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Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Pt with neurologic symptoms (paraneoplastic syndrome) and anti-Hu and anti-Yo Abs

A

Small cell lung cancer (SCLC)
Assoc with smoking
Tx - platinum agent (ie carboplatin, cisplatin) with etopside

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2
Q

What is the best way to assess prognosis for melanoma?

A

The depth

Vertical growth

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3
Q

What cancers are associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 1?

A

3 P’s

  1. Pancreas = Zollinger-Ellison
  2. Pituitary = elevated prolactin
  3. Parathyroid = Hx of renal stones and a neck nodule
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4
Q

A pt with Down syndrome is at an increased risk for which cancer?

A

ALL

Fatigue, easy bruising, weight loss, fever

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5
Q

Most common cause of firm fixed lumps in the axillary lymph nodes

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma
Overexpress HER2/neu
Bx = anastomising sheets of pleomorphic cells

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6
Q

Pt presents with high WBC count with basophilia. See PMNs at all stages of maturity. Immature myelocytes and segmented PMNs. Dx and Tx?

A

Chronic myelogenous Leukemia (CML)
Tx - Imatinib
t(9;22) Philadelphia chromosome; Bcr-Abl
Contituitively active tyrosine kinase

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7
Q

A pt has worsening vision in his right eye. He has angiomas over the retina and a small hemangioblastoma in the cerebellum. Dx and what else might they develop?

A 
von Hippel-Lindou
Hematuria
AD, VHL deletion on chr 3
Retinal, medullary, and cerebellar angiomas
Bilateral renal cell carcinoma
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8
Q

Which two sites are common sites of metastasis?

A

Liver - GI tract drains to hepatic poratal
Lung
Due to high blood volume in both

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9
Q

A pt reports new onset tonic-clonic seizure and 4 month history of bloody stools

A 
Turoct syndrome
AD 
Colorectal and brain tumors
APC gene = polyposis and medulloblastoma
hMLH1 = DNA mismatch repair causring polyposis and glioblastoma multiforme
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10
Q

What are the 3 most common causes of cancer death in men?

A
  1. Lung
  2. Prostate
  3. Colorectal
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11
Q 
A pt presents with crippling back pain.  CT shows lesions in the spine
Hgb - 10.2
Calcium - 13.1
Increased total protein
Dx?
A

Multiple Myeloma
Increased total protein = IgG
Decreased levels of normal Ig’s make them prone to infections
Back pain = lytic bone lesions

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12
Q

30 y/o female presents with severe knee pain x months but does not recall an injury. PE = effusiion. XR fx at the epiphyseal end of the femur. What cancer is associated?

A

Giant cell tumor
Benign primary bone tumor, but locally aggressive. Usually distal femur or proximal tibia
On XR = double bubble or soap bubble sign
Bx = oval or spindle-shaped cells along with scattered multinucleated cells
20-40 y/o women

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13
Q

Bone tumor in the metaphysis of long bones in males 10-20 y/o

A

Osteosarcoma
Raises the periosteum causing either a triangular periosteal shadow (Codman triangle) or radial reactive bone formation (sunburst growth pattern)

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14
Q

A pt with Small cell Lung Carcinoma is at risk of which paraneoplastic syndrome?

A

Overproduction of ACTH and ADH
ACTH increases glucocorticoids causing Cushings syndrome (weight gain, redistribute body fat, striae, moon facies, poor wound healing)

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15
Q

Pt is post-menopausal, 40pack year hx presents with progressive constipation and frequent urination. CXR shows circular lesion overlying the left hilum. Decreased serum phosphorus

A

Central bronchogenic carcinoma
progressive constipation and frequent urination = hypercalcemia, suggests a cancer producing parathyroid homone-related peptide (PTHrP)
Squamous cell carcinoma is a bronchogenic carcinoma that produces excess PTHrP

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16
Q

pt presents with RUQ pain and a bruit over the liver. On bx = lack of portal areas, trabeculae are composed of multiple layers of malignant hepatocytes with high nuclear-to-cytoplasm ratio and pleiomorphic

A

Hepatocellular Carcinoma
Bruit is heard if tumor partially obstructs a. flow to the liver.
HCC assoc with elevated alpha-fetoprotein levels
Chronic HCV and/or HBV -> cirrhosis -> predisposes individual to HCC

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17
Q

What is primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

Autoimmune
Lymphocytic infiltrates and granulomas in the biliary tract
Increased mitochondrial Ab associated with CREST syndrome, RA, and celiac

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18
Q

What is the normal function of Rb?

A

Prevents cell-cycle progression past the G1/S checkpoint
Normally binds the E2F transcription factor in quiescent cells
LOF is associated with osteosarcoma and retinoblastoma

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19
Q

50 y/o female presents with HA localizing to the right side of her head. MRI shows a tumor attached to the dura mater. Bx confirms tumor arises from arachnoid. Dx and additional histology?

A

Meningioma

psammoma bodies, synctial, fibroblastic, transitional, secretory, and microcystic

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20
Q

Pt presents with fatigue, weakness, weight loss x 4 mo. Vision is deteriorating, several severe nosebleeds. PE hepatosplenomegaly, increased total protein level. Electrophoresis reveals a large spike in the gamma region. No skeletal changes

A

Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
Weakness, weight loss, hyperviscosity
B cell neoplasm with IgM overproduction leads to:
impaired cranial blood flow (HAs), impaired ocular blood flow (visual disturbances)
NO bone lesions or renal dysfunction
monoclonal “M spike”

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21
Q

How do you distinguish Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia from Multiple myeloma?

A

Waldenstrom has syx of hyperviscosity (HA, vision changes)

Multiple myeloma = has bone and renal abnormalities

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22
Q

Which dz have a M spike on electrophoresis?

A

Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
plasma cell dyscrasias
multiple myeloma
monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)

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23
Q

How do you identify Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermine significance from other dz’s with M spike?

A

asymptomatic due to lower levels of protein in the serum (no viscosity syx)
Some pts may experience polyneuropathy
Premalignant lesion that may progress to multiple myeloma

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24
Q

7 y/o presents with ataxia and labs show HCT 55%. Gadolinium scan reveals a primary brain tumor. Bx = foamy stromal cells within a highly vascular neoplasm. Dx?

A

von Hippel-Lindau (VHL)
AD, chr 3
brain tumor = hemangioblastoma, primary brain tumor found in the cerebellum of children
VHL will have increased erythropoietin producing a secondary polycythemia

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25
Q

5 y/o is brought to the ED with projectile vomiting and HA. Trouble walking x 2 mo. PE truncal ataxia and papilledema. CT shows a mass at the cerebellar vermis and enlarged ventricles. Dx and histology?

A

Medulloblastoma, most common childhood tumor of the cerebellar midline
primitive neuroectodermal tumor with small blue cells (Homer-wright cells) arranged in rosettes surroundign a PMN. High nuclear:cytoplasmic ratios
Gait disturbances and ataxia = cerebellar vermis
HA, papilledema = obstructive hydrocephalus

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26
Q

What are the 3 primary brain tumors of childhood that can result in hydrocehphalus by obstructing the fouth ventricle?

A

Medulloblastoma
Ependymomas
Hemangioblastomas

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27
Q

67 y/o landscaper presents with a flesh-colored pearly papule with a central telangiectasia on his right forearm. Bx shows islands of tumor within mucinous dermis

A

Basal cell carcinoma

Locally invasive but usually non-metastatic

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28
Q

A 65 y/o smoker has a trasnbronchial bx showing several layers of well differentiated, organized squamous epithelia contained above the basement membrane. What term describes this change?

A

Metaplasia

Normal bronchi = pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium

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29
Q

What DNA-alkylating agent is very commonly used in breast cancer and what should it be coadministered with to prevent AE’s?

A

Cyclophosphamide

Give with Mesna to avoid hemorrhagic cystitis (counteracts acrolein)

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30
Q

A pt presents with worsening low back pain, increased urinary frequency and blood in the urine. Imagine reveals osteoblastic metastasis to vertebral bodies. Dx and Tx?

A

Prostate cancer
PSA > 4
Tx - Leuprolide and flutamide

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31
Q

What is the MOA of leuprolide

A

GnRH analog suppresses the release of LH in prostate cancer

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32
Q

What is the MOA of flutamid?

A

nonsteroidal antiandrogen competitvely inhibits androgens at the testosterone receptor

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33
Q

Pt with a cancer hx presents with ecchymoses, intracranial hemorrhage, focal neurologic signs

A

Metastatic melanoma

Frequent source of metastatic lesions in the brain

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34
Q

Of all of the cancers that metastasize to the brain, which two are likely to cause intracranial bleeds?

A

Renal cell carcinoma
Melanoma
Because they are very vascular and prone to hemorrhage

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35
Q

A brain mass is resected and pathology describes whorls of fibrous tissue and calcified concentric rings. Dx?

A

Meningothelial
On CT - avidly enhancing mass with dural attachment
Second most common primary brain tumor in adults
Slow growing, from meningothelial cells
Calcified concentric rings = psammoma body

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36
Q

In which cancers do you see Psammoma bodies?

A 
Papillary adenocarcinoma of the thyroid
Serous papillary cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary
Mesothelioma
Meningioma
PSaMMoma
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37
Q

A pt with chronic renal insufficiency is dx’d with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder. What chemo drug should be avoided?

A

Cisplatin
AE’s nephrotoxicity and acoustic nerve damage. Pts should be vigorously hydrated
Other nephrotoxc agents = streptomycin, nitrosoureas, methotrexate, mithramycin, cyclophosphamide. Bleomycin should also be avoided because renal insufficiency worsens pulmonary syx

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38
Q

Which cancers tend to metastasize to bone?

A 
Permanently Relocated Tumors Like Bone
Prostate
Renal Cell Carcinoma
Testes/Thyroid
Lung
Breast
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39
Q

Which cancers tend to metastasize to the brain?

A 
Lots of Bad Stuff Kills Glia
Lung
Breast
Skin (melanoma)
Kidney (renal cell carcinoma)
GI (colon)
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40
Q

Which cancers tend to metastasize to the liver?

A 
Cancer sometimes penetrate Benign Liver
Colon
Stomach
Pancreas
Breast
Lung
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41
Q

Pt presents with tonic clonic seizure due to hyponatremia. Which cancer is at fault?

A

Small cell lung cancer
Paraneoplasmic syndromes:
1. Secretes ADH causing SIADH
2. Secretes ACTH causing Cushing syndrome
3. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome b/c host Ab cross-reacts with presynaptic calcium channels

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42
Q

Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with Squamous lung carcinoma?

A

PTHrP causing hypercalcemia

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43
Q

A large adenocarcinoma of the stomach at the pyloric zone near the pyloric sphincter on the lesser curvature would cause what other syx due to mass effect?

A

Jaundice
Adenocarcinoma impinges the omental foramen which is partially formed by the hepatoduodenal ligament. This ligament also contains the bild duct, hepatic a., and hepatic portal v.
Obstruction of bile duct = cholestasis and conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

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44
Q

What two injection tx’s are used in age-related neovascular macular degeneration by inhibiting vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

A 
Ranibizumab = mAB that binds VEGF
Pegaptanib = pegylated anti VEGF aptamer.
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45
Q

What other cancer drugs in a mAB against VEGF?

A

Bevacizuman
Use in colon, breast, non small cell lung cancer
AE = HTN and risk of bleeds

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46
Q

What is the MOA of bleomycin?

A

binds DNA and causes single stranded and double stranded breaks
Use bleo in melanoma, sarcoma, squamous cell carcinoma, Hodgkin lymphoma, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, germ cell tumors
AE = pulmonary fibrosis (Ground glass appearance on CXR)

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47
Q

Bx of a LN shows numerous irregularly sized follicles and the neoplastic cells appear similar to normal germinal cener B lymphoctyes

A

Follicular lymphoma
t(14;18) bcl-2 anti-apoptotic gene
Syx of waxing and waning painless lymphadenopathy
tx - rituximab and/or cytotoxics

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48
Q

Smudge cell on smear. Dx and defect in which cell line?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL)
Defect in B cell (CD5/CD19/CD20/CD23 +)

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49
Q

GM-CSF is coadministered with myelosuppressive chemo to prevent complications. This therapy increases cell types differentiated from which precursor?

A

Myeloid Stem Cell
Produces: PMNs, basophils, eosinophils, macrophages, and platelets
Avoids neutropenia and thrombocytopenia in the pt
NOTE will not correct anemia

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50
Q

Tx used in ovarian cancer and an adjuvant in breast cancer that hyperstablizes microtubules?

