Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SURGERY > Oncology > Flashcards

Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

CRITERIA SUGGESTIVE OF HEREDITARY CANCER

A
  1. Tumor development at a much younger age than usual 2. Presence of bilateral disease 3. Presence of multiple primary malignancies 4. Presentation of a cancer in less than affected sex. 5. Clustering of the same cancer type in relatives 6. Cancer associated with other conditions such as mental retardation and pathognomic skin lesion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

the gene mutated in multiple advanced cancers 1

A

PTEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Metastases diagnosed at the initial cancer diagnosis

A

SYNCHRONOUS METASTASES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Activating mutations in BRAF causes:

A

 Melanoma  Sporadic colorectal cancer  Papillary thyroid cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

angiogenic oncogenes and tumor-suppressor genes

A

Ras Myc HER2/ neu p53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

viral DNA can be integrated into the cellular chromosomal DNA, leading to transformation of cells to a neoplastic state

A

Non Permissive Host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Breast self-examination

A

Monthly, starting at age 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cells present in the blood that possess antigenic or genetic characteristics of a specific tumor type

A

CA – CIRCULATING TUMOR CELLS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PTEN ((phosphatase and tensin homologue)

A

Cowden Disease (multiple hamartoma syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Encodes for the human homologue of the yeast Cds1 and the RAD53 G2 checkpoint, whose activation by DNA damage prevents entry into mitosis

A

hCHK2 gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Disappearance of disease and no evidence of new for a specified interval of 4 weeks

A

Complete response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Is a tumor related antigen that is elevated in colon and pancreatic ca; Measured at the start of therapy and every 1-3 mos while under treatment

A

CA 19-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Step in Tumorigenesis that may lead a single cell to acquire a distinct growth advantage

A

Initiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

2 types of oncogenes

A

Growth Factors Growth Factor Receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

other names for gene p16

A

INK4A, CDKN1, CDKN2A, and MTS1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

3 groups of chemical carcinogens

A
  1. Genotoxins 2. Co-carcinogens 3. Tumor promoters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

irradiated cells secrete cytokines and other factors that increase production of reactive oxygen species in bystander cells, may involve cell to cell communication via gap junction

A

“By stander effect”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tumor cell-cycle regulators (in human) which are frequently mutated or altered in expression:

A

INK4a INK4b KIP1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Major cellular pathway for protein and organelle turnover

A

Autophagy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Progression step in tumorigenesis

A

Repeated promoter application to acquire spontaneous mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

hereditary predisposition for colorectal cancer with early age of onset and an excess of synchronous and metachronous colonic cancers

A

Lynch 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tamoxifen

A

Endometrial CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

5q Mutation

A

FAP (Familial Adenomatous Polyposis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A genetically regulated program to dispose of cells

A

Apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the types of Adjuvant Therapy?

A

Chemotherapy Hormonal therapy Immuno-therapy Biologic therapy Radiation Therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is formed when ligands are bound to the receptors

A

DISC (Death Inducing Signal Complex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

50% or more decrease of the original size, determined by two observations (not less than 4 weeks apart); No appearance or progress of new lesion progression of any lesion demonstrated

A

Partial Response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Benzene, Chlorambucil

A

Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

infection with an oncogenic DNA virus result in a productive lytic infection, leading to cell death and release of newly formed viruses

A

Permissive Host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Ubiquitous proteins that are produced and secreted by cells locally which stimulates cell proliferation

A

Growth factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Steps in Tumorigenisis

A

Initiation Promotion Progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Types of Alkylating Agents

A
  1. Classic alkylators 2. Nitrosoureas 3. Miscellaneous DNA-binding agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Two types of epidemiological studies that are done most commonly

A

Cohort Study Case-control Study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Glycoprotein encoded by MUC1 gene that tumor cells shed into the blood stream and useful in diagnosis of advanced breast CA

A

CA15-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Antitumor Antibiotic

A

Bleomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tumor suppressor that acts by binding CDK4 and CDK6 and inhibiting the catalytic activity of the CDK4-CDK6/cyclin D complex

A

p16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CEA (Carcinoembryonic Antigen) is elevated specially in?

