ONCOLOGY Flashcards
1
Q
characterized by DNA mutation leading to abnormal proliferation that will lead to spreading
A
CANCER
2
Q
cellular structure that are sets of instructions expressed by the cell is called?
A
GENES
3
Q
the process by which a cell replicates its chromosomes and then segregates them, producing two identical nuclei in preparation for cell division.
A
MITOSIS
4
Q
increased cell production in a normal tissue or organ.
A
HYPERPLASIA
5
Q
the replacement of one differentiated somatic cell type with another differentiated somatic cell type in the same tissue.
A
METAPLASIA
6
Q
A term used to describe the presence of abnormal cells within a tissue or organ. Production of cells with abnormal size, shape, and arrangement?
A
DYSPLASIA
7
Q
it lacks normal characteristics from original cell. It’s a type of cell called Undifferentiated.
A
ANAPLASIA
8
Q
Is the uncontrolled, abnormal growth of cells or tissues in the body. It can be Benign (non-Cancerous) or Malignant Neoplasm (cancerous)
A
NEOPLASIA
9
Q
The formation of a cancer, whereby normal cells are transformed into cancer cells. The process is characterized by changes at the cellular, genetic, and epigenetic levels and abnormal cell division.
A
CARCINOGENESIS
10
Q
Factors that contributes to the progression of CANCER.
H-A-R-M?
A
HORMONES
AGENT (physical and chemical)
RUNS IN THE FAMILY
MICROORGANISMS
11
Q
It’s an emergency contraceptive that increases the likelihood for developing Vaginal Carcinoma?
A
DES (Diethylstilbestrol)
12
Q
A pill used to prevent pregnancy that increases the chances of developing liver, breast, and endometrial cancer. But decreases the chance of developing Ovarian Cancer.
A
ORAL CONTRACEPTIVES
13
Q
What potential health risk is associated with early menarche occurring before the age of 12 years?
A
BREAST CANCER
14
Q
What potential health risk is associated with late menopausal after the age of 55 years old?
A
BREAST CANCER
15
Q
What potential health risk is associated with nulliparity and late pregnancy after the age of 30 years old?
A
BREAST CANCER
16
Q
What Physical Agents increased the risk for developing skin cancer
A
ULTRAVIOLET RADIATION
17
Q
A Chemical agent that accounts for 75% of cancer case and 30% cancer related deaths. Tagged as the single most lethal chemical agents
A
TOBACCO SMOKE
18
Q
Which type of meat is associated with an increased risk of cancer?
A
Red meat,
Smoked meat
Salt-cultured meat
Preserved meat
19
Q
Which cancers are specifically associated with mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes?
A
BREAST CANCER
OVARIAN CANCER
20
Q
This Micro organism is thought to increase the chances of developing Lymphoma (Hodgkins and Non Hodgkins)
A
EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS
21
Q
This another type of microorganism is the 1st bacteria identifies as a definitive cause of Gastric Cancer.
A
HELICOBACTER PYLORI
22
Q
The stage in Carcinogenesis in which a change in a cell’s genetic material (a mutation) primes the cell to become cancerous.
A
INITIATION STAGE
23
Q
3 phases of CARCINOGENESIS
I_______
P_________
P__________
A
INITIATION
PROMOTION
PROGRESSION
24
Q
The stage in carcinogenesis where the transformed (or initiated) cells are stimulated to divide. This stage is characterized by altered gene expression and proliferation of initiated cells
A
PROMOTION STAGE
25
These are a group of genes that cause normal cells to become cancerous when they are mutated (SWITCH ON)
FUNCTION: Stimulates cell division based on signal
MUTATES: The cells will divides without signal
PROTO-ONCOGENES
26
This are normal genes that slow down cell division or tell cells to die at the right time. When this don't work properly (mutated), cells can grow out of control, which can lead to cancer. (SWITCH OFF)
SUPPRESSOR ONCOGENE or TUMOR SUPPRESSOR GENE
27
A process of what's called programmed cell death where the cell is actually in a funny kind of way committing suicide.
APOPTYSIS
28
This is the final stage of carcinogenesis where cell proliferation occur. This involves a fast increase in the tumor size, where the cells may undergo further mutations with invasive and metastatic potential.
PROGRESSION STAGE
29
The process by which cancer cells directly extend and penetrate into neighboring tissues in cancer.
INVASION
30
The spread of cancer cells from the place where they first formed to another part of the body.
METASTASIS
31
It is the formation of new blood vessels.
