced by HALON 1301 are characterized by what type of
    odor?
    A. Vinegar odor.
    B. Sulfur odor.
    C. Rusty metallic odor.
    D. Sharp acrid odor.
    Question #18 EPS-1.1 6.6 Page 6-14
A

X D. Sharp acrid odor.

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68
Q
  1. Which EP-3E ditching stations are assigned to liferaft #2? Indicate the ditching station
    responsible for launching the life-raft by circling it on your answer sheet. Underline the
    stations responsible for obtaining parachutes.

Question #256 EPS-1.1 FIG 6-1 Page 6-7/8/9

A

X A. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 9 10 11 [12] 13

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69
Q
  1. When securing the AN/ARC-94 HF systems, set _____ .
    A. HF-1 to 29.999 MHz and HF-2 to 29.999 MHz
    B. HF-1 to 20.999 MHz and HF-2 to 29.999 MHz
    C. HF-1 and HF-2 to 00.000 MHz
    D. HF-1 to 20.999 MHz and HF-2 to 20.999 MHz
    Question #381 EPS-1.1 9.5.6 Page 9-17
A

X A. HF-1 to 29.999 MHz and HF-2 to 29.999 MHz

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70
Q
  1. How long is considered excessive tuning time for the AN/ARC-94 HF radio?
    A. 5 seconds
    B. 5 minutes
    C. 10 seconds
    D. 2 minutes
    Question #371 EPS-1.1 9.5.2.6 Page 9-16
A

X A. 5 seconds

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71
Q
  1. What condition of flight is used for low-altitude flight?
    A. Condition I
    B. Condition II
    C. Condition III
    D. Condition IV
    Question #462 EPS-1.1 16.2.1 Page 16-2
A

X A. Condition I

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72
Q
  1. What are the indications of rack overheat condition on the ground?
    A. A steady aural warning horn will sound only
    B. The rack overheat lights will illuminate and a steady aural warning horn will sound in the
    flight station
    C. The rack overheat lights will illuminate and a pulsing aural warning horn will sound in the
    nose wheel well
    D. The rack overheat lights will illuminate and a pulsing warning horn will sound in the flight
    station and cabin
    Question #352 EPS-1.1 6.3.1 Page 6-3
A

X C. The rack overheat lights will illuminate and a pulsing aural warning horn will sound in the
nose wheel well

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73
Q
  1. From the following AN/ASN-179 INS CDU markings, select the correct function that will
    display the difference between the aircraft’s heading and its track.

TK GS; HDG DA; XTK/TKE; POS; WPT; DIS/TIME; WIND; DSR TK STS; TEST

Question #257 EPS-1.1 FIG 10-2 Page 10-3

A

X A. __________________________HDG DA

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74
Q
  1. The TAS probe heater should only be ON during icing conditions and should never be used
    except in flight.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #572 EPS-1.1 10.1.2.9 Page 10-8
A

X A. True

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75
Q
  1. How is the command “Execute Bailout” passed?
    A. Verbally over PA only
    B. Verbally and 4 short rings on the command bell
    C. Verbally and 1 long ring on the command bell of 10 seconds or longer
    D. One long ring on the command bell only
    Question #355 EPS-1.1 6.32 Page 6-37
A

X C. Verbally and 1 long ring on the command bell of 10 seconds or longer

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76
Q
  1. When setting Condition III in the EP-3E, crew station operators are required to make an
    equipment status report to the _____ .
    A. Pilot
    B. IFT
    C. Biglook
    D. SEVAL
    Question #330 EPS-1.1 16.2.3 Page 16-2
A

X D. SEVAL

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77
Q
  1. Carbon Dioxide is an acceptable extinguishing agent for a brake fire provided you stand away
    from the side of the wheels when discharging the fire extinguisher.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #120 EPS-1.1 6.34 Page 6-40
A

X B. False

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78
Q
  1. The aircraft is being depressurized for smoke or fume elimination. Which vent or emergency
    exit should be opened first?
    A. Overhead smoke removal door (above FE)
    B. Port overwing exit
    C. Lower main cabin door
    D. Starboard overwing exit
    Question #508 EPS-1.1 6.5 Page 6-13
A

X C. Lower main cabin door

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79
Q
  1. After a ditch, and once all personnel are safely out of the aircraft, distribute emergency
    supplies among the rafts and tie them down _____ of the raft to prevent them from being lost
    in case the raft capsizes.
    A. opposite the boarding ramp
    B. in the center
    C. on the bottom
    D. around the edges
    Question #485 EPS-1.1 6.26.1 Page 6-31
A

X B. in the center

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80
Q
  1. Before opening the main cabin door (FOR BAILOUT), verify that the flight station overhead
    smoke removal door is closed. Stay clear of marked caution area when opening the door since
    it may open explosively when the air seal is broken.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #3 EPS-1.1 6.32 Page 6-37
A

X A. True

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81
Q
  1. The EP-3E aircraft is equipped with _____ emergency water breakers, each having a capacity
    of _____ gallons.
    A. 4, 5.0
    B. 4, 2.5
    C. 2, 2.0
    D. 2, 4.5
    Question #437 EPS-1.1 6.27.1 Page 6-31
A

X B. 4, 2.5

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82
Q
  1. The APU fire protection system will be disabled while testing the APU fire detectors.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #503 EPS-1.1 2.1.6.1 Page 2-3
A

X A. True

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83
Q
  1. What heading is available on the Navigator EHSI?
    A. Both True and Magnetic
    B. True corrected for magnetic variation only
    C. Magnetic only
    D. True only
    Question #480 EPS-1.1 10.6.2.2 Page 10-49
A

X A. Both True and Magnetic

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84
Q
  1. Which EP-3E crew stations are responsible for obtaining First Aid Kits in the event of a ditch?

