Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

pathophysiology of cancer

A
  • cells become more and more abnormal or old
  • damaged cells survive when they shouldn’t
  • new cells from when are not needed (unstoppable division)
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2
Q

drivers of cancer (genes)

A
  • proto-oncogenes (involved in normal cell growth and division, if unregulated become oncogenes)
  • tumour suppressor genes (involved in controlling cell growth and division, if down regulated, division uncontrolled)
  • DNA repair genes (fix damaged DNA, cells with mutations in the genes tend to develop additional mutations)
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3
Q

what is carcinoma forms from

adenocarcinoma, basal cell carcinoma

A

epithelial cells

adenocarcinoma; epithelial cells that produce fluid or mucus
basal cell: basal layer of epidermis

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4
Q

what is sarcoma formed from

A

in bone and soft tissues of the body (including muscle, fat, blood vessels, lymph vessels and fibrous tissue)

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5
Q

def adjacent treatment

A

treatment given after definitive treatment with aim to increase chance of cure

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6
Q

def neoadjuvent treatment

A

given before main treatment to shrink/improve chance of cure

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7
Q

def palliative treatment

A

improve quality of life where cure is not possible

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8
Q

def radical treatment

A

treatment aim is to get rid of, or cure the disease

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9
Q

def symptomatic treatment

A

relieve symptoms of cancer but not its cause

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10
Q

def concurrent therapy

A

when 2+ therapies are given simultaneously

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11
Q

def cycle

A

chemotherapy administered over few hours once every 2-3 weeks
allows for WCC and organ recovery

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12
Q

def nadir

A

when WCC is low

in a sentence: FBC nadir

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13
Q

def regimen

A

multiple drugs given together

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14
Q

how is radiotherapy treatment broken down into

A

course of treatment, broken down into fractions (to allow for tissue recovery)

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15
Q

how long is fraction of treatment of radiotherapy

A

15-30 mins

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16
Q

SE of radiotherapy

A

(site dependent)
early:
fatigue, pain flare, esophagitis, pneumonitis (all the itis), skin reaction, diarrhoea, nausea, raised ICP, hair loss

late:
fibrosis, stricture, osteonecrosis, rib fracture, second malignancy

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17
Q

types of radiotherapy

A

conventional
stereotactic
brachytherapy
proton treatment

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18
Q

what are the different protocols to manage motion (in radiotherapy treatment)

A
  • bladder protocol: empty bladder before treatment
  • stomach: empty stomach/certain volume in stomach
  • breath hold (for breast and lung)
  • 4D CT scan
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19
Q

why part of the cell division cycle does chemotherapy target

A

S (DNA synthesis) or M (mitosis) phases

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20
Q

what are the different roles of chemotherapy

A
  • curative (chemosensitive tumours)
  • adjacent (reduce risk of relapse)
  • radiosensitive (low dose to increase efficacy of radical radiotherapy)
  • palliative
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21
Q

route of administration for chemotherapy

A
IV 
oral 
intrathecal 
intra-arterial 
intravsicular 
intraperitoneal
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22
Q

toxicity of chemotherapy (organ specific)

A
  • bone marrow: neutropenia, thrombocytopenia
  • GI: mucositis, D&V
  • skin: alopecia, hand-foot syndrome
  • heart: heart failure, angina/MI
  • lungs: pulmonary fibrosis
  • kidneys: renal impairment
  • nerves: peripheral neuropathy, hearing loss
  • reproduction: infertility

long term: cognitive impairment, increased chance of secondary cancers

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23
Q

what are the different chemotherapy emergencies

A
  • febrile neutropaenia/neutropenic sepsis
  • thrombocytopaenic haemorrhage
  • tumour lysis syndrome
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24
Q

ECOG performance status

A

(highly correlated to survival)

0: fully active, able to carry out all pre-disease performance without restriction
1: restricted in physically strenuous activity but ambulatory and able to carry out light work
2: ambulatory and capable of all self care but unable to carry out any work activities (up and about for > 50 of waking hours)
3: capable of only limited self care. confined to bed/chair > 50% waking hours)
4. completely disabled and confined to bed/chair. no self care
5: deceased

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25
Q

presentation of lung cancer

A
  • persistent cough
  • haemoptysis
  • dyspnoea
  • chest pan
  • hoarse voice
  • stridor
  • facial swelling
  • finger clubbing
  • lymphadenopathy

systemic:
- weight loss
- fatigue
- appetite loss

SIADH

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26
Q

when do you 2ww referral for lung cancer

A
  • CXR suggestive of lung cancer
  • > 40yo and unexplained haemoptysis
  • offer CXR if > 40y and 2 of the following: smoker, cough, fatigue, SOB, chest pain, weight/appetite loss
  • offer XCR if > 40y and 1 of following: persistent or recurrent chest infections, finger clubbing, supraclaviular lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent wit lung cancer, thrombocytosis
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27
Q

investigations for lung cancer

A
  • CXR
  • blood tests (FBC, renal function, bone profile, liver function)
  • pulmonary function tests (essential before treatment)
  • CT scan (for staging)
  • bronchoscopy and biopsy
  • PETCT scan
  • brain CT/MRI (for metastasis)
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28
Q

lung cancer complications

A
  • metastasis: brain, liver, kidneys, pleura, bone, adrenal glands
  • Horner syndrome (Pancoast Tumour)
  • SVC obstruction
  • Paraneoplatic syndrome
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29
Q

prognosis of lung cancer

A

1 year survival of 30%

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30
Q

types of lung cancer

A
small cell 
squamous 
adenocarcinoma 
large cell
alveolar cell carcinoma
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31
Q

supportive care for cancer

A
  • macmillan nurse/cancer charities
  • symptoms control
  • benefits
  • discussion regarding life expectancy, place of death
  • hospice (day or inpatient)
  • DNAR/AaND (allow a dacntural death)
  • social workers
  • support groups
  • psychosocial counselling
32
Q

presentation of hypercalcaemia

A

‘bone, moans and abdo groans’ (if slow onset)

  • nausea
  • polydipsia/polyuria
  • constipation
  • confusion
  • weakness

if sudden onset: palpitations

33
Q

management of hypercalcaemia

A
  • check PTH
  • ECG
  • IV fluids (normal saline 2-3 L)
  • bisphosphonates: IV zolendronic acid (may not be required if asymptomatic)
  • anti emetics
  • review meds
  • treat malignancy
34
Q

presentation of brain mets

A
  • raised ICP (headache, nauseas and vomiting, papilloedema)
  • focal neurological signs (paresis of limbs, speech disorders/dysphagia, seizures, cerebellar signs, visual symptoms, personality changes, CN VI palsy)
  • coma (late sign)
35
Q

investigations for brain mets

A
  • bloods (FBC, U&Es, calcium, LFTs, CRP))
  • GCS and neuro exam each time you see them
  • CT head
36
Q

management of brain mets

A
  • call neurosurgery (surgical, radiotherapy, chemotherapy)
  • dexamethasone
  • antiemetics/analgesia if needed
  • anticonvulsants (if seizure activity)
  • mannitol or/and ventriculo-peritoneal shunt (if raised ICP)
  • tell patients they cannot drive and document it
37
Q

causes of hypercalcaemia of malignancy

A
  • tumour osteolytic effect on bone (bone metastasis or primary bone cancer)
  • humoral PTHrP (from squamous cell lung cancer or renal cancer)
  • ectopic PTH (ovarian cancer)
  • increased vit D (lymphoma)
38
Q

presentation of metastatic spinal cord compression

A
  • progressive pain in spine (severe, unremitting, aggravated by straining, ‘band like’, nocturnal/preventing from sleeping)
  • localised spinal tenderness
  • neuro signs: radicular pain, limb weakness, difficulty walking, sensory loss, bladder/bowel dysfunction)
39
Q

investigations/diagnosis of metastatic spinal cord compression

A

whole spine MRI within 24h of presentation (flat bed rest until imaging done)

40
Q

management of metastatic spinal cord compression

A
  • high dose dexamethasone

- oncological assessment for treatment (radiotherapy, surgical or best supportive care)

41
Q

oncological emergencies

A
  • sepsis (neutropenic)
  • bleeding
  • tumour lysis
  • acute leukaemia
  • hyper viscosity
  • hypercalcaemia
  • hyponatraemia
  • raised ICP
  • DVT/PE
  • thrombocytopenia
  • spinal cord compression
  • airway compromise
  • SVCO
  • bowel obstruction
42
Q

different type of immunotherapy

A
  • passive immunotherapy (enhances body’s existing immune response) (i.e. immune checkpoints inhibitors)
  • active immunotherapy ( directs body’s immune cells to recognise, attack and destroy cancer cells) (i.e. vaccines)
43
Q

name two types of immune checkpoints inhibitors

A

CTLA-4 inhibitors (iplimumab)

PD-1 pathway inhibitors (nivolumab)

44
Q

SE of immunotherapy

A
  • infusion related reaction
  • autoimmune reaction (-itis)/ worsening of autoimmune conditions
  • fatigue
  • rash/pruritis
  • diarrhoea (mucus/blood) + abdo pain, nausea/vomiting
  • sob, cough
  • endocrinopathy
45
Q

management of immunotherapy side effects

A

immunosuppression with corticosteroids

46
Q

types of targeted therapy

A
  • small molecules

- monoclonal antibodies

47
Q

name monoclonal antibodies

A
  • rituximab

- trastuzumab (herceptin)

48
Q

what are different types of small molecules (used in targeted oncology therapy)

A
  • cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor
  • proteasome inhibitor
  • tyrosine kinase inhibitor
49
Q

general moa of targeted therapy

A

interfere with specific proteins that help cancer spread and grow

50
Q

se of targeted therapy

A
  • diarrhoea
  • rash, skin/hair discolouration, nail changes
  • LFT abnormalities (including clotting)
  • cytopenia
  • high BP
  • fatigue
  • mouth ulcers
51
Q

management of targeted therapy SE

A

withhold drug and reintroduce at lower level

52
Q

Epidemiology of cervical cancer

A
  • younger women affected (< 44yo)

- second most common cancer in females

53
Q

prognosis of cervical cancer

A

5 year relative survival is 67.8%

54
Q

risk factors for cervical cancer

A
  • age 45-49
  • HPV infection (16 and 18)
  • multiple sexual partners
  • early onset of sexual activity > 18
  • immunosuppression (ie transplant)
  • HIV
  • cigarette smoking
  • COC
55
Q

presentation of cervical cancer

A
  • abnormal vaginal bleeding
  • postcoital blessing
  • mucoid or purulent vaginal discharge
  • pelvic/back pain
  • dyspareunia
  • cervical mass or bleeding on examination
  • menorrhagia
56
Q

types of cervical cancer

A
  • squamous cell
  • adenocarcinoma
  • adenosqumous carcinoma
  • small cell cancer
57
Q

staging of cervical cancer

A

FIGO

  • stage 1: within crevix
  • stage 2: spread to surrounding tissues
  • stage 3: spread into surrounding structures of the pelvis
  • stage 4: metastasis
58
Q

treatment of cervical cancer

A
  • surgery
  • chemoradiotherapy (including bradytherapy)
  • targeted cancer drugs
59
Q

prevention of cervical cancer

A
  • vaccination (girls age 12-13): protects you for 10y against HPV 16, 18 and genital warts 6 and 11
  • screening (from 25+:): pap smear of endocervical canal
60
Q

vaccination process for cervical cancer

A
  • offered to girls aged 12-13yo (year 8)
  • if < 15: 2 doses over 6-24 months period
  • if > &5: 3 doses
61
Q

against which HPV/warts does Gardasil vaccination protect you against

A
  • HPV 16 and 18 an types 6 and 11 genital warts
62
Q

how often do you screen for cervical cancer

A
  • women aged 25-49: every 3 years
  • women age 50-64: every 5 years
  • > 65 if tests are abnormal
63
Q

how is HPV transmitted

A

skin contact (mainly sexual activity)

64
Q

trial phase 0 (nb of people, cancer type, main aims of trial, randomised?)

A
  • small, often 10-20 people
  • often lots of cancer types
  • aim: testing low dose to make sure not harmful
  • not randomised
65
Q

trial phase 1 (nb of people, cancer type, main aims of trial, randomised?)

A
  • small (approx 20-50 people)
  • often lots of cancer types
  • aims: finding out about side effects, and what happens to treatment in body
  • not randomised
66
Q

trial phase 2 (nb of people, cancer type, main aims of trial, randomised?)

A
  • medium (tens of people, sometimes over hundred)
  • usually one or two cancer types
  • aim: finding out about side effects, and what happens to treatment in body
  • randomised: sometimes
67
Q

trial phase 3 (nb of people, cancer type, main aims of trial, randomised?)

A
  • large (hundreds/thousands of people)
  • usually one cancer type
  • aim: comparing new treatment to standard treatment
  • randomised ususallu
68
Q

trial phase 4 (nb of people, cancer type, main aims of trial, randomised?)

A
  • medium to large (variable)
  • usually one cancer type
  • aim: finding out more about long term side effects and benefits
  • randomised: no
69
Q

in order to qualify to take consent for clinical trials, you must

A
  • communicate effectively (including complex medical concepts)
  • understand alternatives that are available
  • understand how to avoid undue influence in devision making
  • understand protocol and implications this may have on people involved
70
Q

what key information must be given to patient when discussing clinical trial

A
  • they can withdraw at any time (if do, may need follow up/monitor due to SE)
  • standard therapy is available if they do not enter clinical trial
  • all info needed to make informed decision
  • entry in clinical trial is entirely voluntary and refusal does not affect care
  • details of treatment an follow up
71
Q

what are the common terminology criteria for adverse events (CTCAE)

A

Grade 1: asymptomatic or mild
Grade 2: moderate or affect instrumental ADLs
Grade 3: severe and affecting self care ADL
Grade 4:: life threatening
Grade 5: death

72
Q

different types of trials

A
  • interventional (pilot/feasibility studies, prevention, screening, treatment and multi-arm multi-stage trials)
  • observational (cohort, case control and cross sectional studies)
73
Q

definition of neutropenic sepsis

A

neutrophil count < 0.5*10(9)/L and T> 38°/signs/symptoms consistent with clinical significant sepsis

74
Q

when is neutropenic sepsis most likely to occur

A

7-14 days after chemo

75
Q

how do you manage neutropenic sepsis

A
  • treat empirically (even before blood results come back): piperacillin with tazobactam
  • SEPSIS 6

can offer prophylaxis (fluoroquinolone)