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362 Final Exam > Oncology > Flashcards

Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Cancer is the ___#____ leading cause of death in the US.

A

2nd

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2
Q

Leading cause of cancer death in men and women (2) are…?

A

Lung cancer, bronchus cancer

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3
Q

The 3 most common cancers in men are…?

A

1) Lung 2) Prostate 3) Colorectal

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4
Q

The 3 most common cancers in women are…?

A

1) Lung 2) Breast 3) Colorectal

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5
Q

Are benign tumor cells differentiated (resemble tissue of origin) or undifferentiated?

A

Benign tumor cells are well differentiated and resemble normal cells of the tissue from which they arose.

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6
Q

Are malignant tumor cells differentiated (resemble tissue of origin) or undifferentiated?

A

They are undifferentiated and do not resemble normal cells

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7
Q

What is the rate of growth (slow or fast) in a benign tumor?

A

Slow

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8
Q

What is the rate of growth (slow or fast) in a malignant tumor?

A

Rate of growth varies

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9
Q

Describe the growth pattern of malignant tumors. Describe the growth pattern of malignant tumors.

A

Growth occurs at the periphery of the tumor. The tumor sends out processes into surrounding tissues.

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10
Q

Describe the growth pattern of benign tumors.

A

They grow by expansion.

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11
Q

Which type of tumor will metastasize, benign or malignant?

A

Malignant tumors metastasize.

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12
Q

What happens when a malignant tumor outgrows it’s blood supply?

A

The tissue is damaged because of hypoxia, also the tumor may encroach on blood flow to the surrounding area.

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13
Q

What is a TSA?

A

Tumor Specific Antigen – protein on the membrane of the cancer cell that distinguishes malignant cell from benign cell of the same tisue type

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14
Q

Where is a TSA located

A

It is on the membrane of a cancer cell

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15
Q

How does the body differentiate between the cell membrane of a malignant tumor cell and a benign tumor cell?

A

Using Tumor-Specific Antigens, which are proteins on the membrane of the malignant cancer cell membrane

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16
Q

What is formation of new blood vessels called?

A

Angiogenesis

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17
Q

What is the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites called?

A

Metastasis

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18
Q

Can a hormonal agent be the cause of a cancer?

A

Yep

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19
Q

What happens if you eat a SALTY, RED STEAK, that has been PROCESSED, and SMOKED, and you don’t trim all the FAT off it, and then you eat 10 OF THEM, and then drink a BEER?

A

You get cancer

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20
Q

What are 7 dietary factors that appear to increase the risk of cancer?

A

Fats, alcohol, salt-cured/smoked meats, nitrate or nitrite containing foods, red meats, processed meats, high caloric intake

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21
Q

What level of prevention is this: Reduce risk of cancer through health promotion strategies

A

Primary

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22
Q

What level of prevention is this: Promote screening and early detection activities such as self-breast-exams

A

Secondary

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23
Q

What level of prevention is this: Monitor for and prevent recurrences of cancer, and lessen the severity of long term effects

A

Tertiary

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24
Q

What is the purpose of staging a tumor?

A

It classifies the extent of the disease.

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25
Q

What are the 3 criteria described by tumor staging?

A

Tumor SSSSize, tumor SSSSSpread, metaSStaSSSssSsisSSS.

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26
Q

What is the purpose of grading a tumor?

A

It defines the type of tissue from which the tumor Grew from. GGGGGGGGGGGGGGG for Grading, G for Grew from. Also G for oriGinated.

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27
Q

What does TNM stand for?

A

Tumor, nodes, and metastasis

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28
Q

What are the 3 treatment goals of cancer?

A

Cure, control, palliate

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29
Q

At what age should testing for cervical cancer begin?

A

Age 21

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30
Q

At what age, should adults recieve screening for colon cancer?

A

50 years of age

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31
Q

What time of the month should a woman perform a self-breast exam?

A

3-5 days after her period starts.

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32
Q

How often should women have a mammogram? At what age should they commence?

A

At age 40; annually.

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33
Q

Which race is at greater incidence of cancer, black or white?

A

Black

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34
Q

What does neoplasia mean?

A

Tumor (abnormal growth of cells)

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35
Q

What is the number 1 COD? What is the number2?

A

1 = cardiovascular disease 2 = cancer

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36
Q

At what age does cancer risk increase?

A

65+ have greater incidince of cancer

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37
Q

Are women or men more at risk for cancer?