A

colon cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Anti-metabolites

A

Folate analogues Methotrexate Purine analogues Azathioprine Mercaptopurine Thioguanine Cladibrine (2-chlorodeoxyadenosine) Fludarabine Pentostatin Pyrimidine analogues Capecitabine Cytarabine Floxuridine Gemcitabine Ribonucleotide reductase inhibitors Hydroxyurea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

25% or greater increase in size or appearance of new lesions

A

Progressive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Classifications of Biopsy

A
  1. Mucosal biopsy via endoscopic exam 2. Palpable external lesions a. Needle biopsy - Fine needle biopsy - Core needle biopsy 3. Open biopsy (When needle biopsy is questionable) - Incision biopsy - Excision biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Breast Cancer Global Statistics

A

2ND LEADING CANCER IN THE WORLD 5th MOST COMMON CAUSE OF CANCER DEATH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Physical Carcinogens cause cancer either by:

A

a. Induction of inflammation and cell proliferation b. Exposure induces DNA damages and mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Administration before surgery of tumor considered initially inoperable

A

preoperative chemotherapy, neoadjuvant chemotherapy, or induction therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

hMLH1; hMSH2; hMSH6;PMS1; hPMS2

A

Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the primary goal of PRIMARY / DEFINITIVE THERAPY?

A

Local and regional control of cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Block caspase 3 activation

A

Inhibitors of Apoptosis Proteins (IAPs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

rb

A

Retinoblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Uses of Cancer Staging

A
  1. Selection of therapy – basis for selection of therapy 2. Estimation of prognosis 3. Evaluation of treatments 4. Exchange of information among tx centers 5. Continued investigation of human cancers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

It is detected by staining bone marrow aspirates with monoclonal antibodies to cytokeratin.

A

Bone marrow Metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Surgical ablation of organs producing the hormones- oophorectomy for breast cancer

A

Hormonal Therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Not a single cell but rather a large number of cells in a target organ may have undergone the initiating genetic event

A

Field Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Indications for Chemotherapy

A
  1. Established / documented distant metastatic disease: 2. Therapy given for patient with high risk for distant metastasis known as adjuvant chemotherapy.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Treatment for breast cancer which work by targeting bcr-abl, c-kit, and HER2/ neu,

A

Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cells that have the ability to perpetuate themselves through self-renewal and to generate mature cells of a particular tissue through differentiation

A

Cancer stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Benzidine

A

Bladder cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Plant Alkaloids

A

VInca alkaloids Vinblastine Vincristine Vindesine Vinorelbine Epipodophyllotoxins Etoposide Teniposide Taxanes Paclitaxel Docetaxel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

stimulate hydrolysis of the bound GTP to return RAS to its inactive form

A

GTPase activating proteins (GAP’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Compare a group of patients affected with a disease to a group of individuals without the disease for a given exposure

A

Case-Conrol Study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Heat shock proteins

A

hsp27, hsp70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Promoters include:

A

Hormones Growth Factors Cytokines *Chronic Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

System describing the extent malignancy

A

Cancer Staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cells exhibit reduced sensitivity to drugs-by virtue of their cell cycle distribution

A

Kinetic Resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Spread from the primary site and formation of new tumor in distant sites

A

Metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Bind to the DISC & inhibit activation of caspase 8

A

FADD-like interleukin-1 protease-inhibitory proteins (FLIPs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

hereditary predisposition for colorectal cancer with early age of onset and an excess of synchronous and metachronous colonic cancers and has a high risk for: carcinoma of the endometrium transitional cell carcinoma of the ureter and renal pelvis carcinomas of the stomach, small bowel, ovary, and pancreas

A

Lynch 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Mechanisms of Viral Oncogenes

A

a. Interfere cell-cycle check points and DNA repair b. Expression of cytokines and other growth factors c. Alteration of immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Hepatitis B Hepatitis C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Miscellaneous Agents

A

Asparaginase Estramustine Mitotane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

3 stages of Adenomas:

A

Increase size Dysplasia Villous content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

HPV type 16 and 18

A

Cervical cancer Anal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Metastasis diagnosed after a disease-free interval

A

METACHRONOUS METASTASES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Nitrosoureas

A

Carmustine (BCNU) Lomustine (CCNU) Semustine (MeCCNU) Streptozocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

EBV (Epstein Barr Virus)

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s disease Immunosuppression-related lymphoma Sinonasal angiocentric, T-cell lymphoma, Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

3rd most common cause of cancer death

A

Colorectal Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

if tumor is small, instead of removal of the whole breast, you only remove one quadrant

A

Conservative surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

To induce or potentiate inherent anti-tumor immunity to destroy cancer cells

A

Immune therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Medullary thyroid carcinoma and pheochromocytoma (in 50%) or parathyroid adenoma (in 20%)