Question #83 EPS-1.1 FIG 6-1 Page 6-7/11

A

X A. _______________________4, 17

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85
Q
  1. You and your liferaft should remain in the vicinity of the aircraft as long as the aircraft remains
    afloat.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #74 EPS-1.1 6.26.1 Page 6-31
A

X A. True

86
Q
  1. What aural warning is heard when the rack overheat system is activated while flying?

Question #55 EPS-1.1 6.3.1 Page 6-3

A

X A. ___________________________None.

87
Q
  1. How is the command “Prepare to Bailout” passed?
    A. Four short rings on the command bell
    B. One long ring on the command bell of 10 seconds or longer
    C. Verbally
    D. Both A and C are correct
    Question #331 EPS-1.1 6.32 Page 6-37
A

X D. Both A and C are correct

88
Q
  1. In the event of an Immediate Ditch, each person shall take the ______ ditching station, but
    shall carry out the duties _____.
    A. Assigned, assigned during the brief
    B. Safest, assigned during the brief
    C. Nearest, assigned during the brief
    D. Nearest, for that station
    Question #486 EPS-1.1 6.19 Page 6-21
A

X C. Nearest, assigned during the brief

89
Q
  1. When not performing in-flight maintenance, the IFT will:
    A. Serve as a secondary MTS OP
    B. Sleep
    C. Monitor FORCEnet system health
    D. Serve as an observer
    Question #520 EPS-1.1 16.23.16.6 Page 16-44
A

X D. Serve as an observer

90
Q
  1. During a Fire of Unknown Origin, who activates the Port Overwing Exit light?
    A. Station 13
    B. Station 14
    C. Station 14A
    D. Station 15
    Question #442 EPS-1.1 FIG 6-1 Page 6-10
A

X B. Station 14

91
Q
  1. Once established on a published approach or are under ATC radar vectors, the NAV is no
    longer required to monitor the approach.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #266 EPS-1.1 16.23.5.9 Page 16-23
A

X B. False

92
Q
  1. The Main Load Center should not be entered in flight except in case of extreme emergency?
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #523 EPS-1.1 6.4 Page 6-3
A

X A. True

93
Q
  1. If the HF-2 antenna separates in flight:
    A. Pull the HF-2 circuit breaker.
    B. Secure HF-2.
    C. Abort the flight.
    D. All of the above.
    Question #528 EPS-1.1 6.33 Page 6-39
A

X D. All of the above.

94
Q
  1. The NAV/COMM’s HSI bearing pointer #2 indicates the bearing information selected by the:
    A. Pilot
    B. NAV/COMM
    C. Computer
    D. Copilot
    Question #142 EPS-1.1 10.6.2.2.3 Page 10-53
A

X B. NAV/COMM

95
Q
  1. The TAS system supplies airspeed values to the _____ .
    A. AN/ASN-179 INS
    B. AN/ARN-151 GPS
    C. AN/ARN-87 VOR
    D. ASW-31 AFCS
    Question #366 EPS-1.1 10.1.3 Page 10-9
A

X A. AN/ASN-179 INS

96
Q
  1. List all the information required in a MOSA update.

Question #159 EPS-1.1 16.3.4.2 Page 16-5

A

X A. __________________MOSA Altitude
X B. __________________Range/bearing to obstruction
X C. __________________Opening or closing the obstruction
X D. __________________Suitable safe heading

97
Q
  1. During a FOUO, with both Bus A and Bus B secured and a resultant loss of Main DC Bus,
    what stations will lose DCMS capability?
    A. All stations
    B. 5, 7-12 and 14-20
    C. 4, 5, 7-12 and 14-20
    D. 4-20
    Question #491 EPS-1.1 6.4.1 Page 6-4
A

X C. 4, 5, 7-12 and 14-20

98
Q
  1. In the NAV mode during flight, the INS may automatically enter the ATT REF mode. If this
    occurs, the Navigator should _____ .
    A. Turn the MSU to OFF
    B. Perform a rapid alignment
    C. Select ATT REF on the MSU
    D. Check TAS and MHRS inputs
    Question #427 EPS-1.1 10.1.5.2 Page 10-16
A

X C. Select ATT REF on the MSU

99
Q
  1. What is the first action you take if you discover a crack in a cabin observer window?
    A. Notify the flight station.
    B. Check to see if the inner or outer pane is cracked. If it’s the inner, no action is necessary
    but if it’s the outer, the area needs to be cleared.
    C. Descend to 10,000’ MSL.
    D. Immediately evacuate personnel from the area then notify flight station.
    Question #25 EPS-1.1 6.12 Page 6-19
A

X D. Immediately evacuate personnel from the area then notify flight station.

100
Q
  1. During a bailout, crewmembers should depart the aircraft in a quick, orderly fashion at ______
    intervals
    A. 1 second
    B. 5 second
    C. 10 second
    D. 1 minute
    Question #487 EPS-1.1 6.32 Page 6-37
A

X A. 1 second

101
Q
  1. Who is responsible for performing the DUCK load?
    A. SEVAL
    B. Maintenance
    C. EWOP
    D. IFT
    Question #519 EPS-1.1 16.23.16.3 Page 16-44
A

X D. IFT

102
Q
  1. In order to maximize signal strength, when transmitting or receiving on a PRC-90 survival
    radio, in which position should the antenna be maintained? (Assuming no aircraft are overhead)

Question #78 EPS-1.1 6.29.1.1 Page 6-32

A

X A. _______________________Vertical

103
Q
  1. If software control of the Story Teller RFD is not available, an override switch is located on the front of the each ST RFD WRA tray for manual operation.
    A.True
    B. False
    Question # 567 EPS-1.1 12.3.1.7 Page 12-7
A

X A.True

104
Q
  1. Attempt to locate, isolate and extinguish the fire or source of smoke/fumes prior to initiating
    smoke removal procedures.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #441 EPS-1.1 6.5 Page 6-13
A

X A. True

105
Q
  1. The MK-124 MOD-0 Marine Smoke and Illumination Distress Signal Flare (Day/Night Flare)
    case has two raised beads on one end. Which end of the Day/Night Flare is this?

