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EASA PPL > OP > Flashcards

OP Flashcards

1
Q

What is ICOA definition of aerial work?

A

Any aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialised services such as
agriculture, construction, surveying, observation and patrol, search and rescue, aerial
advertisement, etc.

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2
Q

Taxiway marking should indicate:

A

Taxiway edges, centerlines, holding points

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3
Q

What is operational manual?

A

A manual containing procedures, instruction and guidance for use operational personal
in the execution of their duties.

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4
Q

Which of the following statement is correct regarding operation on contaminated runway?

A

Operation by all aircraft classes and types should be avoided whenever possible

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5
Q

You observe green flare fired from an aeroplane on approach to land at night. What does
this indicate?

A

May I land

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6
Q

What is the definition of large aeroplane?

A

Mass exceeds 5700 kg

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7
Q

A flashing green light signal to an aeroplane on the ground means

A

Cleared to taxi to maneuvering area

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8
Q

What is the definition of the pilot-in-command?

A

The pilot designated by the operator or the owner as being pilot-in-command and
charged with the safe conduct of flight

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9
Q

With regard to the noise certificate issued to an aeroplane

A

It remains valid unless engine or airframe is modified

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10
Q

What type of distress call should be made in the event of fire?

A

MAYDAY

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11
Q

How can the pilot in command signal that he/she is complied to land to ATSU (without using
a radio or transponder)?

A

Flashing land or navigation light

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12
Q

What is the definition of the operator?

A

The person or organisation or enterprise engaged in, or offering to engage in an aircraft
operation

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13
Q

How is the direction of take-off and landing identified when a white ‘T’ is shown in the signal
square?

A

Aeroplane and glider taking off or landing shall do so parallel do so parallel with the
shaft of the ‘T’ and toward the cross arm, unless otherwise authorised by appropriate
ATC units.

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14
Q

What is the main cause of an engine fire upon start

A

Over priming

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15
Q

What piece of equipment should be carried on board a single engine aircraft flying beyond
gliding distance from land?

A

Life jacket or flotation aid for each occupant

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16
Q

Where will the emergency descent (if any) be described?

A

In the AFM/POH

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17
Q

Where would you find Noise Abatement Procedure for a licensed airfield?

A

in the airfield AIP

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17
Q

The main effect of windshear can be:

A

Turbulence,
updraught/down-draught &
sudden increase/decrease in airspeed and
groundspeed

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18
Q

Wing vortices will be weakest when:

A

Lightweight aircraft flying at a normal cruise speed and configured

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18
Q

What is the scenario from the answer below, is likely to create the largest amount of wake
turbulence

A

Large airplane flying slowly, light winds, flaps retracted

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18
Q

What is the emergency transponder code?

A

7700

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19
Q

In a ditching scenario, the pilot should instruct passenger to don life jackets and inflate
them:

A

Outside the aircraft

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20
Q

How is “landing prohibited” identified in a signal square?

A

Red square with a diagonal yellow cross

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21
Q

ATC report to you that the runway is ‘FLOODED’, this means that:

A

extensive patches of standing water is visible

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22
Q

ATC report to you the runway is ‘WET’, is the runway contaminated?

A

NO

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23
Q

Under ICAO regulation what colour should taxi markings be shown in:

A

Yellow

23
Q

During an approach, the aircraft is subjected to a windshear with a decease headwind
component; without pilot intervention the aircraft:

A

Rate of descent increase, indicates airspeed decrease

24
Q

You are approach to land and ATC transmits a steady red signal, what does this signify?

A

Do not land. Give way. Continue circling

25
Q

You experience windshear on approach to an airfield in the UK, what should you do?

A

. Inform ATC once safety on the ground and submit a MOR to the UK CAA

26
Q

After take-off an aircraft is subject to windshear with an increasing tailwind component; in
the absence of pilot intervention:

A

Rate if climb decrease. Indicated airspeed decreases

27
Q

What is the definition of night?

A

The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, or such other period between sunset and sunrise, as
may be prescribed by the appropriate authority.

28
Q

What is the definition of Flight Time — aeroplanes?

