Oncologic Emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

In which groups of patients is incidence of hypercalcemia most common in?

A
  • NSC lung cancer
  • Breast cancer
  • Multiple myeloma
  • Squamous-cell cancers of the head and neck
  • Urothelial carcinomas
  • Ovarian cancers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What corrected calcium level defines mild hypercalcemia?

A

10.5 to 11.9 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What corrected calcium level defines moderate hypercalcemia?

A

12 to 13.9 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What corrected calcium level defines severe hypercalcemia?

A

14+ mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What other laboratory values should be tested for in hypercalcemia?

A
  • Serum phosphorous
  • PTH
  • Vitamin D
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the formula for corrected calcium?

A

0.8*(4 - albumin) + serum calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some S/S of hypercalcemia?

A
  • AKI
  • N/V
  • Lethargy/muscle weakness
  • Shortened QT interval
  • Arrhythmias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which etiology accounts for most cases of hypercalcemia?

A

Humoral (PTH-related peptide increased)
- increased calcium tubular reabsorption and phosphorus excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the rare causes of hypercalcemia?

A
  • Vitamin D toxicity
  • Ectopic PTH production by tumor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What treatment do we use to increase calcium excretion?

A

NS bolus of 1-2L, followed by 200-500 mL/hr infusion
Furosemide 20-40 mg (fluid overloaded or HF patients)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What treatments do we use to inhibit bone resorption?

A
  • Pamidronate (bisphosphonate)
  • Zoledronate (bisphosphonate)
  • Denosumab (RANKL-RANK binding inhibitor)
  • Calcitonin (direct inhibition and increased Ca2+ excretion)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What dose of pamidronate should we give to a patient with a corrected calcium >12?

A

90 mg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What dose of zoledronic acid should we give to a patient with a corrected calcium >12?

A

4 mg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Should you use bisphosphonates in renal impairment?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many days do we wait before repeating bisphosphonate doses for hypercalcemia?

A

7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F: Denosumab should be avoided in renal impairment

17
Q

Why do we limit calcitonin treatment to 24-48 hours?

A

Tachyphylaxis

18
Q

What possible reserved options do we have if main therapies fail for hypercalcemia?

A
  • Steroids
  • Cinacalcet
  • Dialysis
19
Q

What labs are characteristic of tumor lysis syndrome?

A

↑ K
↑ Uric acid
↑ Phosphate

↓ Calcium

20
Q

What are risk factors for TLS?

A
  • High uric acid at baseline
  • Nephropathy
  • Hypotension
  • HF
21
Q

T/F: Low WBC leads to a higher risk of TLS

A

FALSE: High WBC is associated with TLS risk

22
Q

What is the treatment approach to TLS?

A
  • Monitor labs q4-6 hours
  • NS 150-300 mL/hr (NOT SODIUM BICARB)
  • Allopurinol / Rasburicase
23
Q

Which uric acid treatment comes first in high risk TLS patients?

A

Rasburicase

24
Q

Which uric acid treatment comes first in intermediate risk TLS patients?

A

Allopurinol

25
Generally allopurinol has no renal considerations unless what is present?
CKD
26
How do we treat hyperphosphatemia?
IV fluids + diuretics Maybe phosphate binders
27
T/F: We do not always correct hypocalcemia
TRUE: usually resolves when hyperphosphatemia is addressed Correction may introduce complications and hypercalcemia
28
What are risk factors for febrile neutropenia?
- Age >65 - Previous chemo or radiation - Pre-existing neutropenia or bone marrow tumor - Gender - Low BMI - Poor performance status - Comorbidities - Genetic polymorphisms
29
How is neutropenia defined?
ANC < 500 OR ANC <1000, expected to drop below 500 within 48 hours
30
How is fever defined?
Temperature >38.3 C OR Temperature >38 for over 1 hour
31
When do we give prophylaxis for LOW risk neutropenia?
Previous HSV infection
32
Which prophylaxis treatments should we consider/give for high or intermediate risk patients?
- Bacterial - Fungal - Viral - PJP
33
A MASCC score of at least WHAT indicates a low infection risk in febrile neutropenia?
21
34
What bacterial prophylaxis should be given to a low risk patient with febrile neutropenia?
Fluoroquinolone Cefepime if they're already taking a quinolone
35
What bacterial prophylaxis should be given to a high risk patient with febrile neutropenia?
Empiric IV options - Pip-tazo - Cefepime - Meropenem
36
When do we consider MRSA coverage?
- Catheter-related infections - SSTI - Pneumonia - Mucositis - Hemodynamic insufficiency or sepsis
37
When do we give fungal coverage in patients with febrile neutropenia?
- Hematologic malignancies - Hemodynamically unstable - Signs of sepsis - 7+ days of febrile neutropenia
38
What are the three ways we can treat hypercalcemia (mechanisms)?
- Increasing calcium excretion - Decreasing bone resorption - Reduced intestinal absorption of calcium