Question #71 EPS-1.1 6.23 Page 6-29

A

X A. ________________________Night end.

106
Q
  1. How many solid state emergency oxygen packs (AVIOX) are located on the EP-3E?
    A. 3
    B. 18
    C. 21
    D. 24
    Question #471 EPS-1.1 6.8 Page 6-14
A

X B. 18

107
Q
  1. Liferafts not equipped with a Manual Reverse Osmosis Desalinator (MROD):
    A. Carry increased rations of bagged water.
    B. All rafts are equipped with an MROD
    C. Are not authorized on mission flights.
    D. No EP-3E rafts are equipped with an MROD.
    Question #524 EPS-1.1 6.27.2 Page 6-31
A

X A. Carry increased rations of bagged water.

108
Q
  1. Which radio is used in conjunction with the TCP RT-1273?
    A. HF-3
    B. HF-2
    C. UHF-5
    D. UHF-4
    Question #496 EPS-1.1 9.9.1 Page 9-38
A

X D. UHF-4

109
Q
  1. List the EP-3E ditching positions responsible for activating Emergency Exit lights during a

Question #263 EPS-1.1 FIG 6-1 Page 6-9/10/11

A

X A. _______________________12, 14, 20

110
Q
  1. Applying power to the AN/ARN-151 GPS in a hangar or in any other manner that may prevent
    signal reception may result in corruption of GPS receiver data in the Nonvolatile Memory
    (NVM), possibly causing navigation errors.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #411 EPS-1.1 10.2.4 Page 10-38
A

X A. True

111
Q
  1. The danger area for blast propelled rocks and dirt extends how many feet behind the aircraft ?
    A. 1000
    B. 1250
    C. 1500
    D. 1750
    Question #47 EPS-1.1 FIG 3-1 Page 3-3
A

X C. 1500

112
Q
  1. When operating below MOSA at a constant offset within one of the outer 5 nm regions, when
    is MOSA information recommended to be updated by the NAV/COMM?

Question #162 EPS-1.1 16.3.4.2 Page 16-5

A

X A. ___________________At every fix and DR interval.

113
Q
  1. List all of the factors to be considered when determining a CPA range to MOSA.

Question #160 EPS-1.1 16.23.5.7 Page 16-21

A

X A. ___________________Aircraft closure speed/turn radius
X B. ___________________Navigation error
X C. ___________________Surrounding lower terrain

114
Q
  1. What is indicated by the illumination of the amber BATT light on the AN/ASN-179 INS?
    A. Primary DC power is not within specified limits and the system has reverted to backup
    AC power.
    B. A system malfunction has been detected and NAV data is no longer available.
    C. The AN/ASN-179 INS does not have an amber BATT light
    D. Primary AC power is not within specified limits and the system has reverted to backup
    DC power.
    Question #422 EPS-1.1 FIG 10-2 Page 10-5
A

X D. Primary AC power is not within specified limits and the system has reverted to backup
DC power.

115
Q
  1. Antiexposure suits are required to be provided for flight personnel of naval aircraft when in the
    event of a mishap there would be a significant risk of water entry and which of the following
    conditions prevail?
  2. When water temperature is 50 degrees Fahrenheit or below.
  3. The outside air temperature is 32 degrees Fahrenheit or below (wind-chill corrected).
  4. If one is expected to be in the water for no more than two hours with a water temperature
    of 60 degrees Fahrenheit.
  5. When water temperature is between 50 and 60 degrees and the Commanding Officer finds
    them necessary due to limited availability of SAR assets.
  6. When water temperature is above 60 degrees for 50 minutes or more.

Question #73 3710.7 U 8.2.1.1 8.6

A

X A. ________________________1, 2, and 4.

116
Q
  1. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the use of the pencil-type projector
    personal Distress Signal Kit (MK-79 Mod 0 or MK-79 Mod 2)?

1) Screw the flare onto the launcher while keeping the flare pointed in a safe direction.
2) Consists of one pencil-type projector and seven projector flare cartridges.
3) The Distress Signal Kit is stowed in the flare gun pocket on the left side of the SV-2
survival vest.
4) Shall be stored, and loaded, in the cocked position.
5) If the smoke end flames, briefly immerse in water or tap against a solid, non-flammable

Question #5 EPS-1.1 6.22 Page 6-28

A

X A. _______________________2, 3, 4

117
Q
  1. Where is the VOR loop antenna located?
    A. Forward of the upper canoe
    B. Nose radome
    C. Aft of the lower canoe
    D. Vertical stabilizer
    Question #409 EPS-1.1 FIG 1-1/7-1 Page 1-3/7-2
A

X D. Vertical stabilizer

118
Q
  1. Bailout should be conducted with the aircraft circling to avoid widespread separation of
    crewmembers?
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #438 EPS-1.1 6.32 Page 6-36
A

X A. True

119
Q
  1. The aircraft commander shall ensure the emergency message is transmitted on the _____ if
    UHF or VHF communications are not possible.
    A. SATCOM radio
    B. HF radio
    C. Iridium phone
    D. IFF
    Question #550 EPS-1.1 6.4.1 Page 6-5
A

X B. HF radio

120
Q
  1. From the list of the following procedures, indicate the proper sequence of bailout procedures
    after leaving the aircraft.

1) Snap waist lobes together.
2) Execute options (VISOR, GLOVES, ETC.)
3) Inflate LPU
4) Pull ripcord.
5) Check for the deployment and the condition of the parachute canopy.

Question #2 EPS-1.1 6.32 Page 6-37

A

X A. _____________________4, 5, 3, 1, 2

121
Q
  1. Normal alignment of the AN/ASN-179 INS takes approximately _____ minutes.
    A. 1
    B. 4
    C. 15
    D. 20
    Question #410 EPS-1.1 10.1.4.2.1 Page 10-10
A

X B. 4

122
Q
  1. The EP-3E aircraft is equipped with _____ liferafts.
    A. Two 7-man and one 12-man
    B. Two 12-man
    C. Two 7-man
    D. One 7-man and one 12-man
    Question #324 EPS-1.1 6.26 Page 6-30
A

X B. Two 12-man

123
Q
  1. The portable oxygen bottle will provide 100-percent oxygen for approximately _____ minutes
    with the user experiencing little or no physical exertion.
    A. 15
    B. 20
    C. 22
    D. 25
    Question #469 EPS-1.1 6.7 Page 6-14
A

X C. 22

124
Q
  1. In the EP-3E aircraft, Condition II is titled _____ .
    A. High Altitude Flight
    B. Routine Flight
    C. Evasion/Rigging
    D. Battle Stations
    Question #363 EPS-1.1 16.2.2 Page 16-2
A

X B. Routine Flight

125
Q
  1. At which STS does the AN/ASN-179 INS perform an automatic test of system alignment?
    A. 10
    B. 50
    C. 60
    D. 70
    Question #424 EPS-1.1 10.1.5.1.1 Page 10-12
A

X C. 60

126
Q
  1. During operation of the MROD, it is important not to place the freshwater hose into the
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #75 EPS-1.1 6.28.2 Page 6-32
A

X A. True

127
Q
  1. If the Navigator TAS gauge is not functioning, what other readout gives true airspeed?
    A. INS by switching to WIND and RMT
    B. INS by switching to TK/GS and press HOLD
    C. ARN-151 GPS RNAV page
    D. ARN-151 GPS PROGRESS page 2
    Question #368 EPS-1.1 FIG 10-2 Page 10-3
A

X A. INS by switching to WIND and RMT

128
Q
  1. The PRC-90 survival radio can transmit on 243.0 MHz and 282.8 MHz simultaneously.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #435 EPS-1.1 6.29.1 Page 6-32
A

X B. False

129
Q
  1. When the AN/AIC-37 DCMS is inoperative, either AN/ARC-187 UHF radio may be monitored
    by plugging a standard ICS cord into the TEST jack on the front of the R/T unit.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #493 EPS-1.1 9.7.1 Page 9-29
A

X A. True

130
Q
  1. What is the frequency range of the AN/ARC-94 HF radio?
    A. 225.00-399.75 MHz
    B. 117.95-135.00 MHz
    C. 500-18000 MHz
    D. 2.000-29.999 MHz
    Question #369 EPS-1.1 9.5.1 Page 9-12
A

X D. 2.000-29.999 MHz

131
Q
  1. In the EP-3E, the SAR bar is stowed _____ .
    A. Under the forward starboard galley seat
    B. Under the port galley seat
    C. Aft of the galley dinette table
    D. Under the aft starboard galley seat
    Question #338 EPS-1.1 6.36 Page 6-41
A

X B. Under the port galley seat

132
Q
  1. Below what groundspeed will the INS ALERT indicator fail to illuminate?
    A. 75 kts
    B. 100 kts
    C. 125 kts
    D. 150 kts
    Question #418 EPS-1.1 10.1.5.6.6 Page 10-22
A

1X C. 125 kts

133
Q
  1. Unless otherwise designated, which crewmember shall ensure all equipment is securely
    fastened, crew is prepared for takeoff/landing and all external aircraft openings are closed?
    A. SEVAL
    B. IFT
    C. EWAC
    D. SECURE COMM
    Question #334 EPS-1.1 16.2.5 Page 16-3
A

X A. SEVAL

134
Q
  1. During an emergency involving an aircraft wheel/brake fire, which area around the aircraft do
    you want to avoid?
    A. Forward
    B. Aft
    C. Abeam
    D. All the above
    Question #121 EPS-1.1 6.34 Page 6-40
A

X C. Abeam

135
Q
  1. What is the range of frequencies used by the AN/ARN-87 VOR for navigation?
    A. 108.0-151.975 MHz
    B. 108.0-117.95 MHz
    C. 2.000-29.999 MHz
    D. 225.0-399.95 MHz
    Question #408 EPS-1.1 10.3.1 Page 10-44
A

X B. 108.0-117.95 MHz

136
Q
  1. A flashing WARN light on the AN/ASN-179 INS indicates _____ .
    A. INS has switched over to backup 28-volt DC power
    B. WARN light will never flash
    C. System degradation
    D. System malfunction has occurred and NAV data no longer available
    Question #417 EPS-1.1 FIG 10-2 Page 10-5
A

X C. System degradation

137
Q
  1. What are the operating limits of the TAS System?
    A. 50-500 kts
    B. 50-470 kts
    C. 70-550 kts
    D. 70-450 kts
    Question #420 EPS-1.1 10.1.2.8 Page 10-6
A

X D. 70-450 kts

138
Q
  1. During Condition IV in the EP-3E, the pre-designated crewmember will leave his/her ditching
    station, don their helmet, visor down, and inspect what areas of the aircraft?
    A. Equipment racks (for equipment security), doppler well, hydraulic service center and main
    load center.
    B. High-band antenna area, doppler well, main load center, hydraulic service center and
    visible external surfaces of the aircraft.
    C. Hydraulic service center, main load center, windows and rack overheat lights
    D. Doppler well, galley, main load center and visible surfaces of the engines
    Question #336 EPS-1.1 16.2.4 Page 16-2
A

X B. High-band antenna area, doppler well, main load center, hydraulic service center and
visible external surfaces of the aircraft.

