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MED SURG > ONCOLOGY > Flashcards

ONCOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

characterized by DNA mutation leading to abnormal proliferation that will lead to spreading

A

CANCER

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2
Q

cellular structure that are sets of instructions expressed by the cell is called?

A

GENES

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3
Q

the process by which a cell replicates its chromosomes and then segregates them, producing two identical nuclei in preparation for cell division.

A

MITOSIS

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4
Q

increased cell production in a normal tissue or organ.

A

HYPERPLASIA

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5
Q

the replacement of one differentiated somatic cell type with another differentiated somatic cell type in the same tissue.

A

METAPLASIA

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6
Q

A term used to describe the presence of abnormal cells within a tissue or organ. Production of cells with abnormal size, shape, and arrangement?

A

DYSPLASIA

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7
Q

it lacks normal characteristics from original cell. It’s a type of cell called Undifferentiated.

A

ANAPLASIA

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8
Q

Is the uncontrolled, abnormal growth of cells or tissues in the body. It can be Benign (non-Cancerous) or Malignant Neoplasm (cancerous)

A

NEOPLASIA

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9
Q

The formation of a cancer, whereby normal cells are transformed into cancer cells. The process is characterized by changes at the cellular, genetic, and epigenetic levels and abnormal cell division.

A

CARCINOGENESIS

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10
Q

Factors that contributes to the progression of CANCER.

H-A-R-M?

A

HORMONES

AGENT (physical and chemical)

RUNS IN THE FAMILY

MICROORGANISMS

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11
Q

It’s an emergency contraceptive that increases the likelihood for developing Vaginal Carcinoma?

A

DES (Diethylstilbestrol)

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12
Q

A pill used to prevent pregnancy that increases the chances of developing liver, breast, and endometrial cancer. But decreases the chance of developing Ovarian Cancer.

A

ORAL CONTRACEPTIVES

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13
Q

What potential health risk is associated with early menarche occurring before the age of 12 years?

A

BREAST CANCER

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14
Q

What potential health risk is associated with late menopausal after the age of 55 years old?

A

BREAST CANCER

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15
Q

What potential health risk is associated with nulliparity and late pregnancy after the age of 30 years old?

A

BREAST CANCER

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16
Q

What Physical Agents increased the risk for developing skin cancer

A

ULTRAVIOLET RADIATION

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17
Q

A Chemical agent that accounts for 75% of cancer case and 30% cancer related deaths. Tagged as the single most lethal chemical agents

A

TOBACCO SMOKE

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18
Q

Which type of meat is associated with an increased risk of cancer?

A

Red meat,
Smoked meat
Salt-cultured meat
Preserved meat

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19
Q

Which cancers are specifically associated with mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes?

A

BREAST CANCER

OVARIAN CANCER

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20
Q

This Micro organism is thought to increase the chances of developing Lymphoma (Hodgkins and Non Hodgkins)

A

EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS

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21
Q

This another type of microorganism is the 1st bacteria identifies as a definitive cause of Gastric Cancer.

A

HELICOBACTER PYLORI

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22
Q

The stage in Carcinogenesis in which a change in a cell’s genetic material (a mutation) primes the cell to become cancerous.

A

INITIATION STAGE

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23
Q

3 phases of CARCINOGENESIS

I_______
P_________
P__________

A

INITIATION
PROMOTION
PROGRESSION

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24
Q

The stage in carcinogenesis where the transformed (or initiated) cells are stimulated to divide. This stage is characterized by altered gene expression and proliferation of initiated cells

A

PROMOTION STAGE

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25
Q

These are a group of genes that cause normal cells to become cancerous when they are mutated (SWITCH ON)

FUNCTION: Stimulates cell division based on signal
MUTATES: The cells will divides without signal

A

PROTO-ONCOGENES

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26
Q

This are normal genes that slow down cell division or tell cells to die at the right time. When this don’t work properly (mutated), cells can grow out of control, which can lead to cancer. (SWITCH OFF)

A

SUPPRESSOR ONCOGENE or TUMOR SUPPRESSOR GENE

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27
Q

A process of what’s called programmed cell death where the cell is actually in a funny kind of way committing suicide.

A

APOPTYSIS

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28
Q

This is the final stage of carcinogenesis where cell proliferation occur. This involves a fast increase in the tumor size, where the cells may undergo further mutations with invasive and metastatic potential.

A

PROGRESSION STAGE

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29
Q

The process by which cancer cells directly extend and penetrate into neighboring tissues in cancer.

A

INVASION

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30
Q

The spread of cancer cells from the place where they first formed to another part of the body.

A

METASTASIS

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31
Q

It is the formation of new blood vessels.

A

ANGIOGENESIS

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32
Q

This level of prevention involves eliminating or mitigating cancer risk factors by adopting healthy behaviors and lifestyles, such as avoiding tobacco and alcohol use, exercising, eating a healthy diet, and applying sunscreen to protect against UV exposure.

A

PRIMARY LEVEL

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33
Q

This level of prevention includes screening to identify precancerous lesions and taking intervention.

A

SECONDARY LEVEL

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34
Q

Refers to reducing or controlling the symptoms and morbidity of established cancer.

Measures aimed at slowing down the effects of a cancer to prevent complications

A

TERTIARY LEVEL

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35
Q

Change in B_____/B_____ habbit

A ___ that wont heal

Unusual B________

Thickening L_______

I__________tion

Obvious change in w______ or M______

N_________ cough/hoarseness

Unexplained A_____

S______ weight Loss

A

BOWEL/BLADDER

SORE

BLEEDING

LUMP

INDIGESTION

WARTS OR MOLE

NAGGING COUGH

ANEMIA

SUDDEN WEIGHT LOSS

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36
Q

How often should breast self-examination be performed?

A

Every month, one week after the menstrual cycle.

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37
Q

What are the recommended positions for performing breast self-examination?

A

In front of the mirror during a shower and while lying down.

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38
Q

What is the recommended age for breast cancer screening?

A

20 years and older.

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39
Q

How often should a clinical breast exam be conducted for individuals aged 40 and above?

A

ANNUALLY

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40
Q

What is the recommended frequency for clinical breast exams for individuals under the age of 40?

A

Every three years.

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41
Q

How often should a mammogram be done for individuals aged 40 and above?

A

EVERY YEAR.

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42
Q

At what age should a client get a baseline mammogram?

A

BETWEEN 35 TO 39 YEARS OLD.

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43
Q

When is the earliest age a client can undergo a mammogram, especially if there’s a family history of breast cancer?

A

30 YEARS OLD.

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44
Q

What are the screening procedures for colorectal screening?

A

FOBT, SIGMOIDOSCOPY, BARIUM ENEMA, AND COLONOSCOPY.

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45
Q

How often should a FOBT (Fecal Occult Blood Test) be done?

A

EVERY YEAR

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46
Q

What is the recommended frequency for sigmoidoscopy in colorectal screening?

A

EVERY 5 YEARS

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47
Q

How often is a barium enema recommended for colorectal screening?

A

EVERY 5 YEARS.

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48
Q

What is the suggested interval for a colonoscopy in colorectal screening?

A

EVERY 10 YEARS.

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49
Q

What are the tests included in prostate cancer screening?

A

PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen) and DRE (Digital Rectal Exam)

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50
Q

How often should PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen) and DRE (Digital Rectal Exam) be conducted for prostate cancer screening?

A

EVERY YEAR.

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51
Q

What is the target population for cervical cancer screening?

A

WOMEN AGED 18 YEARS OLD AND ABOVE, 3 YEARS AFTER COITARCHE, NOT LATER THAN 21 YEARS OLD.

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52
Q

What are the recommended intervals for a conventional Pap smear after the age of 30?

A

EVERY 2-3 YEARS.

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53
Q

How often should a liquid Pap smear be conducted for individuals less than 30 years old?

A

EVERY 2 YEARS.

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54
Q

What is the suggested frequency for a liquid Pap smear after the age of 30?

A

2-3 YEARS.

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55
Q

How often should an HPV DNA test be done after the age of 30?

A

EVERY 3 YEARS.

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56
Q

What precautions should be taken before a conventional Pap smear, including timing related to menstruation?

A

AVOID DOUCHING AND SEXUAL INTERCOURSE; PERFORM THE TEST 2 WEEKS AFTER MENSTRUATION.

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57
Q

TNM Staging

Tumor size: 0-2 cm

A

T-1

58
Q

TNM Staging

Tumor size: 2-5 cm

A

T-2

59
Q

TNM Staging

Tumor size: Greater than 5 cm

A

T-3

60
Q

TNM Staging

Tumor has broken through skin or attached to chest wall

A

T-4

61
Q

TNM Staging

Primary tumor cannot be assessed

A

T-x

62
Q

TNM Staging

No evidence of primary tumor

A

T-0

63
Q

TNM Staging

a group of abnormal cells that have not spread

A

T-in situ

64
Q

TNM Staging

No swollen lymph nodes are felt.

A

N-0

65
Q

TNM Staging

One or more suspect lymph are felt around the armpit.

A

N-1

66
Q

TNM Staging

Armpit lymph nodes are swollen, lumpy, and bunched together.

A

N-2

67
Q

TNM Stag

Swollen lymph nodes are also found near the collarbone.

A

N-3

68
Q

A sample of the lymph nodes has been removed and is clear of cancer.

A

M-0

69
Q

Lymph nodes have cancer cells in them. In such cases, the cancer may have spread to other parts of the body.

A

M-1

70
Q

TUMOR Grading

Well differentiated

A

GRADE I

71
Q

TUMOR Grading

Moderately Differentiated

A

GRADE II

72
Q

TUMOR Grading

Poorly Differentiated

A

GRADE III

73
Q

TUMOR Grading

Undifferentiated

A

GRADE IV

74
Q

treatment modality for cancer:

indicated for metastasized cancer that utilize neoplastic drug.
It’s objectives is primary for the treatment for systemic/metastatic cancer.
Another objective is to decrease the size of the tumor prior to surgery, and destroy the remaining cancel cells after the surgery.

A

CHEMOTERAPHY

75
Q

The phase in the cell cycle in which the cell is neither dividing nor preparing for division; hence it’s in a resting phase.

A

G-0 PHASE

76
Q

In this part of cell cycle phase, The cell synthesizes mRNA and proteins in preparation for subsequent steps leading to mitosis.

A

G-1 PHASE

77
Q

In this cell cycle phase, the cell synthesizes a complete copy of the DNA in its nucleus.

A

S PHASE

78
Q

In this cell cycle phase, the cell synthesizes a complete copy of the DNA in its nucleus.

A

G-2 PHASE

79
Q

During this cell cycle phase, the cell divides its copied DNA and cytoplasm to make two new cells.

A

M-PHASE

80
Q

A class of chemo drugs that act as antitumor agents at all or any phases of the cell cycle

A

CELL-CYCLE NONSPECIFIC ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENTS.

81
Q

CELL-CYCLE NONSPECIFIC ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENTS.

H-A-N-A?

A

HORMONAL AGENT

ALKYLATING AGENT

NITROSOUREA

ANTITUMOR ANTIBIOTIC

82
Q

EXAMPLE CHEMO AGENTS

Antagonists of estrogens (antiestrogens)—tamoxifen, toremifene.

Androgen antagonists (antiandrogens): bicalutamide, flutamide, cyproterone

A

HORMONAL AGENT

83
Q

EXAMPLE CHEMO AGENTS

Cisplatin, Carboplatin, Cyclophosphamide, Iphosphamide

A

ALKYLATING AGENT

84
Q

EXAMPLE CHEMO AGENTS

Carmustine, Lomustine, Semustine

A

NIREOSOUREAS

85
Q

EXAMPLE CHEMO AGENTS

Plicamycine, mitomycine, daunorubicine, daxorubicine, idarubicine

A

ANTITUMOR ANTIBIOTIC

86
Q

antineoplastic agents act on proliferating cells only during a specific phase of. the cell cycle.

A

CELL-CYCLE SPECIFIC ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENTS

87
Q

CELL-CYCLE SPECIFIC ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENTS THAT block the ligation step of the cell cycle (S-PHASE), which generates DNA single- and double-strand breaks, leading to apoptotic cell death. include irinotecan, topotecan, and camptothecin

A

TOPOISOMERASE INHIBITORS

88
Q

chemotherapy drugs that prevent cancer cells from making more cancer cells BY interfering with the synthesis of the DNA constituents (S-PHASE). This includes 5-fluorouracil, 5-Azacytidine, 6-mercaptopurine and methotrexate.

A

ANTIMETABOLITES

89
Q

cell cycle specific agent such as paclitaxel and vinblastine, vincristine, etopuside, exert their potent anti-neoplastic effects through activation of the spindle assembly checkpoint, thereby arresting cells in mitosis (M-PHASE).

A

MITOTIC SPINDLE POISON

90
Q

What adverse effect is associated with irinotecan during chemotherapy?

A

DIARRHEA, LEADING TO DEHYDRATION AND FLUID & ELECTROLYTE IMBALANCE.

91
Q

What interventions are recommended for diarrhea during chemotherapy?

A

FLUID REPLACEMENT, MONITOR WEIGHT (SAME SCALE, CLOTHES, TIME), MONITOR POTASSIUM AND SODIUM LEVEL.

92
Q

When does the onset of alopecia typically occur during chemotherapy?

A

2 WEEKS.

93
Q

When can regrowth of hair be expected after chemotherapy-induced alopecia?

A

3-5 MONTHS

94
Q

A common side effect of chemotherapy that is characterized by a decrease in blood cell production.

A

MYELOSUPPRESSION

95
Q

Three different kinds of blood cells are produced in the body’s bone marrow ?

A

RBC
WBC
PLATLETS

96
Q

How should decreased red blood cell count (RBC) due to myelosuppression, leading to anemia, be managed?

A

IMPLEMENT FREQUENT REST PERIODS.

97
Q

What precautions are necessary for decreased white blood cell count (WBC) due to myelosuppression?

A

INITIATE NEUTROPENIA PRECAUTION AND REVERSE ISOLATION, AVOID FRESH FLOWERS, FRESH FRUITS, FRESH FOOD, AND RESTRICT VISITORS.

98
Q

How should decreased platelet count due to myelosuppression be managed?

A

INITIATE BLEEDING PRECAUTIONS, INCLUDING PADDING THE SIDE RAILS, AVOIDING INTRAMUSCULAR INJECTIONS, MONITORING FOR BLEEDING TENDENCIES (OBSERVE FOR PETECHIAE, PURPURA, AND ECCHYMOSIS), AND ADMINISTERING FRESH FROZEN PLASMA.

99
Q

A clinical condition that can occur spontaneously or after the initiation of chemotherapy associated with the following metabolic disorders: hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and hyperuricemia leading to end-organ damage.

A

TUMOR LYSIS SYNDROME

100
Q

What is the drug of choice for hyperkalemia in tumor lysis syndrome, which increases fecal potassium excretion?

A

KAYEXALATE.

101
Q

What pharmacological intervention raises blood pH and shifts extracellular potassium into cells in the context of hyperkalemia in tumor lysis syndrome?

A

SODIUM BICARBONATE.

102
Q

Which medication is used to reduce the cardiac arrhythmia effects of potassium in tumor lysis syndrome?

A

CALCIUM GLUCONATE.

103
Q

What is the pharmacological intervention that aims to help shift potassium into the cell temporarily for hyperkalemia in tumor lysis syndrome?

A

INSULIN AND GLUCOSE (D50/50)

104
Q

A surgical procedure in which a cut is made through the skin to remove a portion of the tumor or sample of abnormal tissue or part of a lump or suspicious area.

A

INCISIONAL BIOPSY

104
Q

An operation or procedure to remove a tumor from the body. It is the preferred treatment for most solid tumors that are contained in one area.

A

CANCER SURGERY

105
Q

A surgical procedure in which a cut is made through the skin to remove an entire tumor, lump or suspicious area so it can be checked under a microscope for signs of disease.

A

EXCISIONAL BIOPSY

106
Q

a procedure use to get a cell sample from a suspicious lump or an abnormal area of your body. involves using a thin needle and a syringe to pull out cells, tissue and fluids.

A

NEEDLE ASPIRATION BIOPSY

FINE NEEDLE ASPIRATION- thin, hollow needle

CORE NEEDLE- uses a wider needle

107
Q

A surgical procedure in which a reduction of as much of the bulk of a tumour without the intention of a complete eradication.

A

DEBULKING SURGERY

108
Q

A surgical resection of persistent or recurrent cancer after previous local treatment without surgery

A

SALVAGE SURGERY

109
Q

A treatment that uses extreme cold produced by liquid nitrogen or argon gas to destroy cancer cells and abnormal tissue. It is a local treatment, which means that it is directed toward a specific part of your body

A

CRYOSURGERY

110
Q

Surgery to remove an organ or gland that shows no signs of cancer, in an attempt to prevent development of cancer of that organ or gland.

A

PROPHYLACTIC SURGERY

111
Q

What is the mechanism of action for radiation therapy, and what cells does it effectively target?

A

USES IONIZING RADIATION TO INTERRUPT CELL DIVISION (BREAKING DNA HELIX). EFFECTIVE FOR BONE MARROW CANCER, LYMPHOMA, SKIN CANCER, AND BONE CANCER.

112
Q

What types of cancer are considered radioresistant and not effectively treated by radiation therapy?

A

MUSCLE, CARTILAGE, CONNECTIVE TISSUE CANCER.

113
Q

How is dosing set for radiation therapy, and what is the goal?

A

SET AS “LETHAL DOSE” TO DESTROY 95% OF CANCER CELLS WHILE AFFECTING NORMAL CELLS.

114
Q

What is fractionated radiation therapy, and why is it utilized?

A

DIVIDED TO ALLOW REPAIR OF NORMAL CELLS.

115
Q

Name the two types of radiation therapy and provide an example for external beam radiation therapy (EBRT).

A
  1. EXTERNAL BEAM RADIATION THERAPY (EBRT) - EXAMPLE: TELETHERAPY.
  2. INTERNAL RADIATION THERAPY (BRACHYTHERAPY)
116
Q

Is the patient radioactive after external beam radiation therapy (EBRT)?

A

NO, THE PATIENT IS NOT RADIOACTIVE AFTER THE PROCEDURE.

117
Q

What are the routes of internal radiation therapy (Brachytherapy)?

A

INTERSTITIAL (E.G., BREAST CANCER),

INTRACAVITARY (E.G., GYNECOLOGICAL CANCER),

INTRALUMINAL (E.G., HOLLOW TUBE-LIKE STRUCTURES SUCH AS COLON, BRACHIAL, ESOPHAGEAL),

INTRAVENOUS.

118
Q

What is the difference between sealed and unsealed internal radiation therapy?

A

SEALED: NOT ALL BODY FLUID IS RADIOACTIVE; UNSEALED: ALL BODY FLUID IS RADIOACTIVE. THE PATIENT IS STILL RADIOACTIVE AFTER THERAPY.

119
Q

What are some nursing considerations for internal radiation therapy?

A

LIMIT TIME SPENT WITH THE PATIENT TO NOT LATER THAN 30 MINUTES/DAY,

MAINTAIN A DISTANCE OF 6 FEET

USE LEAD APRON/CONTAINERS FOR SHIELDING,

ENSURE A PRIVATE ROOM

USE DOSIMETER BADGE TO MEASURE EXPOSURE

INDICATE RADIATION EXPOSURE ON PATIENT’S NOTES.

120
Q

What are the contraindications for radiation therapy?

A

CONTRAINDICATED FOR PREGNANT WOMEN AND CHILDREN.

121
Q

Bone marrow transplant uses healthy blood stem cells from a donor to replace bone marrow that’s not producing enough healthy blood cells.

A

ALLLOGENEIC BONE MORROW TRANSPLANT

122
Q

Bone marrow transplant that can only be used when the patient has an identical sibling (twin or triplet) – someone who has the exact same tissue type.

A

SYNGENEIC BONE MARROW TRANSPLANT

123
Q

Bone marrow
transplant that uses healthy blood stem cells from your own body to replace bone marrow that’s not working properly.

A

AUTOLOGOUS BONE MARROW TRANSPLANT

124
Q

a systemic disorder that occurs after bone marrow transplant when the graft’s ( transplanted, or donated tissue) immune cells recognize the host (recipient) as foreign and attack the recipient’s body cells.

A

GRAFT VS HOST DISEASE (GvHD)

125
Q

What is the primary management for graft-vs-host disease (GVHD), and what immunosuppressant is commonly administered?

A

ADMINISTRATION OF IMMUNOSUPPRESSANTS LIKE CYCLOSPORIN TO REDUCE THE HOST’S IMMUNE RESPONSE.

126
Q

What is a common sign and symptom of graft-vs-host disease?

A

FLAKING OF THE SKIN.

127
Q

What are the risk factors associated with laryngeal cancer?

A

SMOKING AND ALCOHOL.

128
Q

What is a common sign and symptom of laryngeal cancer?

A

PERSISTENT HOARSENESS.

129
Q

What is a nursing consideration for patients undergoing laryngeal cancer treatment?

A

WATCH OUT FOR BLEEDING, SUCH AS HEMOPTYSIS, DIFFICULTY BREATHING (DOB), AND FEELING OF FULLNESS IN THE NECK.

129
Q

What are the treatment modalities for laryngeal cancer and their associated outcomes?

A

RADIATION THERAPY (85 TO 95% CURE RATE)

LASER SURGERY (SAVES VOICE)

PARTIAL LARYNGECTOMY (TEMPORARY TRACHEOSTOMY, CHANGE IN VOICE),

TOTAL LARYNGECTOMY (PERMANENT TRACHEOSTOMY, LOSS OF VOICE).

130
Q

What are the risk factors associated with breast cancer?

A

HORMONAL IMBALANCE

HISTORY OF ENDOMETRIAL, OVARIAN

CERVICAL CANCER.

131
Q

What are the common signs and symptoms of breast cancer?

A

CHANGE IN NIPPLE (ITCHING/RETRACTION)

ASYMMETRY

PAINLESS LUMP
DIMPLING/DISCOLORATION (ORANGE PEEL/PEAU D’ORANGE).

132
Q

What is the management approach for breast cancer, including medications and therapies?

A

CHEMOTHERAPY + TAMOXIFEN (ANTI-ESTROGEN), RADIATION THERAPY.

133
Q

What nursing considerations should be taken after breast cancer surgery?

A

DO’S: SEMI-FOWLER’S POSITION, ARM EXERCISE, PUT A NOTE “ARM PRECAUTION,” AND WEAR LOOSE CLOTHING.

134
Q

What actions should be avoided after breast cancer surgery to prevent lymphedema?

A

DON’TS: TAKING BP ON THE AFFECTED SIDE, ADMINISTERING INJECTIONS ON THE AFFECTED SIDE, INJURY, CARRYING HEAVY OBJECTS.

135
Q

What does a lumpectomy involve in breast cancer surgery?

A

REMOVAL OF THE LUMP ONLY.

136
Q

In the context of breast cancer surgery, what is removed during a simple mastectomy?

A

BREAST, NIPPLE, AND LUMP.

137
Q

In modified mastectomy for breast cancer, what parts are removed?

A

LUMP, BREAST, NIPPLE, AND LYMPH NODES.

138
Q

What components are removed during radical modified mastectomy for breast cancer?

A

LUMP, BREAST, NIPPLE, LYMPH NODES, AND MUSCLE.

MED SURG (2 decks)

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