A

MEN2A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

p53

A

Li-Fraumeni syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Potentially best tumor marker available

A

PSA (Prostate Specific antigen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Failure to kill cells is due to insufficient drug concentration occurs when tumor cells are located in sites where effective drug concentrations are difficult to achieve

A

Pharmacologic Resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The intent is not for cure because of the nature of the disease

A

Palliative surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Glycoprotein that is ideal for tumor marker

A

PSA (Prostate Specific antigen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Adult T-cell leukemia or lymphoma

A

Human T-cell lymphotropic viruses

56
Q

Follow a group of people who initially do not have a disease over time and measure the rate of development of a disease

A

Cohort Study

58
Q

Metastatic process involves

A
  1. Access to circulation 2. Survival 3. Lodge in new organ 4. Initiate growth 5. Establish vascularization for survival
59
Q

aberrations in the apoptotic program in human cancers:

A
  1. Increased expression of -Fas and TRAIL decoy receptors -anti-apoptotic Bcl-2 -IAP-related protein surviving -c-FLIP -growth factors and growth factor receptors activation of the PI3-K/Akt survival pathway 2. Mutations or downregulation of -proapoptotic Bax -caspase-8 -APAF1 -XAF1 -CD95, TRAIL-R1, and TRAIL-R2 (death receptors) 3. Alterations of the p53 pathway
59
Q

Pathognomonic features of Cowden disease

A

Trichilemmomas, benign tumors of the hair follicle infundibulum, and mucocutaneous papillomatosis

59
Q

Mammography

A

Annual, starting at age 40

61
Q

Links Ras to activation of protein kinase C and calcium mobilization

A

Phospholipase C

62
Q

Exploits the molecular difference between normal and cancer cells; Directed at the processes involved in tumor growth rather than directly targeting the tumor cells

A

Biological Therapy

63
Q

Neither complete or partial response nor

A

Minimal or stable response

64
Q

PSA (Prostate Specific antigen) sensitive for

A

prostate cancer benign prostate hypertrophy prostatis

65
Q

Miscellaneous DNA-binding agents

A

Carboplatin Cisplatin Dacarbazinw (DTIC) Hexamethylmelamine Procarbazine

67
Q

this cancer has the highest age-adjusted incidence in JAPAN

A

Stomach/Gastric Cancer

68
Q

For large lesion done directly overlie the area to be removed than tunneling.

A

Incision Biopsy

69
Q

five groups of human carcinogens

A

(1) Proven carcinogens (2A) Probable carcinogens (suggestive epidemiological evidence; no causality evidence and inadequate) basis (2B) Possible carcinogen (3) Not classifiable as to carcinogenicity in human but carcinogenic in animals (4) Probably not carcinogenic humans

70
Q

Tumors that appear to lie exclusively above the basement membrane

A

In situ Cancer

70
Q

Substances detected in higher levels produced either by cancer or body response to cancer can be both prognostic or predictive values

A

Tumor Markers

71
Q

plays an important role in cell-cell interactions, cell adhesion, regulation of β-catenin, and maintenance of cytoskeletal microtubules

A

APC

71
Q

Beryllium Cadmium

A

Lung cancer

71
Q

identification of metastases that had formerly been silent and unidentified→stage migration→ perceived improvement in chances of survival

A

“Will Rogers effect”

72
Q

TWO CRITERIA USED TO ASSESS THE EFFICACY OF A SENTINEL LYMPH NODE BIOPSY:

A
  1. Sentinel lymph node identification rate 2. False-negative rate
73
Q

Performed using isosulfan blue dye, technetium-labeled sulfur colloid or albumin or a combination of both techniques to detect sentinel nodes which may improve the capability of detecting sentinel lymph nodes

A

LYMPHATIC MAPPING

75
Q

Drive a quiescent cell from G0 into the cell cycle

A

Mitogenic Growth Factors

75
Q

These are closely related to the death receptors but lack a functional death domain

A

Decoy receptors

76
Q

What are the stimuli for the Mitochondrial Pathway of Apoptosis

A

o DNA damages o ROS o Withdrawal of survival factors

77
Q

Eradication of micrometastatic disease with the intent of decreasing relapse rates and improving survival rates

A

Adjuvant Therapy (goal)