A

The total time from the moment an aeroplane first moves for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the
flight.

29
Q

What is a flight manual?

A

A manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations within which the aircraft is to be considered airworthy, and
instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the aircraft.

30
Q

What is an operations manual?

A

A manual containing procedures, instructions and guidance for use by operational personnel in the execution of their duties.

31
Q

What is a safety management system?

A

A systematic approach to managing safety, including the necessary organisational structures, accountabilities, policies, and procedures

32
Q

What is the state of registry?

A

The State on whose register the aircraft is entered.

33
Q

. Can the CAA prosecute a pilot for breaking an airfield’s Noise Abatement Procedures?

A

No, the CAA can only prosecute a pilot for breaking the ANO and Rules of the Air.

33
Q

What is the minimum equipment under ICAO required to be fitted and serviceable for a VFR flight to commence?

A

Magnetic Compass, Timepiece, Altimeter, Airspeed Indicator & additional equipment as mandated by National Aviation Authority

34
Q

The position of runway holding points ensures:

A

That a safe gap exists between the aircraft holding and any aircraft that may pass in front of it.

35
Q

If in doubt about the correct route to follow whilst taxiing the pilot should:

A

Bring the aircraft to a stop, inform ATC, and ask for clarification.

36
Q

What is the correct phraseology for the issue of a take-off clearance?

A

G-CD, cleared for take-off. Pilot: Cleared for take-off, G-CD.

36
Q

Should a clearance limit be written down?

A

Yes

37
Q

What is the colour of runway Stop Bars and Guard Lights respectively?

A

Red and yellow

38
Q

A red and yellow striped arrow bent through 90 degrees around the edge of the signals area square and pointing in a clock wise
direction means:

A

Right hand circuit pattern is in force

39
Q

You suffer rough running during climb out from an aerodrome with a published noise abatement procedure, what is the appropriate
action:

A

c. Fly the aircraft & ignore the noise procedure - noise abatement procedures do not apply to an aeroplane in an emergency.

40
Q

What is the authoritative document on handling emergencies?

A

Aircraft manual or the POH

41
Q

What is the first action after suspecting or detecting a carburettor fire?

A

Continue to turn the engine over, and then proceed with the checklist.

42
Q

How many fire classifications are there?

A

4

43
Q

What is a Class A fire?

A

Solids

44
Q

What is a Class B fire?

A

Flammable liquids

45
Q

What is a Class C fire?

A

Electrical

46
Q

What is a Class D fire?

A

Metals

47
Q

What is the most common extinguishing agent used in light aircraft?

A

Halon

48
Q

What are the two main toxic gases within smoke?

A

Carbon monoxide and cyanide

49
Q

What is the purpose of a CO detector?

A

To detect carbon monoxide in the cabin

50
Q

What could you do to limit the amount of toxic gases entering your lungs, if you don’t have an Oxygen mask?

A

Cover your nose and mouth with a damp cloth

51
Q

Why are dry powder fire extinguishers not suitable for use in an aeroplane?

A

The residue left can obscure instruments and controls.

52
Q

. If you see a Thunderstorm overhead the destination airfield, the safest course of action is to:

A

Hold well clear of the Thunderstorm area, and if necessary divert to a suitable airfield in better weather

53
Q

Windshear can be best described by:

A

A sudden change of wind velocity and/or direction

54
Q

“Windshear along the final approach path prior to landing, along the runway and along the take-off/initial climb-out flightpath”
describes which type of windshear:

A

Windshear below 3000 agl

55
Q

A light aircraft following an Airbus A380 requires a minimum separation of how many nautical miles?

A

8 NM

56
Q

In which of the following scenarios could a wake turbulence encounter occur?

A

Landing on a crossing runway after another aircraft rotated prior to the intersection.

57
Q

A runway is said to be contaminated if it:

A

Has ice covering more than 25% of the runway surface area within the required width and length

58
Q

With regard to contaminated runway operations which of the following statements is true?

A

Both departure and arrival on a contaminated runway by any aircraft should be avoided if possible

EASA PPL (6 decks)

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