Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EBU In-service assesment 2017-2018 > Oncology > Flashcards

Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

A 25-year-old man is screened for primary infertility and there is a history of left orchidopexy at the age of 7 years. Left testicular volume is 5cc, right testicular volume is 15 cc. Ultrasound shows microcalcification and an inhomogeneous parenchyma on the left side. What should be done?

A. Nothing, since the risk of testis cancer is not increased
B. Testicular biopsy, since the risk of carcinoma in situ is clearly elevated
C. Testicular biopsy, since the chance of testis cancer is more than 30%
D. Orchidectomy on the left side, since the risk of cancer in this man is very high

A

B. Testicular biopsy, since the risk of carcinoma in situ is clearly elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the approximate recurrence risk of patients treated surgically for penile cancer with lymph node metastases?

A. 5%
B. 20%
C. 40%
D. 60%

A

B. 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the prognosis for signet ring cell urachal adenocarcinoma?

A. Poor
B. Normal
C. Good
D. Excellent prognosis

A

A. Poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the approximate percentage of understaging of patients with clinical stage T2b prostate cancer?

A. 20%
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 80%

A

C. 60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In cases of PSA measurements, if serum cannot be processed within 3 hours of collection, serum total and free PSA long-term storage should be done at what temperature?

A. 0°C
B. -20°C
C. -50°C
D. -70°C

A

D. -70°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the most important factor used to decide whether a nerve sparing approach for a radical prostataectomy is appropriate?

A. Patients BMI
B. Prostate volume
C. Sexual activity before surgery
D. Clinical stage, PSA level, biopsy Gleason score

A

C. Sexual activity before surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the standard approach to cT1a RCC of 3,5cm?

A. Laprascopic radical nephrectomy
B. Watchful waiting
C. Open och laprascopic partial nephrectomy
D. Ablative techniques: cryo and radiofrequency

A

C. Open och laprascopic partial nephrectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If there is positive cytology and a normal cystoscopy, the most likely explanation is:

A. Carcinoma in situ
B. False positive cytology
C. The endoscopist has missed a lesion in the bladder.
D. Carcinoma of the upper tract

A

D. Carcinoma of the upper tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What effects can androgen deprivation therapy have on the skeleton?

A. Increased risk of fracture
B. Exacerbation of osteopenia or osteoporosis that might have been present at baseline
C. Increased bone metabolism that may render the bone microenvironment more favourable for the development of bone metastases
C. All of the above

A

C. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In patients with locally advanced prostate cancer on watchful waiting, what is an important factor associated with a high-risk for progression and death due to prostate cancer?

A. A PSA doubling time (PSADT) of <12 months
B. A PSADT of > 12 months
C. A PSADT of < 6 months
D. A PSADT of > 6 months

A

A. A PSA doubling time (PSADT) of <12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which biomarker has shown to be a predictor for survival in kidney cancer patients?

A. PSA
B. CEA
C. CD4/CD8 ratio
D. Carbonic anhydrase IX (CA IX)

A

D. Carbonic anhydrase IX (CA IX)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What drug is accepted as the standard first-line therapy in metastatic RCC with low or intermediate risk criteria?

A. Sunitinib
B. Sorafenib
C. Bevacizumab
D. Temsirolimus

A

A. Sunitinib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Laprascopic partial nephrectomy is:

A. Not an accepted alternativ to open partial nephrectomy
B. Considered the gold standard treatment for kidney tumours ≤ 4cm (T1a)
C. Considered the gold standard treatment for kidney tumours ≤ 7cm (T1b)
D. Considered an acceptable alternative to open partial nephrectomy for kidney tumours ≤4 cm

A

D. Considered an acceptable alternative to open partial nephrectomy for kidney tumours ≤4 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Increased tolerability of TRUS prostatic biopsy is best achieved by:

A. Intrarectal local anaesthesia (IRLA)
B. Oral medication (tramadol/acetaminophen)
C. Periprostatic nerve block with lidocaine injection (PPNB)
D. Intrarectal local anaesthesia (IRLA) and periprostatic nerve block with lidocaine injection (PPNB)

A

C. Periprostatic nerve block with lidocaine injection (PPNB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which substance has to be evaluated for the result of the PCA3 test?

A. PCA3-DNA
B. PCA3-mRNA
C. PCA3-mRNA and PSA-DNA
D. PCA3-mRNA and PSA-mRNA

A

D. PCA3-mRNA and PSA-mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The most important risk factor for the development of bladder carcinoma is:

A. Smoking
B. Exposure to radiotherapy
C. Exposure to aromatic amines
D. Occupational exposure to urothelial carcinogens

A

A. Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bone metastases:

A. Can result in potentially debilitating skeletal-related events (SREs)
B. Occur in less than 10% of patients with urogenital meastatic malignancies
C. Occur as a result of the balanced activity between osteoclasts and osteoblasts
D. Are typically indolent and do not require treatment beyond standard anticancer therapy

A

A. Can result in potentially debilitating skeletal-related events (SREs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The only bisphosphonate to recieive widespread regulatory approval because it demonstrated objective and long-term clinical efficacy in delaying the onset and reducing the risk of skeletal-related events (SREs) in patients with castration-resistant prostate cancer is:

A. Clodronate
B. Risedronate
C. Pamidronate
D. Zoledronic acid

A

D. Zoledronic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When tumour cells invade bone, they:

A. Reduce bone resorption
B. Prevent osteoclast-mediated release of growth factors
C. Secrete growth factors that promote the release of RANK Ligand
D. Increase the expression of osteoprotegerin relative to RANK Ligand

A

C. Secrete growth factors that promote the release of RANK Ligand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bone metastases from prostatic carcinoma are most frequently found in the:

A. Ribs
B. Bony Pelvis
C. Lumbar spine
D. Proximal part of the femur

A

C. Lumbar spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Randomized controlled trials comparing placebo versus antibiotic prophylaxis in prostate biopsy show the following results:

A. There are no studies assessing the incidence of symptomatic UTI with placebo versus antibiotic
B. Significant reduction inte the incidence of bacteriuria and symptomatic UTI for the antibiotic arm
C. For the antibiotic arm, bacteriuria varies between 8.6% and 20% and symptomatic UTI between 3% and 30%
D. Significant reduction in the incidence of bacteriuria and no difference in the incidence of symptomatic UTI for the antibiotic arm

A

D. Significant reduction in the incidence of bacteriuria and no difference in the incidence of symptomatic UTI for the antibiotic arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Regardin the complications of laparoscopic partial nephrectomy which statement is correct?

A. Bleeding is the most common major complication
B. Urinary fistulas can be reduced by the use of sealing agents
C. The incidence of complications is directly related to tumour size
D. The complications are less frequent when a transperitoneal approach is used

A

A. Bleeding is the most common major complication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Laprascopic-assisted and open radical cystectomy differ significantly EXCEPT in:

A. Postoperative neobladder function
B. Operative time
C. Blood loss and transfusion rate
D. Postoperative complications

A

A. Postoperative neobladder function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the half-life time of human choriogonadotropin (HCG)?

A. 1-2 days
B. 5-7 days
C. 14-16 days
D. 30 days

A

A. 1-2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The most important risk factor for germ cell testicular tumour is:

A. Cryptorchidism
B. Testicular cancer at the father
C. Tumour in the contralateral testicle
D. Oestrogen therapy of the mother during pregnancy

A

C. Tumour in the contralateral testicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does minimal androgen blockade (peripheral androgen blockade) mean?

A. Extracellular inhibition of 5-α-reductase and intracellular blockade of androgen receptor
B. Intracellular inhibition of 5-α-reductase and intracellular blockade of androgen receptor
C. Intracellular inhibition of 5-α-reductase and extracellular blockade of androgen receptor
D. Extracellular inhibition of 5-α-reductase and extracellular blockade of androgen receptor

A

B. Intracellular inhibition of 5-α-reductase and intracellular blockade of androgen receptor

27
Q

During laparoscopic partial nephrectomy the average intra-operative ischaemia time:

A. Is shorter than in the open approach
B. Is comparable to the open approach
C. Is longer than in the open approach
D. Has no significant impact om long-term renal fuction

A

C. Is longer than in the open approach

28
Q

How frequently do febrile complications occur after transrectal prostate biopsies in patients?

A. <5%
B. 8-12%
C. 15-20%
D. ≥20%

A

A. <5%

29
Q

There is an increased risk of malignant change in the foreskin in:

A. Psoriasis
B. Lichen planus
C. Lichen sclerosus
D. Fixed drug eruption

A

C. Lichen sclerosus

30
Q

Laparoscopic nephroureterectomy for upper urinary tract cell carcinoma:

A. Is the gold standard treatment
B. Has a high risk of tumour seeding
C. Has better oncological results than the open approach
D. Has better functional outcomes than the open approach

A

D. Has better functional outcomes than the open approach

31
Q

Which statement regarding distant recurrence of penile cancer is correct?

A. Up to 50% of distant recurrences occur in the first year of follow up
B. Most distant recurrences occur in the first 2 years of follow up
C. Most distant recurrences occur in the 2nd and 3rd year of follow up
D. After successful initial treatment there are no distant recurrences during follow up

A

B. Most distant recurrences occur in the first 2 years of follow up

32
Q

The best imaging modality to stage urethral carcinoma is:

A. Pelvic MRI
B. Cystoscopy
C. Urethral biopsy
D. High-resolution ultrasound

A

A. Pelvic MRI

33
Q

What is the probability of developing muscle invasive bladder cancer in patients with carcinoma in situ of the bladder, that previously responded to intravesical BCG treatment?

A. 0-5%
B. 10-20%
C. 30-40%
D. 50-60%

A

B. 10-20%

34
Q

What is the improvement of 5-year survival in patients with muscle-invasive bladder cancer treated with cisplatinum-based neoadjuvant chemotherapy?

A. 0%
B. 5%
C. 15%
D. 25%

A

B. 5%

35
Q

To detect bone metastases of the spine and the pelvifemoral area in patients with high-risk PCa, MRI evaluation is:

A. Similar to that of a combination of bone scan and CT
B. As sensitive as that of 11C-choline PET/CT
C. Less sensitive than a combination of bone scan and targeted radiographs
D. Less sensitive than ultrasound

A

B. As sensitive as that of 11C-choline PET/CT

36
Q

A parasite that may infect humans is strongly linked to the development of bladder cancer. Which one?

A. Mycobacteria tuberculosis
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Entamoeba histolyticum
D. Schistosomiasis haematobium

A

D. Schistosomiasis haematobium

37
Q

The most common histological type of testicular cancer with a peak incidence between the age of 35 and 39 years is:

A. Seminoma
B. Chorioncarcinoma
C. Yolk Sac tumour
D. Embryonal carcinoma

A

A. Seminoma

38
Q

A 70-year-old man had a retropubic adenomectomy for BPH 100g; his pre-operative PSA-level was 10 ng/mL. Histologically an adenocarcinoma of <5% is found, Gleason 6. The most common treatment would be:

A. Close follow-up
B. Pelvic irradiation
C. Endocrine therapy
D. Radical prostatectomy

A

A. Close follow-up

39
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome is a disease commonly associated with renal cell carcinoma and:

A. Renal cysts only
B. Epididymal and renal cysts
C. Seminal vesicle and renal cysts
D. Epididymal and seminal vesicle cysts

A

B. Epididymal and renal cysts

40
Q

Retroperitoneal lymphadenectomy is indicated in:

A. Stage 1 seminoma
B. Stage 2 seminoma
C. Residual masses after chemotherapy for non-seminoma with serum markers at least 5 times above normal levels
D. Residual retroperitoneal masses after chemotherapy of non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours with normal markers

A

D. Residual retroperitoneal masses after chemotherapy of non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours with normal markers

41
Q

Which benign renal tumour is more frequently associated with hypertension?

A. Leiomyoma
B. Haemangioma
C. Angiomyolipoma
D. Juxtaglomerular tumour

A

D. Juxtaglomerular tumour

42
Q

Nomograms are commonly used for preoperative risk assessment before nerve-sparing radical prostatectomy. Which is a typical parameter analyzed for stage estimation?

A. Patient’s age
B. IIEF score
C. Gleason score
D. Prostate volume

A

C. Gleason score

43
Q

Hormonal therapy with LHRH analougues is indicated:

A. To decrease prostate size before radical prostatectomy
B. To treat positive surgical margins after radical prostatectomy
C. To improve survival when used in association with radiotherapy
D. As neoadjuvant therapy to improve survival after radical prostatectomy

A

C. To improve survival when used in association with radiotherapy

44
Q

Concerning external beam radiotherapy for localized prostate cancer:

A. It is administered at a low dose in low-risk patients.
B. It has more side effects compared to radical surgery
C. Second malignancies after many years are a serious problem
D. Dose escalation has improved oncological outcome of treatment

A

D. Dose escalation has improved oncological outcome of treatment

45
Q

Which statement is correct regarding the indication and extent of pelvic lymph node dissection (LND) in the treatment of prostate cancer?

A. Lymphocoeles are the most common complication, being more frequent following the transperitoneal approach
B. When comparing extended versus limited LND, similar complication rates have been reported
C. A recent prospecitve mapping study confirmed that a template including the external iliac, obturator and internal iliac areas was able to correctly stage 54% of patients
D. Extended LND includes removal of the nodes overlying the external iliac artery and vein, the nodes within the obturator fossa located carnially and caudally to the obturator nerve, and the nodes medial and lateral to the internal iliac artery

A

D. Extended LND includes removal of the nodes overlying the external iliac artery and vein, the nodes within the obturator fossa located carnially and caudally to the obturator nerve, and the nodes medial and lateral to the internal iliac artery

46
Q

According to EAU guidelines, a second TURB or RE-TUR will be indicated in all the following cases, EXEPT:

A. In all pT1 tumours
B. In all G3 tumours except primary CIS
C. After an incomplete initial resection of a pT1G1 tumour
D. If there is no muscle in the specimen efter initial resection of a pTaG1 lesion

A

D. If there is no muscle in the specimen efter initial resection of a pTaG1 lesion

47
Q

What is preferred method treatment in renal tumour T1b in men fit for any surgery?

A. Laprascopic nephrectomy
B. Open nephrectomy with staging lympadenectomy
C. Percutaneous radiofrequency ablation or cryoablation
D. Resection of tumour. Laparoscopic/robot assisted or open

A

D. Resection of tumour. Laparoscopic/robot assisted or open

48
Q

In patients with penile cancer and inguinal lymph node metastases, the treatment of choice is:

A. Upfront radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
B. Chemotherapy only as this represents systemic disease
C. Radical inguinal lymphadenectomy with adjuvant radiotherapy
D. Radical inguinal lymphadenectomy with adjuvant chemotherapy

A

D. Radical inguinal lymphadenectomy with adjuvant chemotherapy

49
Q

The most important risk factor for prostate cancer is:

A. Race
B. Age
C. High BMI
D. Genetic

A

B. Age

50
Q

The Phoenix criteria describe recurrence after radiation therapy and brachytherapy and are defined as:

A. 3 consecutive PSA rises after therapy
B. PSA levels exceeding 2 ng/ml from the nadir after therapy
C. PSA levels exceeding 4 ng/ml from the nadir after therapy
D. PSA levels exceeding 8 ng/ml from the nadir after therapy

A

B. PSA levels exceeding 2 ng/ml from the nadir after therapy

51
Q

What is the most frequent complication of transrectal prostate biopsy?

A. Haemospermia
B. Haematuria >3 days
C. Rectal bleeding >1 day
D. Urinary tract infection

A

A. Haemospermia

52
Q

Which drug in NOT approved as first-line treatment in metastatic renal cell cancer?

A. Sunitinib
B. Axitinib
C. Pazopanib
D. Temsirolimus

A

B. Axitinib

53
Q

What is the treatment option for a distal, invasive urethral carcinoma, in a femal patient who is otherwise fit and healthy?

A. Radical TURBT
B. Radical cystourethrectomy with ileal conduit.
C. Radical cystourethrectomy with ileal neobladder
D. Radical urethrectomy with bladder neck closure and appendico-vesicostomy

A

D. Radical urethrectomy with bladder neck closure and appendico-vesicostomy

54
Q

Which is a complication of androgen deprivation therapy in prostate cancer?

A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Metabolic syndrome

A

D. Metabolic syndrome

55
Q

A man with a tumour of the left testicle underwent radical orchiectomy with the following postoperative results: Pure seminoma, 25 mm in maximal diameter, no rete testis invasion and negative tumour markers. What is the best management?

A. Active surveillance
B. Adjuvant chemotherapy-one or two courses of carboplatin
C. Adjuvant radiotherapy-paraaortic field hockeystick (dog-leg) files (para-aortic and ipsilateral iliac node) with moderate dose 20-24 Gy
D. Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection

A

A. Active surveillance

56
Q

What is the indication for a FDG-PET-CT investigation in men with a testicular tumour?

A. In all patients with a testicular tumour as a standard part of initial staging
B. In all patients with non-seminomatous tumours
C. In the follow-up of a seminoma with a residual mass of >3cm at least 2 months after chemotherapy
D. No indication

A

C. In the follow-up of a seminoma with a residual mass of >3cm at least 2 months after chemotherapy

57
Q

How should a 70-year-old man with haematuria, positive cytology, left wal lbladder tumour of 3 cm, and an additional flat lesion behind the bladder neck be treated?

A. Radical cystectomy
B. BCG instillations
C. Mitomycin instillations
D. Transurethral resection of the bladder tumour

A

D. Transurethral resection of the bladder tumour

58
Q

A 65-year-old man with a good Performance Status, normal GFR and no comorbidities has been diagnosed with a pT3N0M0 muscle-invasive bladder cancer. How should he be treated?

A. Radical cystectomy
B. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy and subsequent radical cystectomy
C. Partial cystectomy adn adjuvant chemotherapy
D. Pre-operative radiotherapy (RT) and subsequent radical cystectomy

A

B. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy and subsequent radical cystectomy

59
Q

Which factor may influence the choice between abiraterone and enzalutamide for castrate-resistant prostate cancer treatment?

A. Level of PSA
B. Gleason score
C. History of seizures
D. Number of bone metastasis

A

C. History of seizures

60
Q

What is correct about renal medullary carcinoma? It:

A. Is not radiosensitive
B. Only affects female patients.
C. Has a median survival of 5 months
D. Is mainly frequent in Asian countries

A

C. Has a median survival of 5 months

61
Q

A 60-year-old man is diagnosed with low-risk prostate cancer. What should be done before deciding about treatment options?

A. Bone scan
B. Pelvic CT scan
C. Multiparametric magnetic resonance imaging (mpMRI)
D. No additional imaging

A

D. No additional imaging

62
Q

Which treatment has been shown to have survival benefit in the setting of castrate resistant prostate cancer?

A. Zoledronic acid
B. Denosumab
C. Radium-223
D. Bicalutamide

A

C. Radium-223

63
Q

What is the risk of malignancy in a Bosniak III renal cyst?

A. 5-10%
B. 20-30%
C. 50-60%
D > 90%

A

C. 50-60%

64
Q

What is the mean annual growth rate of the tumour in patients with small renal masses on active surveillance?

A. 0,1-0,3 cm
B. 0,5-0,7 cm
C. 0,9-1,1 cm
D. 2,0-2,2 cm

A

A. 0,1-0,3 cm

EBU In-service assesment 2017-2018 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions