Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

What is Meig’s syndrome (3 things)?

What is the natural history?

A
  1. Benign ovarian tumour
  2. Ascites
  3. Pleural effusion

Fluids resolve if tumour is removed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What gene mutation is commonly found in a large proportion of human cancers?

A

p53 gene mutation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cetuximab - what is the receptor target and what are the indications for this drug (3)?

A

EGFR receptor INHIBITOR

3 cancers:

  1. Metastatic colorectal cancer
  2. Metastatic NSCLC (non-small cell lung cancer)
  3. Head and neck cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an potential adverse effect of Bleomysin?

How often does this occur?

A
  • Life-threatening Interstitial lung disease.

- 10% of patients that receive drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Capecitabine is a oral pro-drug, what is it enzymatically converted into?

A

5-FU (5-fluorouracil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What 2 cancers is Capecitabine used for?

A

Colorectal and Breast cancer

NB: off label use in Oesophageal and Gastric cancers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the MOA of taxanes?

Which part of the cell cycle does it act?

A
  • Disruption of microtubule action / mitotic inhibitors

- M-phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Patient presents with subacute onset of ataxia, dizziness and vertigo on background of weight loss and B-symptoms. What to you suspect?

A

Paraneoplastic cerebeller degeneration - autoimmune reaction to purkinje cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

For the following panel done for work-up of paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration what are the corresponding neoplasms:

Anti-Yo
Anti-Hu
Anti-Ri
Anti-Tr
Anti-CV2
Anti-Ma
A
Anti-Yo = ovary / breast
Anti-Hu = SCLC
Anti-Ri = SCLC  / breast
Anti-Tr = Hodgkin's lymphoma
Anti-CV2 = SCLC
Anti-Ma = Testicular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

You suspect paraneoplastic syndrome in a patient with SCLC, what autoantibodies do you order (3)?

A

Anti-Hu
Anti- Ri
Anti- CV2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a SE of tacrolimus?

A

Diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the MOA of anthracycline?

A

Inhibition of topisomerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What feature of colonoscopy in a patient with IBD is a risk factor for colon cancer?

A

Colonic pseudopolyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the side effect of Oxaliplatin?

Which is the most severe?

A

Less severe: marrow toxicity, gastrointestinal toxicity and sensory neuropathy

Severe: anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Regarding squamous cell carcinomas:

  1. What is the p16 stain?
  2. Where is are these cancers most likely to occur?
  3. Does the p16 stain confer good or poor prognosis?
A
  1. What is the p16 stain?
    Surrogate for Human Papilloma Virus
  2. Where is are these cancers most likely to occur?
    Oropharaynx
  3. Does the p16 stain confer good or poor prognosis?
    Good prognosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which chemotherapy does NOT cause complete alopecia?

A

Cisplatin

Unlike (CoPED): Cyclophosphamide, Paclitaxel, Etoposide, Doxorubicin.

17
Q

Describe what happens in the following 5 phases of the cell cycle: G0, G1, S, G2, M

A

G0 = resting phase

G1 = growth

S = DNA replication

G2 = growth and preparation for division

M = mitosis (division of the nucleus) and cytokinesis (division of the cytoplasm)

18
Q

What are the 3 checkpoints within the cell cycle?

What are the conditions of ‘passing’ each checkpoint?

A

G1/S checkpoint:

  • DNA undamaged
  • cell size/nutrition/social signals adequate

S/G2 checkpoint:

  • DNA undamaged
  • Chromosome replication and activated MPF

M (metaphase) checkpoint:
- Chromosomes attached to spindle apparatus

19
Q

Which 4 phases does the M-phase (mitotic phase) consist of in chronological order?

A

PMAT:

Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase

20
Q

What types of cancers are the following genes associated with:

  1. BRCA1
  2. RET
  3. PTCH1
  4. CDH1
  5. VHL
A
  1. BRCA1 - triple negative breast cancer
  2. RET - papillary and non-medullary thyroid cancers
  3. PTCH1 - Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) of the skin
  4. CDH1 - Diffuse gastric cancer
  5. VHL - CNS haemangioblastoma
21
Q

Inactivation or loss of function of the RET-proto-oncogene leads to which disorder?

A

Hirschsprung disease

22
Q

Over-activation of the RET-proto-oncogene leads to which disorder?

A

MEN2 (PPH):

  • Phaeochromocytoma
  • Parathyroid tumour
  • Medullary thyroid cancer
23
Q

Somatic RET-proto-oncogene changes leads to which 2 types of thyroid carcinoma?

A
  • Papillary thyroid cancer

- Non-familial medullary thyroid cancer

24
Q

Which drug reduces the severity of chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy?

A

Duloxetine

25
Q

Trastuzumab (herceptin, HER2 receptor mAb) may induce reduction in LVEF.

Is this reversible?

A

Yes

26
Q

Doxorubicin (anthracycline) may induce reduction in LVEF.

Is this reversible?

A

No.

27
Q

T/F: Doxorubicin (anthracycline) related cardiomyopathy with usually declare itself within 1-3 years of administration of the chemotherapy.

A

False - often manifests >10 years post treatment.

28
Q

What is a potential SE of Bevacizumab (anti-VEGF mAb)?

A

HTN

29
Q

What is a potential cardiac complication of 5-FU?

A

coronary artery spasm

30
Q

What is a potential cardiac complication of cisplatin

A

Premature CAD

31
Q

Patient with good ECOG has stage II CRC that is node-negative.

When would adjuvant chemotherapy be offered?

A

Presence of high risk features e.g. presents with bowel perforation.

32
Q

According to the Khorona score, which 2 types of cancer score the higher and increase the risk of VTE in cancer patients?

A

Gastric and Pancreatic Cancers

33
Q

Patient has metastatic renal cell carcinoma.

What treatment is recommended?

What is a known SE of this drug?

A

Sunitinib (TKI) that may cause mucositis and diarrhoea.

34
Q

Patient on Sunitinib for metastatic renal cell carcinoma presents with severe mucositis and diarrhoea. What is the recommendation in the following scenarios:

  1. Able to tolerate PO fluid
  2. Unable to tolerate PO fluid
A
  1. Able to tolerate PO fluid
    Withold Sunitinib until mucositis and diarrhoea resolve, then recommence at same schedule at reduced dose.
  2. Unaable to tolerate PO fluid
    Admit for IVF and withold Sunitinib until mucositis and diarrhoea resolve, then recommence at same schedule at reduced dose.

-

35
Q

What drug classes do the following groups of drugs belong to:

  1. Gefitinib / Sorafenib
  2. Paclitaxel / Erlibulin
  3. Temozolomide
  4. Methotrexate
  5. Bleomycin / Doxorubicin / Mitomycin
A
  1. Gefitinib / Sorafenib = tyrosine kinase inhibitors
  2. Paclitaxel / Erlibulin = Anti-tubulin agent
  3. Temozolomide = Alkylating agent
  4. Methotrexate = Anti-metabolist
  5. Bleomycin / Doxorubicin / Mitomycin = Antibiotic