139
Q
  1. Scheduled flights of 6 cumulative hours duration or longer require a minimum of:
    A. 12 hours crew rest prior to preflight
    B. 12 hours crew rest prior to takeoff
    C. 8 hours crew rest prior to preflight
    D. 8 hours crew rest prior to takeoff
    Question #530 EPS-1.1 5.11 Page 5-10
A

X A. 12 hours crew rest prior to preflight

140
Q
  1. Personnel are to be kept clear from the vicinity of the engines during engine starts and run-up.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #50 EPS-1.1 3.2.3 Page 3-2
A

X A. True

141
Q
  1. Once the APU has been started and electrical power is ON, the operator is required to ensure
    positive radio contact (e.g., radio check with maintenance).
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #467 EPS-1.1 5.5.3 Page 5-5
A

X A. True

142
Q
  1. Per OPNAVINST 3710.7 series, the AN/ARN-151 GPS is a suitable external fixing source in
    _____ only.
    A. Overwater
    B. Daylight
    C. VMC
    D. IMC
    Question #362 EPS-1.1 10.2.1 Page 10-31
A

X C. VMC

143
Q
  1. Personnel approaching the _____ intake when ground air conditioning is on shall ensure the air
    intake does not become obstructed.
    A. APU
    B. APS-134
    C. Cabin Exhaust Fan
    D. Air Flow Multiplier
    Question #502 EPS-1.1 5.5.2.1 Page 5-3
A

X D. Air Flow Multiplier

144
Q
  1. The word “Will,” when used in NATOPS, indicates _____ .
    A. a procedure is optional
    B. a procedure is required
    C. a procedure is recommended
    D. futurity
    Question #328 EPS-1.1 N/A Page 54
A

X D. futurity

145
Q
  1. When opening an emergency hatch in-flight, ______ .
    A. Ensure aircraft is rigged for Condition I
    B. Loose gear should be stored in the head
    C. Keep hands clear of hatch, it may reseat prematurely
    D. Ensure smoke removal door in flight station is open
    Question #358 EPS-1.1 6.5 Page 6-14
A

X C. Keep hands clear of hatch, it may reseat prematurely

146
Q
  1. What is the normal in-flight alignment time for the AN/ASN-179 INS?
    A. 30 seconds
    B. 85 seconds
    C. 4 minutes
    D. 17 minutes
    Question #421 EPS-1.1 10.1.4.2.4 Page 10-11
A

X B. 85 seconds

147
Q
  1. In the attitude reference mode of operation, the AN/ASN-179 INS provides only _____
    information.
    A. Heading, wind and pitch
    B. Pitch, roll and platform heading
    C. Heading, wind and roll
    D. None of the above
    Question #367 EPS-1.1 10.1.5.2 Page 10-16
A

X B. Pitch, roll and platform heading

148
Q
  1. Who is responsible for checking the starboard water breakers during preflight?
    A. EWOP
    B. MTS Operator
    C. LABOP
    D. Both B & C
    Question #515 EPS-1.1 16.23.8.3 Page 16-27
A

X C. LABOP

149
Q
  1. If oxygen is needed for first aid, the _____ should be utilized.
    A. Emergency escape breathing devices
    B. Flight station oxygen system
    C. Solid state emergency oxygen packs
    D. Portable oxygen bottles
    Question #439 EPS-1.1 6.8 Page 6-14
A

X D. Portable oxygen bottles

150
Q
  1. An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury or death, if not
    carefully observed or followed is referred to as a ______________ in NATOPS.

Question #28 EPS-1.1 N/A Page 53

A

X A. ____________________Warning

151
Q
  1. The minimum recommended altitude for an emergency bailout is _____________ft. Bailout
    should not be attempted below _____________ft.

Question #4 EPS-1.1 6.32 Page 6-37

A

X A. ___________________3000’
X B. ___________________1000’

152
Q
  1. The Story Teller RFD defaults to LOS without STORY TELLER software loaded.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #556 EPS-1.1 9.7.4.3 Page 9-35
A

X A. True

153
Q
  1. The AN/ASN-179 INS will automatically enter closed loop update mode at STS 70 if the
    AN/ARN-151 GPS is installed and turned on.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #413 EPS-1.1 10.1.4.2.1 Page 10-10
A

X A. True

154
Q
  1. Which of the following is a receive only radio on the EP-3E?
    A. HF-4
    B. UHF-5
    C. HF-1
    D. UHF-4
    Question #509 EPS-1.1 7.3 Page 7-1
A

X A. HF-4

155
Q
  1. Time permitting, the LPU should be worn on the _____ of the anti-exposure suit.
    A. Inside
    B. Outside
    C. Flipside
    D. Right side
    Question #465 EPS-1.1 6.25 Page 6-30
A

X B. Outside

156
Q
  1. Headset or helmets connected to the ICS shall be worn during Condition I aboard the EP-3E.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #463 EPS-1.1 16.2.1 Page 16-2
A

X A. True

157
Q
  1. Which EP-3E ditching stations are assigned to raft #1? Circle the station responsible for
    launching the raft. Underline the stations responsible for obtaining water containers.

Question #84 EPS-1.1 FIG 6-1 Page 6-7/8/9

A

X A. 14 14A [15] 16 17 18 19 _20_ _21_ _22_ 23 24

158
Q
  1. Upon stowing the portable oxygen bottle, ensure that the supply valve is closed and residual
    oxygen in the regulator has been bled off.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #234 EPS-1.1 5.7 Page 5-9
A

X A. True

159
Q
  1. A combination of insert and circumaural type hearing devices (double protection) shall be worn
    in all areas where noise levels exceed 104 dB sound level. This level is found in the proximity
    of a P-3 with an operating APU.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #365 EPS-1.1 FIG 3-1 Page 3-3
A

X A. True

160
Q
  1. A portable oxygen bottle is stowed at each of the crew stations.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #10 EPS-1.1 6.7 Page 6-14
A

X B. False

161
Q
  1. Use of transmitting equipment during fueling operations should be avoided, as any RF
    transmission is a potential source of fuel ignition.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #45 EPS-1.1 3.1 Page 3-1
A

X A. True

162
Q
  1. What is the primary navigation source for oceanic, enroute, and due regard operations?

Question #150 EPS-1.1 10.1.1 Page 10-1

A

X A. _________________________INS

163
Q
  1. In the event of an Immediate Ditch, one long ring on the command bell is used in place of an
    ICS PA alert to announce intent to ditch.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #477 EPS-1.1 6.19 Page 6-21
A

X B. False

164
Q
  1. During EMCON conditions or operational missions, the use of radar shall always be at the discretion
    of the EWAC, as this is a safety of flight concern.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #231 EPS-1.1 16.3.4.3 Page 16-6
A

X B. False

165
Q
  1. Prior to a ditch and time permitting, which station is responsible for ensuring that there is no
    loose equipment at stations 1 through 12 and crewmembers are prepared to ditch?
    A. Station 1
    B. Station 11
    C. Station 12
    D. Station 13
    Question #431 EPS-1.1 FIG 6-1 Page 6-9
A

X C. Station 12

166
Q
  1. When the CPA range is reached, while operating under MOSA, what is the NAV/COMM
    required to do?

Question #161 EPS-1.1 16.23.5.7 Page 16-21

A

X A. ____________Announce safe heading and MOSA.
X B. ____________Ensure flight immediately turns and climbs above MOSA.

167
Q
  1. An ES DUCK load for the AN/AIC-37 DCMS may be performed from which stations?
    A. 1 and 14
    B. 1, 12 and 14
    C. 1 and 12
    D. 1, 13 and 14
    Question #542-1 EPS-1.1 9.2.2.6 Page 9-5
A

X C. 1 and 12

168
Q
  1. The liferaft shall be removed from its carrying case prior to launching.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #551 EPS-1.1 6.26.1 Page 6-30
A

X B. False

169
Q
  1. Not including liferafts aboard, the EP-3E aircraft is equipped with _____ first aid kit(s).
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    Question #337 EPS-1.1 6.28 Page 6-32
A

X B. 2

170
Q
  1. What circuit breakers need to be pulled when using the PTT buttons on B-rack to load crypto
    with a SATCOM batwing antenna selected?
    A. ARC-187 #1 RT and Fan
    B. SATCOM Diplexer #1 and #2
    C. KY-58 #2
    D. All of the above
    Question #445 EPS-1.1 9.7.4.1 Page 9-34
A

X B. SATCOM Diplexer #1 and #2

171
Q
  1. Fill in the blanks to complete the following statement. Crewmembers and passengers shall
    wear a life vest __________ when below __________ feet over water or when the ______
    deems it necessary.

Question #65 EPS-1.1 6.20 Page 6-26

A

X A. ____________________At all times.
X B. ____________________1000
X C. ____________________EWAC

172
Q
  1. Upon pulling the liferaft actuation handle on the liferaft, the raft will inflate and be removed
    from its carrying case automatically.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #494 EPS-1.1 6.26.1 Page 6-30
A

X A. True

173
Q
  1. The loss of radar while operating below MOSA:
    A. requires an immediate abort of the mission.
    B. requires an immediate turn and climb call from BIGLOOK.
    C. should not constitute navigation system failure if an external fixing source can provide an
    accurate aircraft position.
    D. should not constitute navigation system failure if you have two inertials in NAV mode.
    Question #156 EPS-1.1 16.3.4.3 Page 16-6
A

X C. should not constitute navigation system failure if an external fixing source can provide an
accurate aircraft position.

174
Q
  1. The portable oxygen bottle and smoke mask shall be stowed:
    A. On your face
    B. Wherever they fit
    C. Coupled
    D. Separated
    Question #529 EPS-1.1 5.7 Page 5-8
A

X C. Coupled

175
Q
  1. Which of the following radios cannot transmit in secure voice mode?
    A. HF-2
    B. UHF/VHF-1
    C. HF-1
    D. UHF-4
    Question #539 EPS-1.1 9.6.2.5 Page 9-23
A

X C. HF-1

176
Q
  1. As per NATOPS, which EP-3E JCC stations can transmit on EM/PA via AN/AIC-37 DCMS
    and a standard DUCK load?
    A. 1, 13
    B. 1, 2, 12, 13
    C. 1, 2
    D. 1, 2, 13
    Question #388 EPS-1.1 FIG 9-3 Page 9-4
A

X D. 1, 2, 13

177
Q
  1. When using the AN/ARC-94 HF radio, if a continuous transmission for _____ minutes is
    made, the transmitter must be allowed to cool for _____ minutes prior to making subsequent
    transmissions.
    A. 5; 3
    B. 5; 10
    C. 3; 5
    D. 5; 5
    Question #364 EPS-1.1 9.5.4 Page 9-16
A

X D. 5; 5

178
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the seven CRM behavioral skills?
    A. Assertiveness
    B. Leadership
    C. Mission Completion
    D. Communication
    Question #531 EPS-1.1 16.1.1 Page 16-1
A

X C. Mission Completion

179
Q
  1. Who is responsible for debriefing maintenance control on the status of avionics equipment and
    ensuring all discrepancies and maintenance evolutions are properly documented?
    A. IFT
    B. EWMC
    C. EWAC
    D. SEVAL
    Question #521 EPS-1.1 16.23.16.11 Page 16-45
A

X A. IFT

180
Q
  1. Do not use the TONE button on the AN/ARC-187 UHF radio with a(n) _____ antenna selected
    and with the diplexer circuit breakers energized.
    A. ALD-9
    B. HF Wire
    C. LOS
    D. SATCOM
    Question #554 EPS-1.1 9.7.4.1 Page 9-34
A

X D. SATCOM

181
Q
  1. Selecting _____ on the compass controller enables the compass coupler to stabilize signals
    supplied by the flux valve with the platform heading output from the INU.
    A. Set HDG
    B. DG
    C. Slaved
    D. Null
    Question #425 EPS-1.1 10.1.2.5 Page 10-6
A

X C. Slaved

182
Q
  1. The EP-3E aircraft is equipped with _____ emergency exit lights.
    A. 3
    B. 4
    C. 5
    D. 6
    Question #326 EPS-1.1 6.17 Page 6-20
A

X B. 4

183
Q
  1. What indications are received during an APU fire on the ground?
    A. Flight station APU warning lights glow; flight station and cabin APU/Engine Fire Warning Horn sounds
    B. APU/Engine Fire Warning Horn will sound in the flight station only.
    C. APU/Engine Fire Warning Horn will sound in nose wheel-well.
    D. Flight station APU warning lights glow; nose wheel-well APU/Engine Fire Warning Horn sounds.

Question # 349 EPS-1.1 6.2 Page 6-2

A

X A. Flight station APU warning lights glow; flight station and cabin APU/Engine Fire Warning Horn sounds

184
Q
  1. A minimum of _____ satellites are required to provide a valid three dimensional “NAV”
    A. 1
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 5
    Question #414 EPS-1.1 10.2.4 Page 10-39
A

X C. 4

185
Q
  1. Concerning the Rack Overheat system on the ground, if the rack overheat light illuminates on a
    single rack, activating the RESET switch at the rack will prevent the nose wheel well horn
    from sounding.
    A. True
    B. False
    Question #329 EPS-1.1 6.3.1 Page 6-3
A

X A. True

186
Q
  1. Prior to a ditch and time permitting, which station is responsible for ensuring no loose
    equipment at stations 13 through 24 and crewmembers are prepared to ditch.
    A. Station 8
    B. Station 12
    C. Station 13
    D. Off-duty FE
    Question #357 EPS-1.1 FIG 6-1 Page 6-10
A

X C. Station 13

187
Q
  1. What is Minimum Operational Safe Altitude (MOSA) defined as?

Question #158 EPS-1.1 16.3.4 Page 16-4

A

X A. __________________1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 30 nm of the aircraft.

188
Q
  1. Do not use the _____ buttons on the rack B to load crypto with a batwing antenna selected and
    the diplexer circuit breakers energized.
    A. PTT
    B. Tone
    C. Little
    D. Acknowledge
    Question #555 EPS-1.1 9.7.4.1 Page 9-35
A

X A. PTT

189
Q
  1. After a bailout, raise the helmet visor if _____ .
    A. Over land
    B. Over water
    C. Over hill
    D. Over dale
    Question #481 EPS-1.1 6.32 Page 6-39
A

X B. Over water

190
Q
  1. Caution should be exercised prior to setting Condition _____ in high-density traffic areas.
    A. I
    B. II
    C. III
    D. IV
    Question #571 EPS-1.1 16.2.3 Page 16-2
A

X C. III

191
Q
  1. Select the best answer that represents the time of oxygen available for a person performing
    moderate work and using a portable oxygen bottle.
    A. Approximately 3 minutes.
    B. Approximately 22 minutes.
    C. Approximately 5-10 minutes.
    D. Approximately 3-5 minutes.
    Question #21 EPS-1.1 6.7 Page 6-14
A

X C. Approximately 5-10 minutes.

192
Q
  1. The SAR bar should be inserted into the _____ set of holes to provide maximum safety.
    A. Lower
    B. Middle
    C. Upper
    D. NATOPS does not specify
    Question #327 EPS-1.1 6.36 Page 6-41
A

X B. Middle

193
Q
  1. What is the frequency range of the ARC-243 (V) HF radio?
    A. 500-18000 MHz
    B. 225.00-399.75 MHz
    C. 117.95-135.00 MHz
    D. 2.000-29.999 MHz
    Question # 589 EPS-1.1 9.6.1 Page 9-12
A

X D. 2.000-29.999 MHz

194
Q
  1. Which is not an alignment mode for the RINU-G?
    A. Gyro Compass (GC)
    B. Rapid alignment
    C. In-Flight alignment (air)
    D. All of the above
    CLOSEDnav Question # 629 EPS-1.1 10.7.4.3 Page 10-67
A

X B. Rapid alignment

195
Q
  1. How long will a RINU-G in-flight alignment take?
    A. 85 seconds
    B. 4.1 minutes
    C. 10 minutes
    D. none of the above
    CLOSEDnav Question # 630 EPS-1.1 10.7.5.2 Page 10-70
A

X C. 10 minutes

196
Q
  1. In CNS/ATM modified aircraft, MHRS magnetic heading is only available in VOR 1, VOR 2, or TACAN course modes.
    A. True
    B. False
    CLOSEDnav Question # 614 EPS-1.1 10.7.2.9 Page 10-65
A

X A. True

197
Q
  1. If FMS date and time do not update automatically, it will be necessary to load GPS keys.
    A. True
    B. False
    CLOSEDnav Question # 633 EPS-1.1 10.7.5.3 Page 10-71
A

X A. True

198
Q
  1. If a “check” INU Mode message is displayed in the scratchpad or the RINU-G transitions to an uncommanded ATTITUDE mode, return to step 1 and reattempt another In Flight Alignment.
    A. True
    B. False
    CLOSEDnav Question # 632 EPS-1.1 10.7.5.2 Page 10-71
A

X A. True

199
Q
  1. Both HF sets must be on in order to prevent damage while transmitting. If both sets are operated simultaneously in the same mode, select tuning frequencies at least ___ kHz apart to prevent damage to equipment.

CLOSEDnav Question # 209 EPS-1.1 9.5.2.6 Page 9-15

A

X A. 20

200
Q
  1. In CNS/ATM when in an uncommanded ATTITUDE mode, attitude and heading may not be available. If uncommanded attitude condition persists for more than a minute, the operator shall cycle power and attempt another IFA or manually select attitude reference (ATTITUDE mode).
    A. True
    B. False
    CLOSEDnav Question # 631 EPS-1.1 10.7.5.2 Page 10-70
A

X A. True

201
Q
  1. Upon receipt of an ATC SELCAL, lower squelch to ____ to reply.
    A. 0
    B. 2
    C. 5
    D. 7
    CLOSEDnav Question # 595 EPS-1.1 9.6.5.1 Page 9.28
A

X A. 0

202
Q
  1. When entering flight plan on CDU, if airways are not entered or specified they will be calculated for the shortest airway route between waypoints.
    A. True
    B. False
    CLOSEDnav Question # 636 EPS-1.1 10.8.4.2 Page 10-87
A

X B. False

203
Q
  1. If a navigation caution, warning, or NO RAIM annunciation occurs on CDU, notify ATC and discontinue use of FMS as a means of navigation.
    A. True
    B. False
    CLOSEDnav Question # 635 EPS-1.1 10.8.3.5.1 Page 10-83
A

X A. True

204
Q
  1. A manually entered RNP value will inhibit automatic RNP scaling. This will prevent the CDI from providing proper deflection in all subsequent phases of flight. Navigational errors outside of safe parameters may occur.
    A. True
    B. False
    CLOSEDnav Question # 634 EPS-1.1 10.8.3.4 Page 10-83
A

X A. True

205
Q
  1. What will the GPS days in CNSATM GPS SA/AS indicate when red keys are loaded?
    A. 0 days
    B. 1 days
    C. 2 days
    D. 3 days
    CLOSEDnav Question # 615 EPS-1.1 10.7.2.4.5 Page 10-63
A

X B. 1 days

206
Q
  1. Which of the following is not part of the minimum survival equipment for the AIRSAVE:
    A. Whistle
    B. Pen light
    C. Compass
    D. Shroud line cutter
    CLOSEDnav Question # 610 EPS-1.1 6.21.1 Page 6-28
A

X B. Pen light

207
Q
  1. What does the CDU “GPS KEY” ALERT indicate?
    A. Mission duration is expected to exceed the GPS Keys duration
    B. GPS keys are expired
    C. Keys will expire in 2 hours
    D. Turn on Y-mode
    CLOSEDnav Question # 628 EPS-1.1 10.7.2.4.5 Page 10-63
A

X C. Keys will expire in 2 hours

208
Q
  1. The Solid-State Emergency Oxygen Pack contains a chemical oxygen generator that provides constant oxygen flow for approximately _____minutes.
    A. 5-10 minutes
    B. 20 minutes
    C. 22 minutes
    D. 15 minutes
    CLOSEDnav Question # 623 EPS-1.1 6.8 Page 6-14
A

X B. 20 minutes

209
Q
  1. According to the FOUO Checklist, when Bus A is secured the following will be inoperative:
    A. Most tactical lighting
    B. INS
    C. Mission essential equipment if not properly secured prior to Bus A shutdown
    D. Both A & C
    CLOSEDnav Question # 624 EPS-1.1 6.4.1 Page 6-4
A

X D. Both A & C

210
Q
  1. Which of the following duties are assigned to Crew Station 12 (Tactical Evaluator) during a ditch? (Check all that apply)
    A.After stop, launch No. 1 liferaft, exit overwing on port side; board No. 1 liferaft
    B.Activate starboard overwing exit light; take seat, adjust seatbelt.
    C.Time permitting, ensure no loose equipment at stations 1-12.
    D.After stop, launch No. 2 liferaft, exit overwing on starboard side; board No. 2 liferaft.
    CLOSEDnav Question # 625 EPS-1.1 Figure 6-1 Page 6-9
A

X B.Activate starboard overwing exit light; take seat, adjust seatbelt.
X C.Time permitting, ensure no loose equipment at stations 1-12.
X D.After stop, launch No. 2 liferaft, exit overwing on starboard side; board No. 2 liferaft.

211
Q

237 . HF Dogleg Antennas shall be checked at feet wet/dry.
A. True
B. False
CLOSEDnav Question #xx5 VQ-1 Stan Notes Page 4

A

A. True*

212
Q
  1. All flights leaving the local area (to include reposition flights) shall notify the SDO upon landing at all intermediate airfields and the final destination by telephone.
    A. True
    B. False
    CLOSEDnav Question #xx6 VQ-1 Stan Notes Page 3
A

A. True*

NATOPS (3 decks)

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