A

Males

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38
Q

Adeno

A

gland

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39
Q

chondro

A

cartilage

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40
Q

erythro

A

red blood cell

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41
Q

hemanglo

A

blood vessels

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42
Q

hepato

A

liver

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43
Q

lipo

A

fat

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44
Q

melano

A

pigment cell

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45
Q

myelo

A

bone marrow

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46
Q

myo

A

muscle

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47
Q

osteo

A

bone

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48
Q

Tobacco use, diet, lifestyle choices, occupational exposures, environmental exposures are all MODIFIABLE/NONMODIFIABLE risk factors of cancer.

A

Modifiable

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49
Q

Environmental exposure is a MODIFIABLE/NONMODIFABLE risk factor of cancer.

A

Modifiable

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50
Q

Women between ages ____ - ____ should have a pap test every 3 years.

A

21-29

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51
Q

Women ages 30-65 should be receiving what two tests every 5 years?

A

HPV test, papa test

52
Q

Women over what age should no longer be tested for cervical cancer? (If they have had normal results in the past)

A

Age 65

53
Q

At what age should men start receiving prostate cancer screening?

A

age 50

54
Q

What is the PSA test for men?

A

Prostate specific antigen test

55
Q

What determines the frequency of prostate cancer screening in men?

A

The levels of PSA found

56
Q

The Fecal Occult Blood Test is performed yearly to test for ……????????

A

Colorectal cancer

57
Q

Should men or women have the FOBT for colorectal cancer?

A

Both men and women should get the Fecal Occult Blood Test yearly

58
Q

Another screening that is available for colorectal cancer is the Flexible Sigmoidoscopy (FSIG). How often should adults be screened?

A

Every five years

59
Q

At what age range should females perform self-breast exams?

A

20-39

60
Q

After age ____, women should get a clinical breast exam every year.

A

age 40

61
Q

At ages 20-39, how often should women receive a clinical breast exam?

A

every 3 years

62
Q

After age 40, how often should women receive a mammogram?

A

Q yr

63
Q

PSA, CEA, HCG, CA-125 are all…

A

Tumor Markers

64
Q

What is pathology testing?

A

A surgical procedure to get a tissue sample

65
Q

Which type of tumor cells (benign or malignant) grow only locally and cannot spread by invasion?

A

Benign

66
Q

This type of cell can invade neighboring tissue, enter blood vessels, and metastasize to different sites.

A

Tumor/malignant/cancer Cell

67
Q

Which type of tumors have an extensive vascular system? (Benign/Malignant)

A

Malignant

68
Q

A higher grade on a tumor (IV) indicates what?

A

That the tumor is more aggressive, poorly differentiated, and can’t determine tissue of origine

69
Q

What does a grade of G X on a tumor indicate?

A

The grading cannot be determined.

70
Q

What does a grade of GII indicate?

A

Cells are moderately differentiated, vary from normal cells in the area, and have some malignant characteristic

71
Q

What does a grade of GIII mean?

A

Cells are poorly differentiated but retain some normal cell qualities

72
Q

What does a grade of G I mean?

A

The cells are well differentiated, slow-growing, and look like normal/parent cells.

73
Q

Classifying the size and extent of metastasis of a tumor is called…?

A

Staging

74
Q

What does N stand for in the TNM classification of cancer staging?

A

Extent of regional lymph NODE involvement

75
Q

What does T stand for in the TNM classification of cancer staging?

A

Extent of primary tumor

76
Q

What does M stand for in the TNM classification of cancer staging?

A

Absence or presence of distant METASTASIS

77
Q

What does a dx of “TX” indicate?

A

The primary tumor cannot be assessed.

78
Q

What does a dx of “T0” indicate?

A

There is no evidence of primary tumor

79
Q

What does a dx of “Tis” indicate?

A

Carcinoma in situ (in situ = on site, original position)

80
Q

Which is the larger tumor, and has extended more? A T1 or a T4 tumor?

A

T4

81
Q

A T3 tumor is how large (in cm)?

A

Greater than 5 cm

82
Q

A T2 tumor is how large (in cm)?

A

2-5 cm

83
Q

A T1 tumor is how large (in cm)>

A

2 cm or less

84
Q

What does “NX” indicate?

A

Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed

85
Q

What does “N0” indicate?

A

No regional lymph node metastasis.

86
Q

Is brachytherapy internal radiation or external radiation?

A

Internal radiation; an injection of radioactive iodine

87
Q

If a patient has had “unsealed” therapy, what should the nurse do regarding their waste products? Why?