A

Paclitaxel

Specific to M phase

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51
Q

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) is type 3 acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) is characterized by which translocation?

A

t (15;17)

fusion of PML with retinoic acid receptor

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52
Q

To which family of molecules does the oncogene ras belong to?

A

GTP binding proteins
Ras is a g protein that cycles between the activated ras-GTP and inactive ras-GDP. Involved in signal transduction leading to cell growth, differentiation, and survival

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53
Q

What medication should be given to prevent the Cushings syndrome associated with small cell lung cancer?

A

Ketoconazole or metyrapone

Binds 11-b-hydroxylase in the adrenal and inhibits ACTH activity

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54
Q

Osteoblastic bone lesions are suggestive of which cancer in older men?

A

Prostatic adenocarcinoma

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55
Q

Osteolytic lesions are associated with which cancer?

A

Multiple myeloma

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56
Q

An oncologist recommends a drug that causes DNA strand breaks through formation of free radicals. What is the drug and what is the most severe toxicity?

A

Bleomycin - produces superoxide and hydroxide free radicals that lead to DNA cleavage
Toxicity - Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis (~10% of pts)

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57
Q

Which drugs are known to cause Pulmonary fibrosis?

A 
Busulfan
Bleomyacin
Amiodarone
Methotrexate
Nitrofurantoin
Radiation therapy to the chest
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58
Q

Pt presents with a palpable mass in the flank and multiple tumors in the lung. Removal of the mass shrinks the lung foci. Which immunotherapeutic agent would benefit this pt?

A

Recombinant IL-2 (aldesleukin)
Following removal of the renal cell carcinoma (RCC) pts often have immune-mediated antitumor activity
IL-2 stimulates T cell proliferation and augments this response

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59
Q

Pt presents with dizziness, tinnitus, and poor balance x 3 mo presents with a mass at the cerebellopontine angle. Bx = compact areas of spindle cells with pink cytoplasm that form whorls and palisades

A

Acoustic Schwannoma

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60
Q

A toddler presents with a nontender mass in the abdomen. Also partial loss of the child’s iris. Dx?

A

WAGR syndrome
Wilms tumor
Aniridia (partial or complete lack of the iris)
Genital anomalies (Gonadal dysgenesis, hypospadias, cyrptorchidism)
Mental retardation

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61
Q

52 y/o woman presents with eczematous and ulcerated lesion of the left nipple. What should she be evaluated for?

A

Pt is presenting with Paget dz of the breast and should be evaluated for Ductal breast carcinoma (always present in paget’s)
Bx of paget’s halo-like cells

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62
Q

How do most tumors become resistant to chemotherapy?

A

Tumor cell alteration of the drug target

Chemo selects for cells that are insensitive the same way abx do with bacteria

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63
Q

Two types of cancer associated with Rb

A

Retinoblastoma (eye)
Osteosarcoma
LOF
RB binds and inactivates E2F and accelerates cell cycle progression

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64
Q

A pt with BRCA1 mutation begins chemo and experiences myelosuppression that is reversed Leucovorin. What was the chemo drug?

A

Methotrexate
S phase
Folic acid analog and inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
AE = myelosuppresion

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65
Q

A pt presents with Barrett esophagus. What medication should they start?

A

Precursory to esophageal adenocarcinoma. Intestinal epithelium replaces normal squamous epithelium.
Tx - omeprazole

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66
Q

A pt presents with B syx, lymphadenopathy, and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. Dx?

A 
Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular sclerosing subtype
mediastinal lymphadenopathy = sclerosing subtype
Lacunar cells (a variant of RS) cytoplasmic retraction occurs during tissue fixation and calloagen deposition
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67
Q

What is the MOA of Rituximab?

A

mAB against CD 20 (B lymphocytes)

Used in follicular lymphoma

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68
Q

t(11;14)

A

Mantle cell lymphoma

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69
Q

t(15;17)

A

Acute pro-myelocytic leukemia

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70
Q

Tx regimen for prostate cancer?

A

Eliminate Ball cancer
Etoposide
Bleomycin (or Ifosfamide)
Cisplatin

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71
Q

When is tamoxafin contraindicated?

A

SERM, estrogen antagonist in breast but estrogen agonist in endometrium bone and hepatic tissue
Do not use in women at risk for endometrial carcinoma (ie still has their uterus)

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72
Q

A pt presenting with gout shortly after initiating cytotoxic chemotherapy has what and has risk of developing?

A

Tumor lysis syndrome - increased uric acid, potassium, phosphate and decreased calcium
Risk of dangerous cardiac arrhythmia due to excess K+
Tx with allopurinol, glucose, insulin

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73
Q

Most common cause of vaginal bleeding in a post menopausal woman?

A

Endometrial cancer

Greatest risk factor - Tamoxifen use

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74
Q

Pt presents with episodic bouts of sweating, tachycardia, and HTN. Father and brother had similar syx. Dx and what else is she likely to develop?

A

Pheochromocytoma
Confirm dx with urine catecholamines and vanillylmandelic acid
Likely to be either MEN2A or MEN2B and pt is at risk of developing - thyroid and parathyroid cancer (2A) or thyroid and multiple mucosal neuromas (2B)

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75
Q

Pt presents with back pain, jaundice, fever, night sweats, anorexia. Strange swelling in arms and legs lasting days and then arising in a new place. Dx the tumor and what is causing the vascular pathology?

A

Dx - pancreatic cancer
Causing a neoplastic syndrome called Trousseau’s syndrome:
migratory thrombophlebitis due to liberation of clotting factors (ie tissue factor)

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76
Q

What two things should make you think of pancreatic cancer

A

Smoking, obstructive jaundice

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77
Q

What is Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

Caused by a gastrinoma (gastrin secreting tumor of the pancreas or duodenum), often presents as duodenal ulcers (epigastric pain relieved by eating)
Associated with MEN1

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78
Q

A smoking pt presents with a FHx significant for paternal grandfather with a MI, breast cancer in his sister. He presents with flank tenderness and a palpable mass. Dx?

A

Renal Cell Carcinoma (histology = unusually clear cells with cytoplasm rich in lipids and glycogen)
Increased incidence of RCC in smokers and pts with VHL

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79
Q

A pt with CML is at risk of developing if the condition progresses?

A

DIC occurs shortly before blast crisis in all types of leukemia

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80
Q

Expression of which tumor cell protein determines if a pt will respond to tamoxifen

A

Estrogen receptors (and or progesterone)
Correlates with better prognosis
If a breast tumor has estrogen receptors it will require antiestrogen therapy regardless of its staging

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81
Q

Pt presents with jaundice and epigastric pain with a palpable nontender gallbladder. What should you be concerned about?

A

Pancreatic cancer
Courvoisier sign = jaundice + palpable nontender gallbladder
This sign is strongly associated with pancreatic cancer
Tx = resection

82
Q

What is the function of the t(14;18) fusion protein?

A

chr 14 = Ig heavy chain

chr 18 = bcl-2, prevents apoptosis

83
Q

MOA of doxorubicin?

A

DNA intercalation

Also daunorubicin

84
Q

Bx of a lung lesion with scant cytoplasm, areas of necrosis, and “salt and pepper” nuclei

A

Small cell carcinoma

85
Q

Pt presents with dysarthria, worsening HA, n/v. MRI shows area of necrosis and localized edema. On bx - foci of necrosis amid highly anaplastic pseudopalisading cells

A

Glioblastoma multiforme
Most common malignant brain tumor in adults
Characterized by hemorrhagic and necrotic foci surrounded by pseudopalisading cells

86
Q

MOA of exemestane?

A

aromatoase inhibitor
prevents conversion of testosterone to estradiol and androstenedione to estrone.
Used in post menopausal women with hormone-responsive breast cancer
Use after a tomoxifen regimen

87
Q

During treatment of multiple myeloma a pt states that he has been stumbling and feeling tingling in his feet. Which drug caused this?

A

Vincristine

Causes neurotoxicity including areflexia and peripheral neuritis

88
Q

Bx of ovarian masses demonstrate malignant cells with an off-center nucleus and stains heavily for mucin. Where did this metastasize from?

A

The stomach

This is a krukenberg tumor and the ovary is a site for metastasis for gastric adenocarcinomas

89
Q

A pt presenting with n/v and diarrhea following methotrexate use should be supplemented with?

A

Folinic acid = leucovorin

Counters the myelosuppresive effect of methotrexate

90
Q

18 y/o presents with inability to balance and retinal hemangioblastomas. FHx significant for a mom with a brain tumor. What else is he likely to develop?

A

Renal Cell Carcinoma

VHL = hemangioblastoma + bilateral RCC (flank pain, palpable mass, hematuria)

91
Q

36 y/o Asian male presents with a demyelinating dz with bilateral lower extremity weakness, back pain, and urinary incontinence. Gradual progression over years. Eczamatous exudative rash affecting his scalp, axillaie, and groin. Hypercalcemia. Which virus caused this?

A

Juman T cell Lymphotrophic virus 1
Causes adult T lymphocyte leukemia and myelopathy
Adult TLL commonly presents with skin lesions and lytic bone lesions which can lead to hypercalcemia
Myelopathy = progressive course including lower extremities, back, and urinary incontinence

92
Q

Where do Wilm’s tumors originate from?

A

Embryonic renal cells from the embryonic kidney (metanephros)
Deletion of the tumor suppressor gene WT1 on chromosome 11

93
Q

With a Dx of choriocarcinoma, what tx should the pt initiate?

A

Methotrexate

94
Q

What AE’s suggest that a pt needs leucovorin rescue following methotrexate tx?

A

Pt presents with mild icterus, enlarged red painful tongue, sores in the corners of the mouth

95
Q

4 y/o presents with projectile vomiting and HA following a 2 month history of increasing clumsiness. Nystagmus in all direction and truncal ataxia. What is the dx and histology?

A

Medulloblastoma
Arises in the cerebellum and is associated with increased intracranial pressure
histology = deep staining nuclei with scant cytoplasm (sheets of anaplastic cells with deeply staining nuclei) arranged in pseudorosettes (Homer-wright rosettes)

96
Q

EBC is associated with which conditions?

A

heterophile + mononucleosis
Oral hairy leukoplakia in HIV +
Lymphoproliferative disorders (Hodgkin and non-hodgkin lymphomas)
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

97
Q

Exposure to aniline dye increases risk of?

A

Aniline dye aka naphtalene increases risk of Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder
Syx = hematuria, dysuria, incontinence

98
Q

What is the histology of the cancer that is the leading cause of both men and women

A

Lung adenocarcinoma

Glandular differentiation or mucin production with possible bronchoalveolar spread

99
Q

What is the histology of the most common form of breast cancer?

A

Ducatal carcinoma in situ

Malignant cells limited to ducts and lobules with calcification present

100
Q

What is the MOA of leuprolide?

A

Use in prostate cancer
GnRH agonist that binds the receptor constantly. Initially increases gonadotropin levels, but in the long term decreases FSH and LH

101
Q

A pt with epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (ERBB2) positive breast cancer be treated?

A

ERBB2 = Her 2
tx with trastuzumab. mAb against ERBB2.
Ab dependent cytotoxicity

102
Q

N-myc

A

Neuroblastoma
Malignancy of neural crest cells
2nd most common childhood malignancy in the adrenal medulla

103
Q

What would be found on kidney bx of a pt with Multiple myeloma?

A

Fibrillary deposits in the mesgangium and subendothelium that stain positive with Congo red (apple green birefringence)
Multiple myeloma can lead to systemic primary amyloidosis

104
Q

Which two lung cancers have a strong association with smoking?

A

Squamous cell
Small cell
Lung cancer is the leading cause of Superior vena cava syndrome

105
Q

A pt with a tumor in the apex of the right lung has a fixed and dilated tumor. Where is the compression?

A

Pancoast tumor

Compression of second-order (pregang) sympathetic neuron causes Horner syndrome

106
Q

A young pt presents with many polyps on colonoscopy. Dx and at risk of developing?

A 
Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
AD, chr 5
Rectal bleeding in  a 20-40 y/o
Assoc with:
Turcot syndrome - risk of CNS tumors
Gardner syndrome - thyroid, liver, and kidney cancer
107
Q

A woman following resection of an ER+ breast tumor is put on chemo to prevent relapse. What is the drug and potential AE’s?

A

Raloxifene, SERM

can produce syx of menopause in a premenopausal woman (ie hot flashes)

108
Q

AE associated with methotrexate use?

A

Megaloblastic anemia, myelosuppresion

requires Leucovorin rescue to replace folic acid metabolites

109
Q

A pt presents with a swollen abdomen and appears icteric. She is HCV, HBV negative and has never consumed alcohol. She is an immigrant from china. What carcinogen is likely responsible?

A

Aflatoxin
Intercalates into host DNA
Produced by Aspergillus flavus growing on peanuts
Still a problem in Asia and Africa

110
Q

Which factor that is overexpressed in many tumors is essential for angiogensis?

A

Vascular endothelial growht Factor (VEGF)
Required for metastasis
antagonists = sorafenib, sunitinib

111
Q

What tumor marker is elevated in hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Elevated alpha fetoprotein
RF’s for HCC = HBV, HCV, Wilson’s, hemochromatosis, alcoholic cirrhosis, alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency, aflatoxin
AFP is also a marker in germ cell tumors (yolk sac)

112
Q

Bx of an ovarian tumor reveals mature and immature follicles. Dx?

A

Stuma ovarii
Monodermal teratoma
present with hyperthyroidism syx
Increased risk of malignant thyroid carcinoma

113
Q

What increases a woman’s risk for breast cancer?

A

Late menopause (>55)
Older female
Early menarche (30)
FHx of first degree relative with breast cancer at a young age

114
Q

Which therapy used in prostate cancer can cause pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Bleomycin

Generates free radicals that bind DNA and causes breaks

115
Q

A pt reports muscle weakness that improves with use. What malignancy is this associated with?

A

Small cell lung carcinoma

Lambert-Eaton syndrome = paraneoplastic dz

116
Q

A pts mammography is positive for a micro-calcifcation that is suggestive of infiltrating ductal carcinoma. What secondary method of prevention will reduce her mortatlity?

A

Annual mammography

Promotes early detection

117
Q

What is the function of the cell that carries the primary mutation in multiple myeloma

A

Produces Ab
Multiple myeloma is a cancer of plasma cells
Hypercalcemia, dehydration, ARF, anemia, bone pain. Punched out bony lesions

118
Q

A pt presents with weight loss, painless jaundice, and migratory thrombophlebitis. Dx?

A

Pancreatic cancer
Trousseau’s syndrome
painless enlargement of RUQ = enlarged gallbladder
Pt at increased risk of clotting events (DVT, PE)

119
Q

7 y/o presents with short stature, hypothyroid like syx, polyuria, bilateral pailledema TSH is low. MRI shows an enhancing multilobulated suprasellar mass with ring calcification in the sella turcica. Dx?

A

Craniopharyngioma
Most common supratentorial tumor in children.
Present with increased ICP (HA, n/v), endocrine dysfunction (DI, stunted growth), and visual disturbances
Tx - surgery or radiation

120
Q

A pt presents with a lesion suspicious of melanoma and some neurological syx: wobbly gait, peripheral neuropathy. Dx?

A

Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP)
Defective nucleotide excision repair proteins
Numerous melanomas, basal cell, and squamous cell carcinomas at a young age.
Cross linking of pyrimidine residues due to UV radiation
20% of XP pts have neuro syx

121
Q

Which cell cycle nonspecific alkylating agent can be used in the management of CML?

A

Busulfan
Inhibits DNA synthesis by crosslinking
Toxicity = pulmonary fibrosis, hyperpigmentation, seizures.

122
Q

5 days following initiation of chemotherapy a pt presents with flank pain, dysuria, vomiting, and altered mental status. On labs: hyperkalemic, hyperphosphatemia, high uric acid. What drug should have been given for prophylaxis?

A

Allopurinol
Tumor lysis syndrome = electrolyte abnormalities
Allopurinol will block uric acid synthesis by inhibiting xanthine oxidase

123
Q

If a pt has blastic bone lesions due to prostatic adenoma, what would be seen on labs for:
PSA, Ca2+, Alk Phos

A

High PSA and Alk Phos
Low Calcium
Alk phos is high when bone is being made

124
Q

A heavy smoker is at risk for which type of bladder cancer?

A

Transitional cell carcinoma
Most common bladder cancer
Painless hematuria is highly suggestive of cancer in adults
Histology: increased epithelial cell layers with abn maturation from basal layer to superficial
Other RFs: Radiation (prostate tx), cyclophosphamide, aniline

125
Q

On endoscopy a bx is taken from a red, irregular lesion in the distal esophagus. What findings are likely?

A

Barret’s esophagus, benign metaplasia of the distant esophagus
squamous cells of the esophagus -> goblet and simple columnar cells of the GI tract (mucin +)

126
Q

A boy is dx’d with large B lymphocyte lymphoma. What tx is he likely to receive?

A

Rituximab
anti CD20 Ab
advanced dz would be treated with R-chop: Rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, prednisone

127
Q

A woman being treated for ovarian cancer is presenting with hearing loss. What tx is she receiving?

A

Cisplatin
Alkylating-like agent that Cross-links DNA and denatures the helix structure
Cell cycle non specific
Used in testicular, bladder, ovarian, and lung carcinoma
Toxicity - nephrotoxicity and acoustic nerve damage

128
Q

Following a lumpectomy a pt is started on tamoxifen, what are the major side effects?

A 
Increases endometrial hyperplasia and cancer
Inhibits osteoclasts (prevents osteoporosis)
129
Q

Tartrate-resistant acid phophatase (TRAP) is a marker for?

A

Hairy cell leukemia
Low grade B cell neoplasm causing bone marrow suppresion -> anemia, thrombocytopenia which causes easy fatigue and bruising and splenomegaly
On flow HCl cells are CD25/CD11c +

130
Q

Thyroid cancer with psammoma bodies and “orphan annie” nuclei

A

Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
RF - exposure to ionizing radiation
“Cold” lesion on scintiscan
Good prognosis

131
Q

Where does the classical complement cascade bind to IgG?

A

C1 molecule will initiate the complement cascade by binding to the Fc region of the HEAVY Ig chain, near the hinge region. Can bind IgG or IgM
Phagocytic cells bind the Fc region of the light chains

132
Q

What lab finding could be expected in Hemolytic uremic syndrom following Ecoli infection?

A

Elevated serum indirect bilirubin

133
Q

Peak of gamma-globulin on electrophoresis, anemia (fatigue/weakness), lytic bone lesions (back pain), renal insufficiency (amyloid deposition, hypercalcemia)

A

Multiple myeloma

Plasma cell neoplasm

134
Q

Which 5 receptors are involved in the regulation of vomiting?

A 
M1
D2
H1
5-HT3
Neurokinin 1 (NK1)
135
Q

Blocking which two receptors is particularly useful in pts with persistent chemo induced vomiting?

A

5HT3

NK1

136
Q

A pt presents with fatigue and palpitations x 6 months. She is stressed, has a poor diet due to time, postmenopausal, no stool changes. Hgb 8.5 and hypochromic microcytes on smear. Dx?

A

Iron deficiency anemia due to occult blood loss
occult loss does not always present with dark or bright red stools, so don’t rule out GI bleed just because she doesn’t have stool changes
check - ferritin, TIBC, and order endoscopy

137
Q

What is the function of neuropeptide Y?

A

Polypeptide neurotransmitter found in the central and autonomic nervous systems. Role in apetite and pain perception.
Potential target for obesity drugs

138
Q

A HIV pt is given a drug that is structurally unrelated to nucleosides and is not phosphorylated intracellularly. Inhibits synthesis of DNA from RNA. What is the drug?

A

Nevirapine, efavirenz
Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Do NOT require activation by phospharylation
AEs - hepatic failure, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis

139
Q

MOA of zidovudine and emtricitabine?

A

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors. Must be converted to monophosphate form before they become active

140
Q

MOA of enfuvirtide?

A

HIV fusion inhibitor
Blocks gp41 fusion
Site of action is outside of the cytoplasm

141
Q

MOA of ritonavir?

A

HIV protease. Presents viral assembly and maturation

142
Q

A pt dies due to infection. At autopsy he has bone deformities and hepatosplenomagaly. Clumps of erythroid precursor cells are in the liver and spleen. What caused this?

A

Chronic hemolysis
erythroid precursors in liver and spleen = extramedullary hematopoiesis
Associated with chronic hemolytic anemias

143
Q

A kid with beta thalassemia major has a live bx that shows Kupffer cells with coarse, yellowish-brown cytoplasmic granules. What is in these granules?

A

Hemosiderin
Iron overload is a common complication of chronic hemolytic anemia and frequent blood transfusions. Chelation therapy is indicated to reduce parenchymal iron deposition.

144
Q

In iron deficiency anemia, what is the level of: ferritin, transferrin, MCV?

A

Low Ferritn, MCV
High Transferrin
Transferrin = TIBC

145
Q

54 y/o presents with progressive general weakness and easy fatigability x 2mo. PE - pallor, abdominal distension, massive splenomegaly with the splenic tip crossing the midline. Pancytopenia on labs. Unable to aspirate bone marrow. Dx and findings on smear?

A

Hairy cell leukemia
Lymphocytes with cytoplasmic projections
Indolent B cell neoplasm predominantly found in middle aged men.
Bone marrow filure, infiltration into the reticuloendothelial system causes massive splenomegaly, “dry taps”,

146
Q

In colon cancer, which feature would suggest the worst prognosis?

A

Tumor penetration into the muscularis propria
Prognosis in all cancers is related to stage, not grade (differentiation)
Stage A - confined to mucosa
C - lymph node involvement
D - distant metastasis
C and D are bad news

147
Q

What enzyme helps tumors invade through the basement membranes and access the circulation?

A

Metalloproteinases
Zinc-containing enzymes that degrade the ECM.
Participate in normal tissue remodeling but tumors can exploit their activity to metastasize

148
Q

How do tumor cells increase adhesion to the GBM?

A

increased expression of laminin

149
Q

How do tumors detach from the surrounding cells?

A

decreased E-cadherin expression

150
Q

Dapsone has the ability to cause hemolytic anemia in which demographic?

A

Pts with G6PD deficiency

151
Q

What is the MOA of rasuricase?

A

Converts uric acid into a more soluble metabolite
Rasuricase = recombinant version of urate oxidase that is not present in humans, but occurs naturally in many mammals. It converts uric acid to allantoin which is soluble and excreted in urine
Tumor lysis syndrome = hyper P, K, uricemia and hypocalcemia
Prevention = hydration and hypouricemic agents like allopurinol or rasburicase

152
Q

Pt presents with sudden abdominal pain and ascites. Labs: anemia, reticulocytosis, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia. Flow - CD 55, CD 59 deficiency. Hepatic v. thrombosis on CT. Dx?

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Anemia is due to acitvation of complement
Triad of hemolytic anemia + hypercoagulability + pancytopenia = PNH
PIGA mutation = absence of glycosylphophatidylinositol anchor and associated deficiency of CD55/CD59 complement inhibitor proteins

153
Q

Hepatic v. thrombosis AKA?

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

154
Q

A child with frequent infections has very low serum levels of all immunoglobulin types. But, child does develop a large indurated nodule withing 48 hours of a intradermal inj of Candida Ag. Dx and he has a lack of which structures?

A

X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton)
Lack of germinal centers in the lymph node
Defect in B cell maturation causes a sever Ig deficiency but T cell function remains intact.
Due to the absence of B cells, primary lymphoid follicles and germinal centers will not form in the lymph nodes

155
Q

A highly vascularized tumor in the normal liver parenchyma was reliant on what substance for its vascular development?

A
  1. Vascular endothelial growth factor

2. Fibroblast growth factor -

156
Q

A SLE pt presents with a nonocclusive thrombus in the R. popliteal v. Labs show increased PTT. Dx?

A

Antiphospholipid antibody syndome (lupus anticoagulant)
Ab against platelet phospholipids causing an increase in coagulation time.
Causes prolonged bleeding time despite causing clotting in vivo
Assoc with recurrent thrombosis and miscarriages

157
Q

8 year old boy presents with small stature, severe HA, decreased visual fields bilaterally. CT shows a calcified cyst in the suprasellar region compressing the pituitary stalk. What would be expected on labs?

A

Growth hormone deficiency
Craniopharyngioma is the most common childhood supretentorial tumor. Presents with HA and bitemporal hemianopia. Derived from remnants of Rathke pouch and can appear as a calcified cyst

158
Q

An in vitro study identified a tumor cell line that become resistant after exposure to various anticancer agents. The cells expressed an cell surface glycoprotein that had what function?

A

ATP dependent transporter
Human multidrug resistance (MDR1) gene codes for P-glycoprotein, a transmembrane ATP dependent efflux pump protein with a broad specificty for hydrophobic compounds. Reduces influx of of drugs into the cytosol and increases efflux from the cytosol
Verapamil, diltiazem, and ketaconazole decrease the action of this transporter

159
Q

Pt presents with sudden onset of numbness over one arm and side of her face. She has had weakness, HA, SOB x several days. Strength and reflexes are intact. On labs she has low Hgb, Platelets with elevated BUN and Cr. PT and PTT WNL and urine + for RBCs and protein, schistocytes on smear. Dx and pathogenesis?

A

Thrombotic Thrombytopenic purpura
Impaired regulation of vWF (ADAMTS13 mutation)
ADAMTS13 usually cleaves vWF but the uncleaved multimers are more prothrombotic and cause microvascular thrombosis, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and thrombocytopenia.

160
Q

If you see a pt with anemia with schistocytes, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury you should think….?

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

ADAMTS13 deficiency leads to a defect in vWF cleavage/inactivation

161
Q

Main medication for post chemo nausea?

A

Ondansetron
5-HT3 antagonist
These receptors are on the presynaptic terminals of the vagus nerve in the GI tract.

162
Q

A OSA pt has polycythemia due to decreased oxygen delivery to which organ?

A

Kidney

Hypoxia is sensed by renal cortical cells and they release erythropoietin.

163
Q

Following exposure to CCl4 liver tissue shows fatty change and necrosis. Why?

A

Free radical injury
P450 system in the liver usually oxidizes substances like this to detoxify the blood, but oxidation of CCl4 causes free radicals that react with structural lipids causing their degradation and formation of H2O2 (lipid peroxidation). The peroxides form new radicals and continue the vicious cycle

164
Q

Irreversible Cox1 and Cox2 inhibitor?

A

Aspirin
Inhibits via acetylation
NSAIDs = reversible

165
Q

Pt presents with fatigue and pallor. Labs: low Hgb, erythrocyte count, MCV, and reticulocytes. fe and B12 WNL and BM bx shows absence of erythroid precursors but preserved myeloid and megakaryocytic elements. Dx?

A

Thymic tumor
Pure red cell aplasia is a form of bone marrow failure due to hypoplasia of marrow erythroid elements with normal leukocythes and platelets. Associated with thymoma, lymphocytic leukemias, and parvo B19
Removal of tumor cures (PRCA)

166
Q

Osteosclerotic lesions suggest?

A

Blastic bone growth - suspect Prostate adenocarcinoma

Lucent bone = lytic = MM

167
Q

MOA of raltegravir?

A

Integrase inhibitor

Prevents the use of host cell machinery from being hijacked to synthesize HIV mRNA

168
Q

Pt presents with abdominal pain and MRI reveals mesenteric v. thrombosis. Labs low Hgb, platelets, haptoglobine and high Total bili, lactate dehydrogenase. Flow shows cD55 absence on RBCS. What is the most likely pathologic renal finding?

A

Hemosiderosis
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria - due to gene defect causing uncontrolled complement mediated hemolysis.
Triad = hemolytic anemia (hemoglobinuria), pancytopenia, and thrombosis in weird sites.
Chronic hemolysis = iron deposition in kidney (Hemosiderosis)

169
Q

67 y/o presents with back pain and fatigue and pain is worse when lying flat.
Hgb - 8.5
Serum Cr - 2.2
Serum Ca 2+ - 10.6
He is tx with boronic acid-containing dipeptide with high affinity for the catalytic site of proteasome. tx causes?

A

Cell apoptosis
Pt has MM - plasma cells produce large amounts of mIg. These neoplastic plasma cells are particularly susceptible to proteasome inhibition due to the large amount of proteins they manufacture. This leads to accumulation of toxic intracellular and proapoptotic proteins increases cellular apoptosis
Boronic acid containing bipeptide = bortezomib

170
Q

LN bx stains for cytokeratin. What cell lineage is the mass from?

A

Epithelial

171
Q

Myeloperoxidase is a marker for?

A

Myeloid cells

172
Q

Vimentin is a marker for?

A

Intermediate filament present in mesenchymal tissue

173
Q

Chromogranin A is a marker for?

A

Neuron-specific enolase

Marker for neuroendocrine tumors

174
Q

A female has a strong FHx of ovarian and uterine cancer and LN bx stained + for cytokeratin and also overexpress a 185kD glycoprotein. The protein spans the cell membrane and has inctracellular tyrosine kinase activity. Fxn?

A

Accelerates cell proliferation
Her2/neu oncogene encodes for a 185 kD transmembrane glycoprotein that has intracellular tyrosine kinase acitivty. Member of the family of epidermal growth factor receptors. Overexpression -> increased rates of breast and ovarian Cancer

175
Q

A non-small cell lung cancer can have consecutive tumor kinase activity due to a fusion protein (EML4-ALK) that promotes carcinogenesis. This is most similar to?

A

CML
t(9;22), BCR-ABL - fusion protein with constitutive tyrosine kinase activity
Tx - Imatinib

176
Q

Tx of Non small cell lung cancer?

A

Crizotinib
Targets the kinase activity of EML4-ALK fusion protein
Dz affects young female non-smokers
Not a translocation

177
Q

12 y/o boy presents with HA and gait instability x mo. MRI finds a large mass with cystic and solid areas in the cerebellum. Dx?

A 
Pilocytic astrocytoma
Most common brain tumor in kids
Astrocytes
Cystic and solid components on MRI
Pilocytic astrocytes and rosenthal fibers
Good prognosis
178
Q

If you see a cerebellar tumor in a child what is your differential?

A

Pilocytic astrocytoma - cystic and solid on MRI

Medulloblastoma - always solid on MRI

179
Q

Describe medulloblastomas

A

Second most common brain tumor of childhood, but most common malignant childhood brain tumor
Only in the cerebellum (usually vermis)
Solid on MRI
Sheets of small blue cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and scant cytoplasm
Highly malignant, poor prognosis
HA and cerebellar dysfunction

180
Q

Describe ependymomas

A

3rd most common brain tumor in kids
Ependymal lining of the ventricle and can obstruct flow of CSF.
Present with hydrocephalus
Gland like “rosettes”

181
Q

Pt presents with back pain and B syx with a lytic lesion over a vertebral body. Genetics show a single point mutation causing an activation mutation that promotes high replication rates in the cells. Which gene is involved?

A

KRAS

activation of proto-oncogenes leads to cell proliferation

182
Q

What happens when you have a PM in a tumor suppresor gene?

A

Get an inactivation mutation that eliminates regulation of the cell cycle (APC, BRCA1, RB, TP53

183
Q

24 y/o female presents with fever, dyspnea, and productive cough with yellow sputum x 3 days. Bronchial breath sounds and crackles in RLQ.
High leukocytes with a predominance of banded PMNs and lymphocytes. Leukocyte alkaline phosphate is elevated. What would be on smear?

A

Basophilic oval inclusion in mature PMN’s (Dohle bodies)
Leukemoid rxn is a benign leukocytosis in response to infection, malignancy, or acute hemolysis. Leukocyte alk phos can be increased or wNL.
Smear = increased bands, early mature PMN precursors,a nd granules (Dohle bodies) in the PMNs
Blue = ribosomes bound to RER
Associated with sepsis

184
Q

A pt presents with left sided Horner syndrome. What type of cancer do they have and where is the mass?

A

Adenocarcinoma in the apex of the left lung

NOTE: ipsilateral adenocarcinoma

185
Q

A boy presents with fatigue, easy bruising, and frequent epistaxis x 2 weeks. He is pancytopenic. Dx?

A

Idiopathic aplastic anemia
Usually due to a toic effect or autoimmune response causing apoptosis of pluripotent stem cells (pancytopenia)
Bx - hypocellularity with abundance of fat cells

186
Q

What is the most common indolent non-Hodgkin lymphoma in adults?

A 
Follicular lymphoma
B cell origin
Painless waxing and waning lymphadenopathy
t(14;18)
bcl-2 overexpression
187
Q

East African with a rapidly enlarging left jaw mass. Bx = numberous mitotic figures and apoptotic bodies are observed on histopathologic exam. Dx and genetics?

A

Burkitt Lymphoma
c-Myc oncogene overexpression
“starry sky” = macrophages and apoptotic bodies in a sea of medium sized lymophocytes
t(8;14)

188
Q

8 y/o presents with dyspnea, tachypnea, inspiratory stridor, dysphagia. Hematopoietic cells (blasts) on smear. The neoplastic cells in this condition normally give rise to?

A

T lymphocytes
Blast cells in periphery = leukemia
ALL is the most common malignancy of childhood. Most are B-ALL but T-ALL is a mediastinal mass that can cause respiratory syx, dysphagia, and SVC syndrome

189
Q

A mAb is designed to block a specific cell surface receptor on T cells facilitating the destruction of cancer cells by T cells capable of recognizing tumor ag. What is the surface receptor?

A

Programmed death receptor (PD-1) binds to its ligand (PDL-1) to Downregulate the immune response against tumor cells by inhibiting cytotoxic T cells. Many cancers evade the immune response by over expressing PD-L1
mABs that block Pd-1 help prevent T cell inhibition and promote apoptosis of the tumor cells.

190
Q

A woman presents with a breast tumor that is:
Estrogen receptor +
Progesterone receptor +
Human Epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (3+/overexpressed)
mAB therapy is started, what is the most likely target of the drug?

A

Tyrosine kinase receptor
HER2 is a tyrosine kinase receptor that is overexpressed in 20% of breast cancer pts.
Blockade with trastuzumab downregulates cellular proliferation and promotes apoptosis

191
Q

Pt presents with low RBCs, low platelets, low WBCS but normal PT, PTT following a URI. What would be seen on Bone marrow bx?

A

Hypocellular marrow filled with fat cells and marrow stroma
Aplastic anemia -> pan cytopenia and bone marrow is replaced by fat cells
Absence of splenomegaly
Typically produces a dry tap

192
Q

Female presents with multiple DVT events but normal PTT. PTT remains normal after administration of Protein C in vitro. Dx?

A

Factor V Leiden
Inherited
Va becomes resistant to inactivation by activated protein C.

193
Q

A pt in renal failure begins to bleed from his catheter site. What lab values are expected?

A

Prolonged Bleedign time
PT, PTT, Platelet count all WNL
Pt has uremia - suspect this in pts with significat renal dysfunction. Uremic toxin impair platelet aggregation and adhesion
Qualitative platelet disorder
Dialysis removes the toxins and partially reverses this

194
Q

Anemia with parathesia?

A

B 12 deficiency

195
Q

Pt has a loss of expression mutation affecting a protein found on the basolateral surface of hepatocytes and enterocytes. Dx?

A 
Primary hemochromatosis (HFE protein mutation)
Inactivation of HFE causes decreased hepcidin synthesis by hepatocytes because the cells think that there is an iron deficiency. This leads to increased DMT1 expression by enterocytes leading to iron overload.  
At increased risk for liver cirrhosis and HCC
196
Q

Pt has several enlarged hard lymph nodes in the right inguinal area inferior to the inguinal ligament. Bx shows malignant cells. Where is the original tumor?

A

Orifice of the anal canal
Most of the cutaneous lymph from the umbilicus down drains into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes
Testes drain into the para-aortic and those nodes are much deeper

197
Q

Which cells secrete a substance that controls iron storage and release by other cells in iron homeostasis?

A

Hepatic parenchymal cells
Secrete hepcidin which is the central regulator of iron homeostasis. High iron levels = high hepcidin. Interacts with ferroportin to store and disperse iron

198
Q

Which anti-inflammatory agent will not impair platelet aggregation

A

Celecoxib
Selective Cox 2 inhibitor, no side effects of bleeding and gastrointestinal ulcers
Cox 1 has a physiologic role in many tissues, but Cox 2 is preferentially expressed at sites of inflammation

199
Q

define anaplastic tumors

A

Bear no remeblance to their cell of origin

200
Q

B cells originate from which region of the lymph node?

A

Germinal centers

X-linked (Bruton) agammaglobulinemia, defect in B cell maturation

201
Q

Which enzyme inactivates 6-mercaptopurine?

A

Xanthine oxidase
*Allowpurinol increases the concentration of 6-MP
6-MP requires activation by HGPRT

202
Q

Why do pts with von Willebrand dz have bleeding cessation following desmopressin administration?

A

Increase in endothelial protein release
desmopressin alleviates bleeding through endothelial release of vWF
vWD = AD

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