79
Q

MEN1

A

Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1

81
Q

2 of the best studied oncogenes

A
  1. HER2/Neu (c-erb B-2) 2. RAS
82
Q

PSA level of _____should be used as threshold for performing prostate biopsy

A

4ng/mL

83
Q

Classic alkylators

A

Busulfan Chlorambucil Cyclophosphamide Ifosfamide Mechlorethamine (nitrogen mustard) Melphalan Mitomycin Triethylene thiophosphoramide (thiotepa)

85
Q

Downstream pathways activated by RAS-GTP

A

Serine-Threonine Kinase RAF PI3K RAS-related RAL protein Phospholipase C

86
Q

Performed for lesions for which either core biopsy is not possible or the results are nondiagnostic

A

Open Biopsy

87
Q

Stimulate the formation of RAS-GTP (active form)

A

Guanine nucleotide exchange factors (GEFs)

89
Q

Criteria for classic LFS in an individual (the proband):

A

a. A bone or soft tissue sarcoma when younger than 45 years b. A first-degree relative with cancer before age 45 years c. First- or second-degree relative with either a sarcoma diagnosed at any age or any cancer diagnosed before age 45 years

90
Q

Attachment to glycoproteins of the ECM such as fibronectin, laminin, and collagen is mediated by

A

tumor cell integrin receptors

91
Q

A family of proteases (Cysteine-dependent and aspartate-directed proteases) that effects the apoptosis

A

Caspases

93
Q

Sometimes referred to as a second form of programmed cell death

A

Autophagy

94
Q

Normal cellular gene that contributes to cancer when abnormal

A

Oncogene

95
Q

defines the cancer in terms of the anatomic extent of disease and is based on assessment of three components; applies only to tumors that have been microscopically confirmed to be malignant

A

TNM staging

97
Q

Surgeon in Oncology should:

A
  1. be responsible for the initial diagnosis and management of solid tumors 2. have knowledge of cancer epidemiology, etiology, staging and natural history since it is required for initial assessment and determination of optimal surgical therapy
98
Q

ADJUVANT THERAPY primary goal

A
  1. Systemic control by treatment of distant foci of subclinical disease 2. Prevent distant recurrence
100
Q

Types of Initiator Caspases:

A

Caspase 8 Caspase 9 Caspase 10

101
Q

Procedure to remove a small area of diseased or problematic tissue with a margin of normal tissue

A

Excision Biopsy

102
Q

States that lymphadenectomy is important for staging and survival; More extensive lymphadenectomy yielding of nodes reduces the risk of regional recurrence

A

Traditional Halsted View

102
Q

First node to receive drainage from the tumor site

A

Sentinel Node

103
Q

determines the tumor histology and grade and thus assists in definitive therapeutic planning

A

Biopsy

105
Q

Process Involved in Invasion

A
  1. Changes in adhesion 2.Initiation of Motility 3. ECM proteolysis
106
Q

Global Statistics of Lung Cancer

A

NO. 1 LEADING CANCER IN THE WORLD NO. 1 MOST COMMON CAUSE OF CANCER DEATH

108
Q

What are the type of activation of the following genes? abl c-myc ras HER-2/neu

A

abl (Translocation) c-myc (Promoter insertion) ras (Mutation) HER-2/neu (Amplification)

109
Q

Achieved with the help of MMP, proteinases, serine and cysteine and plasminogen activator

A

ECM proteolysis

110
Q

Chemotherapy administered to a patient who is at high risk for distant recurrence but has no evidence of distant disease

A

Adjuvant Therapy

111
Q

generally used to describe molecular markers that predict disease-free survival, disease-specific survival, and overall survival

A

Prognostic Markers

112
Q

Types of Executioner Caspases:

A

Caspase 3 Caspase 6 Caspase 7

114
Q

Usually is expressed as the number of new cases per 100,000 persons per year

A

Incidence

115
Q

Another factor limiting optimal killing for drug-sensitive cancers; Dose reduction of 20% because of drug toxicity = decline in the cure rate by as much as 50%

A

IMPROPER DOSING

117
Q

What are the 6 hallmarks of Cancer?

A
  1. self sufficiency of growth signals 2. Insensitivity to growth-inhibiting growth factors 3. Evasion of apoptosis 4. Potential for limitless replication 5. Angiogenesis 6. Invasion and Metastasis
118
Q

Encodes small GTP-binding proteins that regulate several cellular processes

A

RAS

120
Q

what are the 2 functions of Heat Shock Proteins in Apoptosis?