A

The nurse should ask the patient to take care of his own waste products as they are considered radioactive.

88
Q

Why film badge?

A

Measure amount of radiation that the nurse is exposed to.

89
Q

When caring for a patient who has had radiation therapy?, what three things should the nurse consider?

A

Time, Distance, Sheilding

90
Q

If a patient’s implant has fallen out on the floor, should you pick it up?

A

Use long handled forceps and place the implant in a lead lined container.

91
Q

What three factors determine how much radiation a nurse is exposed to?

A

Time, Distance, Sheilding

92
Q

What is a skin ADR common to all types of Radiation Therapy?

A

Sunburn look – skin is dry, cracked, and broken open. There is risk for infection r/t skin breakdown

93
Q

Does Radiation Therapy cause excess hunger?

A

No it can cause Altered nutrition less than body requirements r/t anorexia.

94
Q

What effect does RT have on bone marrow?

A

Suppression —irradiation of the areas

95
Q

What is osteoradionecrosis?

A

Bone death following RT – destruction of small blood vessels

96
Q

What are 3 learning concerns for the patient recieving radiation therapy?

A
  • Length of treatment
  • Good skin/oral care
  • Safety concerns with implants
97
Q

What percent of tumor cells should be eliminated during a round of radiation therapy?

A

At least 95%.

98
Q

Any chemo/bio drug should be considered hazardous to health. T/F?

A

True

99
Q

When during administration of Chemo meds is double gloving recommended?

A

Drug preparation, handling contaminated waste.

100
Q

In what order should PPE be applied?

A

Gloves, gown, gloves.

101
Q

If the nurse handles body fluids of someone who has received agents in the past 48 hours, should PPE be required?

A

Yes

102
Q

What is the risk to the patient when they receive a CVAD (Central Vascular Access Device)?

A

Risk for infection

103
Q

How soon after chemotherapy with N/V Result?

A

First 8 hours

104
Q

How far down the GI tract does mucositis extend?

A

it can affect the mouth but extend all the way down the GI tract.

105
Q

In the case of a hypersensitivity reaction from chemo, what is the nurse’s first action?

A

Stop the treatment.

106
Q

How soon into RT does skin breakdown occur?

A

It can occur as soon as 2 weeks but it is dose dependant..

107
Q

What is a nursing intervention for skin breakdown?

A

Moisturizer, sunscreen

108
Q

How often should the nurse inspect the mouth of a patient receiving RT or chemo? For what?

A

Daily, look for yeast infection, or altered oral mucous membrane

109
Q

What should the diet be of a patient receiving RT or chemo?

A

Soft, bland, maintain hydration.

110
Q

What happens to normal oral flora during chemotherapy?

A

It is destroyed, causing mucositis

111
Q

What happens to saliva consistency during xerostomia? What does it create risk of?

A

It becomes thick, sticky, and acidic and puts the pt at risk for dental caries.

112
Q

A person with xerostomia should not be given what type of swabs? And what type of mouthwash?

A

Lemon/Glycerin

No mouthwash containing alcohol

113
Q

When the patients ANC is <1000, should treatment be halted?

A

Paused

114
Q

What happens to cell count after the NADIR? What does this indicate

A

The patient starts to recover/it indicates the tx is working.

115
Q

Is the patient immunocompromised before the NADIR or after?

A

Both

116
Q

At what number of platet levels may the patient require a transfusion?

A

10-20,000/mm3

117
Q

What is a normal platelet count?

A

150-450k

118
Q

What do CSF (colony stimulating factors) do to WBC counts?

A

Builds them up

119
Q

What are Filgrastim and Pefilgrastim used for?

A

They are colony stimulating factors used to increase WBC counts

120
Q

What is Epogen used for?

A

It is a CSF used to increase RBC count

121
Q

What is a common complaint of patients recieving colony stimulating factors? What should the nurse rxn be?

A

bone pain. It is seen as a good sign because cells are being formed.

122
Q

What type of foods are good for the patient experiencing n/v after RT and chemo?

A

Cold, salty, dry crackers and toast

123
Q

What happens to the pt with Anorexia-cachexia syndrome?

A

Wasting, increased nutrient intake does not always reverse the process.

124
Q

How soon before meals should Magic Mouthwash be given to promote comfort?

A

15 min before meals

125
Q

What should the nurse encourage the patient to do when they complain of fatigue?

A

Encourage exercise as it can reduce fatigue sometimes

362 Final Exam (4 decks)

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