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1
Q

what does this describe histologically?

appearance of intradepidermal vesicles and spongiosis

A

dermatitis

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2
Q

what does this describe histologically?

parakeratosis and micro-abscesses

A

psoriasis

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3
Q

what does this describe histologically?

fluid filled bulla, +/- split through DEJ

A

bullous

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4
Q

what is the enzyme defect and build up of enzyme in PCT?

A

defect: uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

build up: uroporphyrinogen

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5
Q

what is the enzyme defect and build up in EP?

A

defect: ferrocheletase

build up: protoporphyrins

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6
Q

what is the enzyme defect and build up in AIP?

A

defect: PBG deaminase

build up: porphyrins

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7
Q

first line treatment for acne rosacea

A

topical metronidazole

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8
Q

first line treatment for acne vulgaris

A

benzyl peroxide/topical clindamycin

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9
Q

which insulin do you give once a day?

A

basal bolus = long acting e.g Lantus/ Levemir

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10
Q

what diabetic drugs are weight neutral?

A

DPP4 inhibitors; GLIPTINS

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11
Q

name some rapid acting insulin

A

humalog, novorapid, apidra

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12
Q

name some short acting insulin

A

humulin S, actarapid, insuman rapid

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13
Q

name some intermediate acting insulin

A

insulatard, humulin I, insuman basal

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14
Q

name some long acting insulin

A

lantus, levemir

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15
Q

which diabetic drug helps weight loss

A

metformin, incretin analogues (modest weight loss), SGLT2 inhibitors

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16
Q

which diabetic drugs cause weight gain

A

sulphonylureas, TZDs

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17
Q

which diabetic drugs help prevent macrovascular complications

A

TZDs

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18
Q

what diabetic drugs help with microvascular complications

A

Sulfonylureas

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19
Q

which diabetic drug helps with both macro and micro complications

A

Metformin

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20
Q

biochem results in Pagets

A

normal Ca + phosphate, high ALP

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21
Q

which drug causes reactivation of latent TB

A

TNF alpha inhibitors

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22
Q

what nerve is compressed in cubital tunnel syndrome?

A

ulnar

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23
Q

what DMARD causes interstitial pneumonitis

A

Methotrexate

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24
Q

what rheum drugs are nephrotoxic?

A

gold, penicillamine

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25
Q

what vaccinations at 2 months?

A

5in1, men b, PCV, rotavirus

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26
Q

what vaccinations at 3 months

A

5in1, men c, rotavirus

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27
Q

what vaccinations at 4 months

A

5 in 1, men b, PCV

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28
Q

what vaccinations at 1 year

A

Hib, Men C, PCV, MMR, men b

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29
Q

what vaccinations 2-11 years

A

flu, 5in1, MMR

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30
Q

what does the 5 in 1 vaccine contain

A

diptheria, Hib, polio, pertussis, tetanus

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31
Q

what vaccines are live attenuated

A

MMR, polio

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32
Q

what vaccines are inactivated

A

pertussis

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33
Q

what vaccines still have components of virus in them

A

influenza, pneumococcal, diptheria, tetanus

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34
Q

describe gross motor skill at 6 weeks

A

head held in vertical

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35
Q

describe gross motor skill at 6 months

A

can roll from stomach to back, push up with arms and weight bear

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36
Q

describe gross motor skill at 12 months

A

can cruise around furniture

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37
Q

describe gross motor at 2 years

A

can do stairs with both feet

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38
Q

describe gross motor at 4 years

A

runs, hops

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39
Q

describe fine motor at 6 weeks

A

follows torch

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40
Q

describe fine motor at 6 months

A

moves objects from hand to hand, palmar grasp

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41
Q

describe fine motor at 12 months

A

neat pincer grip

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42
Q

describe fine motor at 2 years

A

6/7 block tower, can draw circle

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43
Q

describe fine motor at 4 years

A

can thread beads, draw cross/man

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44
Q

describe language at 6 weeks

A

stills to voice

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45
Q

describe language at 6 months

A

babbles (mono)

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46
Q

describe language at 12 months

A

knows own name

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47
Q

describe language at 2 years

A

knows 50+ words, can follow instructions

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48
Q

describe language at 4 years

A

stories, sentences and can count to 20

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49
Q

describe social at 6 weeks

A

social smile

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50
Q

describe social at 6 months

A

still friendly with strangers

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51
Q

describe social at 12 months

A

drinks from cup, waves bye bye

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52
Q

describe social at 2 years

A

hat, shoes, symbolic play

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53
Q

describe social at 4 years

A

can dress themselves

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54
Q

define attachment

A

psychological model to describe dynamics of relationships

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55
Q

what attachment is this describing?

child readily explores, uses carer as a secure base, confident

A

secure attachment

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56
Q

anxious attachment description?