A
  1. Blocking formation of the apoptosome complex 2. Inhibiting release of cytochrome c from the mitochondria
122
Q

Revised Criteria for Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colon Cancer (HNPCC) (Amsterdam Criteria II):

A

3-2-1-0  3 or more relatives with an HNPCC-associated cancer (colorectal cancer, endometrial cancer, cancer of the small bowel, ureter, or renal pelvis), one of whom is a first-degree relative of the other two  At least 2 successive generations affected  At least 1 case diagnosed before age 50 y  Familial adenomatous polyposis excluded (0)  Tumors verified by pathologic examination

123
Q

BRCA1,BRCA2

A

Breast-ovarian syndrome

124
Q

Response to Chemotherapy

A

Progressive Minimal or stable response Partial Response Complete response

126
Q

Promoters enhance cell replication by:

A
  1. Interacting with self-surface receptors (to effect intracellular pathway) 2. Altering Gene expression
128
Q

4 Phases of Cell cycle

A

S phase G1,G2 G0 M phase

130
Q

Monitor trends in cancer incidence and mortality

A

Epidemiological Studies

131
Q

infection of the cell is permanent (DNA or RNA virus)

A

RNA (Retro virus)

133
Q

hCHK2

A

Li-Fraumeni syndrome and hereditary breast cancer

135
Q

cell-cycle regulators which suppresses cell-cycle inhibitors like p27

A

cyclin D1

137
Q

Characteristics of abnormally proliferating cells (5)

A
  1. Loss of contact inhibition 2. Altered Appearance and poor adherence to cells and substartum 3. Loss of Anchorage 4. Immortalization 5. Gain of Tumorigenicity
138
Q

Proportion of patients in whom a sentinel lymph node was identified and removed among all patients undergoing an attempted sentinel lymph node biopsy

A

Sentinel lymph node identification rate

139
Q

Normal gene that becomes an oncogene due to mutation or increased expression

A

Proto-Oncogenes

141
Q

2nd most common cause of cancer death

A

Gastric cancer

142
Q

 Affect cell by binding to tubulin S phase  Blocks microtubule polymerization impairing mitotic spindle formation M phase.  Inhibits enzymes necessary to synthesize DNA.

A

Plant Alkaloids

143
Q

cancer cells initially grow rapidly (exponential growth phase), then the growth slows down owing to hypoxia and decreased nutrient supply

A

GOMPERTZIAN MODEL

145
Q

p53 gene is located in?

A

p arm of Chromosome 17 (17p)

146
Q

Location of the following: HRAS KRAS NRAS

A

HRAS (Ch 11) KRAS (Ch 12) NRAS (Ch 1)

148
Q

Establishment of new blood vessels from a preexisting vascular bed

A

Angiogenesis

149
Q

Disadvantage of Fine Needle Biopsy

A

Cannot differentiate between invasive and noninvasive tumor.

150
Q

this cancer is related mainly to dietary differences in consumption of animal fat, meat, and fiber.

A

Colorectal Cancer

152
Q

Constitutive activation of RAF is common in some tumors such as:

A

 Non–small cell lung cancer  Renal cell carcinoma  Hepatocellular cancer

153
Q

Aflatoxins

A

Liver cancer

154
Q

H. Pylori plays a major role in what cancer development?

A

Stomach/Gastric Cancer

155
Q

the first breast cancer susceptibility gene identified

A

BRCA1

156
Q

Primary modality of therapy for distant metastatic disease

A

Chemotherapy

158
Q

What happens in Heterodimerization with HER2/neu?

A

Heterodimerization potentiates recycling of receptors rather than degradation

159
Q

Proangiogenic factors

A
  1. VASCULAR ENDOTHELIAL GROWTH FACTORS (VEGF) 2. Platelet Derived Growth Factors (PDGF’s) A,B, C, D 3. ANGIOPOIETINS
161
Q

TWO OPPOSING VIEWS REGARDING THE ROLE OF LYMPHADENECTOMY:

A
  1. The traditional Halsted view 2. The opposing view
162
Q

factors responsible for initiating motility

A

autocrine motility factor autotaxin, scatter factor TGF-α EGF Insulin like GF

164
Q

Components of Apoptosome

A

 Cytochrome c  Procaspase 9  Apoptotic protease activating factor 1 (Apaf-1)

165
Q

Medullary thyroid carcinoma, marfanoid habitus, mucosal neuromas, and ganglioneuromatosis

A

MEN2B

166
Q

Stages of Evaluation of Cancer Patient

A
  1. Cancer risk assessment 2. Cancer screening 3. Diagnosis 4. Cancer staging
167
Q