ANGIOGENESIS
32
This level of prevention involves eliminating or mitigating cancer risk factors by adopting healthy behaviors and lifestyles, such as avoiding tobacco and alcohol use, exercising, eating a healthy diet, and applying sunscreen to protect against UV exposure.
PRIMARY LEVEL
33
This level of prevention includes screening to identify precancerous lesions and taking intervention.
SECONDARY LEVEL
34
Refers to reducing or controlling the symptoms and morbidity of established cancer.
Measures aimed at slowing down the effects of a cancer to prevent complications
TERTIARY LEVEL
35
Change in B_____/B_____ habbit
A ___ that wont heal
Unusual B________
Thickening L_______
I__________tion
Obvious change in w______ or M______
N_________ cough/hoarseness
Unexplained A_____
S______ weight Loss
BOWEL/BLADDER
SORE
BLEEDING
LUMP
INDIGESTION
WARTS OR MOLE
NAGGING COUGH
ANEMIA
SUDDEN WEIGHT LOSS
36
How often should breast self-examination be performed?
Every month, one week after the menstrual cycle.
37
What are the recommended positions for performing breast self-examination?
In front of the mirror during a shower and while lying down.
38
What is the recommended age for breast cancer screening?
20 years and older.
39
How often should a clinical breast exam be conducted for individuals aged 40 and above?
ANNUALLY
40
What is the recommended frequency for clinical breast exams for individuals under the age of 40?
Every three years.
41
How often should a mammogram be done for individuals aged 40 and above?
EVERY YEAR.
42
At what age should a client get a baseline mammogram?
BETWEEN 35 TO 39 YEARS OLD.
43
When is the earliest age a client can undergo a mammogram, especially if there's a family history of breast cancer?
30 YEARS OLD.
44
What are the screening procedures for colorectal screening?
FOBT, SIGMOIDOSCOPY, BARIUM ENEMA, AND COLONOSCOPY.
45
How often should a FOBT (Fecal Occult Blood Test) be done?
EVERY YEAR
46
What is the recommended frequency for sigmoidoscopy in colorectal screening?
EVERY 5 YEARS
47
How often is a barium enema recommended for colorectal screening?
EVERY 5 YEARS.
48
What is the suggested interval for a colonoscopy in colorectal screening?
EVERY 10 YEARS.
49
What are the tests included in prostate cancer screening?
PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen) and DRE (Digital Rectal Exam)
50
How often should PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen) and DRE (Digital Rectal Exam) be conducted for prostate cancer screening?
EVERY YEAR.
51
What is the target population for cervical cancer screening?
WOMEN AGED 18 YEARS OLD AND ABOVE, 3 YEARS AFTER COITARCHE, NOT LATER THAN 21 YEARS OLD.
52
What are the recommended intervals for a conventional Pap smear after the age of 30?
EVERY 2-3 YEARS.
53
How often should a liquid Pap smear be conducted for individuals less than 30 years old?
EVERY 2 YEARS.
54
What is the suggested frequency for a liquid Pap smear after the age of 30?
2-3 YEARS.
55
How often should an HPV DNA test be done after the age of 30?
EVERY 3 YEARS.
56
What precautions should be taken before a conventional Pap smear, including timing related to menstruation?
AVOID DOUCHING AND SEXUAL INTERCOURSE; PERFORM THE TEST 2 WEEKS AFTER MENSTRUATION.
57
TNM Staging
Tumor size: 0-2 cm
T-1
58
TNM Staging
Tumor size: 2-5 cm
T-2
59
TNM Staging
Tumor size: Greater than 5 cm
T-3
60
TNM Staging
Tumor has broken through skin or attached to chest wall
T-4
61
TNM Staging
Primary tumor cannot be assessed
T-x
62
TNM Staging
No evidence of primary tumor
T-0
63
TNM Staging
a group of abnormal cells that have not spread
T-in situ
64
TNM Staging
No swollen lymph nodes are felt.
N-0
65
TNM Staging
One or more suspect lymph are felt around the armpit.
N-1
66
TNM Staging
Armpit lymph nodes are swollen, lumpy, and bunched together.
N-2
67
TNM Stag
Swollen lymph nodes are also found near the collarbone.
N-3
68
A sample of the lymph nodes has been removed and is clear of cancer.
M-0
69
Lymph nodes have cancer cells in them. In such cases, the cancer may have spread to other parts of the body.
M-1
70
TUMOR Grading
Well differentiated
GRADE I
71
TUMOR Grading
Moderately Differentiated
GRADE II
72
TUMOR Grading
Poorly Differentiated
GRADE III
73
TUMOR Grading
Undifferentiated
GRADE IV
74
treatment modality for cancer:
indicated for metastasized cancer that utilize neoplastic drug.
It's objectives is primary for the treatment for systemic/metastatic cancer.
Another objective is to decrease the size of the tumor prior to surgery, and destroy the remaining cancel cells after the surgery.
CHEMOTERAPHY
75
The phase in the cell cycle in which the cell is neither dividing nor preparing for division; hence it's in a resting phase.
G-0 PHASE
76
In this part of cell cycle phase, The cell synthesizes mRNA and proteins in preparation for subsequent steps leading to mitosis.
G-1 PHASE
77
In this cell cycle phase, the cell synthesizes a complete copy of the DNA in its nucleus.
S PHASE
78
In this cell cycle phase, the cell synthesizes a complete copy of the DNA in its nucleus.
G-2 PHASE
79
During this cell cycle phase, the cell divides its copied DNA and cytoplasm to make two new cells.
M-PHASE
80
A class of chemo drugs that act as antitumor agents at all or any phases of the cell cycle
CELL-CYCLE NONSPECIFIC ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENTS.
81
CELL-CYCLE NONSPECIFIC ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENTS.
H-A-N-A?
HORMONAL AGENT
ALKYLATING AGENT
NITROSOUREA
ANTITUMOR ANTIBIOTIC
82
EXAMPLE CHEMO AGENTS
Antagonists of estrogens (antiestrogens)—tamoxifen, toremifene.
Androgen antagonists (antiandrogens): bicalutamide, flutamide, cyproterone
HORMONAL AGENT
83
EXAMPLE CHEMO AGENTS
Cisplatin, Carboplatin, Cyclophosphamide, Iphosphamide
ALKYLATING AGENT
84
EXAMPLE CHEMO AGENTS
Carmustine, Lomustine, Semustine
NIREOSOUREAS
85
EXAMPLE CHEMO AGENTS
Plicamycine, mitomycine, daunorubicine, daxorubicine, idarubicine
ANTITUMOR ANTIBIOTIC
86
antineoplastic agents act on proliferating cells only during a specific phase of. the cell cycle.
CELL-CYCLE SPECIFIC ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENTS
87
CELL-CYCLE SPECIFIC ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENTS THAT block the ligation step of the cell cycle (S-PHASE), which generates DNA single- and double-strand breaks, leading to apoptotic cell death. include irinotecan, topotecan, and camptothecin
TOPOISOMERASE INHIBITORS
88
chemotherapy drugs that prevent cancer cells from making more cancer cells BY interfering with the synthesis of the DNA constituents (S-PHASE). This includes 5-fluorouracil, 5-Azacytidine, 6-mercaptopurine and methotrexate.
ANTIMETABOLITES
89
cell cycle specific agent such as paclitaxel and vinblastine, vincristine, etopuside, exert their potent anti-neoplastic effects through activation of the spindle assembly checkpoint, thereby arresting cells in mitosis (M-PHASE).
MITOTIC SPINDLE POISON
90
What adverse effect is associated with irinotecan during chemotherapy?
DIARRHEA, LEADING TO DEHYDRATION AND FLUID & ELECTROLYTE IMBALANCE.
91
What interventions are recommended for diarrhea during chemotherapy?
FLUID REPLACEMENT, MONITOR WEIGHT (SAME SCALE, CLOTHES, TIME), MONITOR POTASSIUM AND SODIUM LEVEL.
92
When does the onset of alopecia typically occur during chemotherapy?
2 WEEKS.
93
When can regrowth of hair be expected after chemotherapy-induced alopecia?
3-5 MONTHS
94
A common side effect of chemotherapy that is characterized by a decrease in blood cell production.
MYELOSUPPRESSION
95
Three different kinds of blood cells are produced in the body's bone marrow ?
RBC
WBC
PLATLETS
96
How should decreased red blood cell count (RBC) due to myelosuppression, leading to anemia, be managed?
IMPLEMENT FREQUENT REST PERIODS.
97
What precautions are necessary for decreased white blood cell count (WBC) due to myelosuppression?
INITIATE NEUTROPENIA PRECAUTION AND REVERSE ISOLATION, AVOID FRESH FLOWERS, FRESH FRUITS, FRESH FOOD, AND RESTRICT VISITORS.
98
How should decreased platelet count due to myelosuppression be managed?
INITIATE BLEEDING PRECAUTIONS, INCLUDING PADDING THE SIDE RAILS, AVOIDING INTRAMUSCULAR INJECTIONS, MONITORING FOR BLEEDING TENDENCIES (OBSERVE FOR PETECHIAE, PURPURA, AND ECCHYMOSIS), AND ADMINISTERING FRESH FROZEN PLASMA.
99
A clinical condition that can occur spontaneously or after the initiation of chemotherapy associated with the following metabolic disorders: hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and hyperuricemia leading to end-organ damage.
TUMOR LYSIS SYNDROME
100
What is the drug of choice for hyperkalemia in tumor lysis syndrome, which increases fecal potassium excretion?
KAYEXALATE.
101
What pharmacological intervention raises blood pH and shifts extracellular potassium into cells in the context of hyperkalemia in tumor lysis syndrome?
SODIUM BICARBONATE.
102
Which medication is used to reduce the cardiac arrhythmia effects of potassium in tumor lysis syndrome?
CALCIUM GLUCONATE.
103
What is the pharmacological intervention that aims to help shift potassium into the cell temporarily for hyperkalemia in tumor lysis syndrome?
INSULIN AND GLUCOSE (D50/50)
104
A surgical procedure in which a cut is made through the skin to remove a portion of the tumor or sample of abnormal tissue or part of a lump or suspicious area.
INCISIONAL BIOPSY
104
An operation or procedure to remove a tumor from the body. It is the preferred treatment for most solid tumors that are contained in one area.
CANCER SURGERY
105
A surgical procedure in which a cut is made through the skin to remove an entire tumor, lump or suspicious area so it can be checked under a microscope for signs of disease.
EXCISIONAL BIOPSY
106
a procedure use to get a cell sample from a suspicious lump or an abnormal area of your body. involves using a thin needle and a syringe to pull out cells, tissue and fluids.
NEEDLE ASPIRATION BIOPSY
FINE NEEDLE ASPIRATION- thin, hollow needle
CORE NEEDLE- uses a wider needle
107
A surgical procedure in which a reduction of as much of the bulk of a tumour without the intention of a complete eradication.
DEBULKING SURGERY
108
A surgical resection of persistent or recurrent cancer after previous local treatment without surgery
SALVAGE SURGERY
109
A treatment that uses extreme cold produced by liquid nitrogen or argon gas to destroy cancer cells and abnormal tissue. It is a local treatment, which means that it is directed toward a specific part of your body
CRYOSURGERY
110
Surgery to remove an organ or gland that shows no signs of cancer, in an attempt to prevent development of cancer of that organ or gland.
PROPHYLACTIC SURGERY
111
What is the mechanism of action for radiation therapy, and what cells does it effectively target?
USES IONIZING RADIATION TO INTERRUPT CELL DIVISION (BREAKING DNA HELIX). EFFECTIVE FOR BONE MARROW CANCER, LYMPHOMA, SKIN CANCER, AND BONE CANCER.
112
What types of cancer are considered radioresistant and not effectively treated by radiation therapy?
MUSCLE, CARTILAGE, CONNECTIVE TISSUE CANCER.
113
How is dosing set for radiation therapy, and what is the goal?
SET AS "LETHAL DOSE" TO DESTROY 95% OF CANCER CELLS WHILE AFFECTING NORMAL CELLS.
114
What is fractionated radiation therapy, and why is it utilized?
DIVIDED TO ALLOW REPAIR OF NORMAL CELLS.
115
Name the two types of radiation therapy and provide an example for external beam radiation therapy (EBRT).
1. EXTERNAL BEAM RADIATION THERAPY (EBRT) - EXAMPLE: TELETHERAPY.
2. INTERNAL RADIATION THERAPY (BRACHYTHERAPY)
116
Is the patient radioactive after external beam radiation therapy (EBRT)?
NO, THE PATIENT IS NOT RADIOACTIVE AFTER THE PROCEDURE.
117
What are the routes of internal radiation therapy (Brachytherapy)?
INTERSTITIAL (E.G., BREAST CANCER),
INTRACAVITARY (E.G., GYNECOLOGICAL CANCER),
INTRALUMINAL (E.G., HOLLOW TUBE-LIKE STRUCTURES SUCH AS COLON, BRACHIAL, ESOPHAGEAL),
INTRAVENOUS.
118
What is the difference between sealed and unsealed internal radiation therapy?
SEALED: NOT ALL BODY FLUID IS RADIOACTIVE; UNSEALED: ALL BODY FLUID IS RADIOACTIVE. THE PATIENT IS STILL RADIOACTIVE AFTER THERAPY.
119
What are some nursing considerations for internal radiation therapy?
LIMIT TIME SPENT WITH THE PATIENT TO NOT LATER THAN 30 MINUTES/DAY,
MAINTAIN A DISTANCE OF 6 FEET
USE LEAD APRON/CONTAINERS FOR SHIELDING,
ENSURE A PRIVATE ROOM
USE DOSIMETER BADGE TO MEASURE EXPOSURE
INDICATE RADIATION EXPOSURE ON PATIENT'S NOTES.
120
What are the contraindications for radiation therapy?
CONTRAINDICATED FOR PREGNANT WOMEN AND CHILDREN.
121
Bone marrow transplant uses healthy blood stem cells from a donor to replace bone marrow that's not producing enough healthy blood cells.
ALLLOGENEIC BONE MORROW TRANSPLANT
122
Bone marrow transplant that can only be used when the patient has an identical sibling (twin or triplet) – someone who has the exact same tissue type.
SYNGENEIC BONE MARROW TRANSPLANT
123
Bone marrow
transplant that uses healthy blood stem cells from your own body to replace bone marrow that's not working properly.
AUTOLOGOUS BONE MARROW TRANSPLANT
124
a systemic disorder that occurs after bone marrow transplant when the graft's ( transplanted, or donated tissue) immune cells recognize the host (recipient) as foreign and attack the recipient's body cells.
GRAFT VS HOST DISEASE (GvHD)
125
What is the primary management for graft-vs-host disease (GVHD), and what immunosuppressant is commonly administered?
ADMINISTRATION OF IMMUNOSUPPRESSANTS LIKE CYCLOSPORIN TO REDUCE THE HOST'S IMMUNE RESPONSE.
126
What is a common sign and symptom of graft-vs-host disease?
FLAKING OF THE SKIN.
127
What are the risk factors associated with laryngeal cancer?
SMOKING AND ALCOHOL.
128
What is a common sign and symptom of laryngeal cancer?
PERSISTENT HOARSENESS.
129
What is a nursing consideration for patients undergoing laryngeal cancer treatment?
WATCH OUT FOR BLEEDING, SUCH AS HEMOPTYSIS, DIFFICULTY BREATHING (DOB), AND FEELING OF FULLNESS IN THE NECK.
129
What are the treatment modalities for laryngeal cancer and their associated outcomes?
RADIATION THERAPY (85 TO 95% CURE RATE)
LASER SURGERY (SAVES VOICE)
PARTIAL LARYNGECTOMY (TEMPORARY TRACHEOSTOMY, CHANGE IN VOICE),
TOTAL LARYNGECTOMY (PERMANENT TRACHEOSTOMY, LOSS OF VOICE).
130
What are the risk factors associated with breast cancer?
HORMONAL IMBALANCE
HISTORY OF ENDOMETRIAL, OVARIAN
CERVICAL CANCER.
131
What are the common signs and symptoms of breast cancer?
CHANGE IN NIPPLE (ITCHING/RETRACTION)
ASYMMETRY
PAINLESS LUMP
DIMPLING/DISCOLORATION (ORANGE PEEL/PEAU D'ORANGE).
132
What is the management approach for breast cancer, including medications and therapies?
CHEMOTHERAPY + TAMOXIFEN (ANTI-ESTROGEN), RADIATION THERAPY.
133
What nursing considerations should be taken after breast cancer surgery?
DO'S: SEMI-FOWLER'S POSITION, ARM EXERCISE, PUT A NOTE "ARM PRECAUTION," AND WEAR LOOSE CLOTHING.
134
What actions should be avoided after breast cancer surgery to prevent lymphedema?
DON'TS: TAKING BP ON THE AFFECTED SIDE, ADMINISTERING INJECTIONS ON THE AFFECTED SIDE, INJURY, CARRYING HEAVY OBJECTS.
135
What does a lumpectomy involve in breast cancer surgery?
REMOVAL OF THE LUMP ONLY.
136
In the context of breast cancer surgery, what is removed during a simple mastectomy?
BREAST, NIPPLE, AND LUMP.
137
In modified mastectomy for breast cancer, what parts are removed?
LUMP, BREAST, NIPPLE, AND LYMPH NODES.
138
What components are removed during radical modified mastectomy for breast cancer?
LUMP, BREAST, NIPPLE, LYMPH NODES, AND MUSCLE.