A

child avoids or ignores parent, strangers not treated much differently from parent

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57
Q

anxious ambivalent description

A

wary of strangers, usually distressed, ambivalent when parent returns

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58
Q

what is animism?

A

belief that everything has some kind of consciousness

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59
Q

BPPV vertigo lasts for?

A

seconds to minutes

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60
Q

Diagnosis of BPPV

A

Dix Hallpike

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61
Q

treatment of BPPV

A

Epley manoeuvre

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62
Q

compression of the facial nerve in the facial canal causes what?

A

Bells palsy

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63
Q

what is ramsay hunt syndrome?

A

reactivation of Varicella Zoster in geniculate ganglion of facial nerve

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64
Q

the first feature of ramsay hunt is usually?

A

auricular pain

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65
Q

what type of rash is seen in ramsay hunt and where?

A

vesicular rash around ear

66
Q

how do you manage ramsay hunt?

A

aciclovir and corticosteroids

67
Q

another name for high eye

A

hypertropia

68
Q

another name for low eye

A

hypotropia

69
Q

what is esotropia?

A

convergent squint, eye looking inwards

70
Q

what is exotropia?

A

divergent squint, eye looking outwards

71
Q

primary movement of medial rectus

72
Q

primary movement of lateral rectus

73
Q

describe oculomotor palsy

A

exotropia and hypotropia, fixed dilated pupil

74
Q

painful oculomotor palsy makes you think what?

75
Q

describe trochlear nerve palsy

A

hypertropia, vertical diplopia, head held tilted, cannot look down and in

76
Q

describe abducens palsy

A

esotropia, horizontal diplopia,

77
Q

first line treatment for BPH

A

alpha blockers - tamsulosin

78
Q

second line treatment for BPH

A

5 alpha reductase - finestride

79
Q

diagnosis of BPH

A

PSA antigen, before PR exam and TRUS with biopsy

80
Q

what is the first line investigation for hydrocele

81
Q

GFR in stage 3 CKD

82
Q

what do you give for high blood pressure in someone with renal disease?

83
Q

Churg-strauss antibody?

A

pANCA (anti-MPO)

84
Q

wegners antibody?

A

cANCA (anti-PR3)

85
Q

goodpastures antibody?

86
Q

common symptoms of nephritic syndrome and causes

A

haematuria, hypertension

rapidly progressive GN, IgA nephropathy, Alport syndrome

87
Q

common symptoms of nephrotic syndrome and causes

A

proteinuria, oedema

minimal change disease, membranous GN, focal segmental, amyloidosis, diabetic nephropathy

88
Q

causes of both nephritic and nephrotic

A

diffuse proliferative, membranoproliferative, post-streptococcal

89
Q

upper arm compartment

90
Q

4arm (A)

91
Q

4arm (P)

92
Q

thigh (a)

A

Ft E femoral

93
Q

thigh (p)

A

F Et sciatic (tibial division)

94
Q

thigh (m)

95
Q

leg (a)

A

AD, TF, d.fib

96
Q

leg (p)

A

AP, TE, tib

97
Q

leg (l)

A

FE, WP. super fib

98
Q

segmental fracture is

A

fracture in 2 places

99
Q

communited fracture is

A

fracture with 3 or more parts

100
Q

oblique fracture is

A

diagonal looking, shearing force

101
Q

spiral fracture is

A

torsional force, unstable

102
Q

transverse fracture is

A

bending force, straight break

103
Q

greenstick fracture is

A

bone bends and breaks

104
Q

buckle fracture is

A

incomplete fracture of shaft

105
Q

Bartons fracture is

A

intra-articular fracture of distal radius

106
Q

Chauffeurs fracture is

A

intra-articular fracture of radial styloid

107
Q

Colles fracture

A

fracture of distal radius, dorsal and radial displacement, dinner fork deformity

108
Q

smiths fracture

A

reverse colles

109
Q

Monteggia fracture

A

proximal ulnar break, radial head dislocation

110
Q

Galezzi fracture

A

radial fracture, dislocation of distal radio ulnar joint

111
Q

what is the most common Salter Harris fracture? describe it

A

Salter Harris type 2;

physeal fracture with small metaphyseal fragment attached

112
Q

crystals seen in gout are?

A

monosodium urate

113
Q

appearance of gout on polarised microscopy

A

needle shaped, negative bifringence

114
Q

acute attack of gout treatment

A

NSAIDs, corticosteroids, opioids, cholchicine

115
Q

chronic treatment of gout

A

acute treatment + allopurinol

116
Q

pseudogout crystals are?

A

calcium pyrophosphate

117
Q

side effect of Methotrexate

A

liver cirrhosis, pneumonitis

118
Q

side effect of sulfasalazine

A

rash, oligiospermia, anaemia

119
Q

side effect of hydroxychloroquine

A

retinopathy, corneal deposits

120
Q

side effect of prednisolone

A

cushingoid, osteoporosis, hypertension, cataracts

121
Q

side effect of gold/penicillamine

A

proteinuria

122
Q

patient with diabetes symptoms; what is the diabetic criteria?

A

fasting glucose = 7

random glucose = 11

123
Q

patient has no symptoms of diabetes what is the criteria?

A

fasting glucose = 7, random glucose = 11

has to be shown on 2 different occasions

124
Q

screening test for Acromegaly

A

serum IGF-1

125
Q

diagnostic test for acromegaly

A

oral glucose tolerance test

126
Q

tests for addisons

A

short synacthen test, anti-21-hydroxylase, 9am serum cortisol

127
Q

test for Conns

A

bloods; excess aldosterone, high NaCl + H20, low K

128
Q

testing for adrenal hyperplasia

A

plasma aldosterone + renin ratio

129
Q

if plasma aldosterone + renin ratio is above 2, what test is performed?

A

saline suppression test

130
Q

Cushings tests

A

low dose dexamethasone

24 hour urinary free cortisol

131
Q

what test is done to determine between pituitary, adrenal or ectopic cushings?

A

high dexamethasone

132
Q

what antibodies are seen in Hashimotos?

A

anti TPO, anti-Tg

133
Q

how to test for Phaemochromocytoma?

A

urinary catecholamines, 131 iodine MIBG

134
Q

anterior pituitary hormones

A

GH, ACTH, TSH, PRL, FSH, LH

135
Q

posterior pituitary hormones

A

oxytocin, ADH

136
Q

treatment for addisons

A

hydrocortisone to replace cortisol

fludro to replace aldosterone

137
Q

treatment of Conns

138
Q

treatment of adrenal hyperplasia

A

spironolactone

139
Q

treatment of cushings

A

Metyrapone (11b-hydroxylase blocker)

140
Q

treatment of Phaeo

A

surgical excision, alpha and beta blockade

141
Q

side effect of carbimazole

A

agranulocytosis

142
Q

describe MEN 1

A

parathyroid, pituitary, pancreas
gene = MEN1

common presentation = hypercalcaemia

143
Q

describe MEN2a

A

medullary thyroid, parathyroid, phaeo

gene = RET

144
Q

describe MEN2b

A

medullary thyroid, Phaeo

145
Q

zona glomerulosa produces, under control of?

A

minerals = aldosterone

RAAS

146
Q

zona fasiculata produces

A

glucos = cortisol, ACTH

147
Q

zona reticularis produces

A

sex hormones, ACTH

148
Q

adrenal medulla produces

A

catecholamines, sympathetic nervous system

149
Q

what do the thyroid parafollicular cells produce?

A

calcitonin

150
Q

what do the thyroid follicular cells produce?

A

thyroglobulin

151
Q

hypothalamic hormones; releasing

A

GHRH, PRH, TRH, CRH, GnRH

152
Q

hypothalamic hormones; inhibiting

A

somatostatin, dopamine

153
Q

muscles of the thenar compartment?

A

abductor pollicus, opponens pollicus

154
Q

treatment of athletes foot?

A

terbinafine

155
Q

treatment of septic arthritis? coverage of these Abx

A

flucloxacillin, ceftrioxone for kingella cover

156
Q

treatment of otitis externa

A

aural toilet (acetic acid)

157
Q

treatment of pyelonephritis

A

co-amoxiclav or co-trimoxazole

158
Q

describe the events leading up to a non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A 
hyperglycaemia 
pericyte death 
thickening of BM 
vascular permiability 
retinal oedema 
hard exudates
159
Q

swan neck deformity?

A

hyper PIP, flex DIP

160
Q

boutoneirres deformity?

A

hyperDIP, flex PIP

Last minute exam cram (5 decks)

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