APC

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

168
Q

p16;CDK4

A

Familial melanoma

169
Q

model uses risk factors such as an individual’s age, age at menarche, age at first live birth, number of first-degree relatives with breast cancer, number of previous breast biopsies, and whether the biopsy results revealed atypical ductal hyperplasia

A

GAIL MODEL

170
Q

Treatment for chronic myelogenousleukemia and gastrointestinal stromal tumors

A

Imitanib Mesylate, Gleevec

172
Q

Hallmark of HNPCC

A

microsatellite instability - unrepaired mismatches and small insertion or deletion loops

173
Q

CDH1

A

Hereditary diffuse gastric cancer

174
Q

tumor cells are genetically unstable and tend to mutate to form different cell clones

A

Goldie-Coldman hypothesis:

175
Q

Best known agent of physical carcinogenesis

A

Radiation

176
Q

HIV-1

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

178
Q

Tumors demonstrating ability to breach the basement membrane, penetrating into surrounding stroma

A

Invasive Cancer

179
Q

En-bloc resection with adequate margins of normal tissues and regional nodes in some cases

A

PRIMARY / DEFINITIVE THERAPY

181
Q

Autophagy is involved in:

A

o Starvation o Cellular differentiation o Cell death o Aging

182
Q

cell that has a proliferative advantage by bypassing quiescence stage

A

Tumor Cell

183
Q

Major groups of targeted therapy

A

Inhibition of growth factor receptors Intracellular signal transduction Cell cycle inhibitors Apoptosis based therapy Anti angiogenic compounds

185
Q

RET

A

Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2

186
Q

SURGICAL GOLD STANDARD

A

negative surgical margins

187
Q

Defined on the basis of observed clustering of malignancies, including early-onset breast cancer, soft tissue sarcomas, brain tumors, adrenocortical tumors, and leukemia

A

LI-FRAUMENI SYNDROME (LFS)

189
Q

One of the best characterized tyrosine kinases because it is the preferred partner in heterodimer formation with all the other EGFR family

A

HER2/Neu (c-erb B-2)

190
Q

Develop hundreds to thousands of polyps in the colon and rectum

A

FAMILIAL ADENOMATOUS POLYPOSIS (FAP)

191
Q

Most common cancer in men

A

Prostate Cancer

192
Q

Types of Cancer screening tests

A
  1. Physical examination 2. Laboratory 3. Imaging procedures 4. Genetic tests 5. BIRADS VI
193
Q

Number of deaths occurring

A

Mortality

194
Q

Colorectal CA Procedures for screening

A

Fecal occult blood test (FOBT) Flexible sigmoidoscopy Fecal occult blood test and flexible sigmoidoscopy Double-contrast barium enema (DCBE) Colonoscopy

195
Q

Anti-angiogenesis Factors

A

thrombospondin-1 angiostatin

196
Q

2 FOLD EFFECT OF APPROPRIATE STAGING ON SURVIVAL:

A
  1. Patients with nodal metastases may be offered adjuvant therapy, which improves their survival chances 2. improved staging can improve perceived survival rates through a “Will Rogers effect”
197
Q

Combining cell cycle specific and cell cycle nonspecific agents

A

Combination Therapy

198
Q

CEA (Carcinoembryonic Antigen)

A

Glycoprotein found in embryonic endodermal epithelium, that is associated with the plasma membrane of tumor cells, from which may be released in the blood

199
Q

Uniform goal for all oncologic operations

A

achieving widely negative margins with no evidence of macroscopic or microscopic tumor at the surgical margins

200
Q

often is used in the context of predicting response to certain therapies. The markers are markers that can prospectively identify patients who will benefit from certain therapy

A

Predictive Marker

201
Q

The predominant change in Colorectal Cancer (Molecular)

A

Mutational Inactivation of Tumor Suppressor Genes

202
Q

Compatibility between cancer biology and its new microenvironment

A

Seed and soil theory

203
Q

HER2/Neu (c-erb B-2) is amplified in what common types of tumors?

A

(LOBOG) Lung Oral Breast Ovarian Gastric

204
Q

Proportion of patients with regional lymph node metastases in whom the sentinel lymph node was found to be negative

A

False-negative rate

205
Q

FACTORS CAUSING DISTURBANCE OF REGULATORY MECHANISMS

A

CKI&CKI-kinase inhibitors Cell cycle proteins Growth Factors GF receptors Intracellular signal transduction proteins Nuclear transcription Factors

SURGERY (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions