Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 > Oncogenes, Tumor suppressor genes, Tumor Markers, etc. > Flashcards

Oncogenes, Tumor suppressor genes, Tumor Markers, etc. Flashcards

1
Q

What does IL-2 signal?

A

produced by lymphocytes

stimulated the growth of helper, cytotoxic, and regulatory T cells and natural killer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does IL-1 signal?

A

produced by macrophages, dendritic cells, and epithelial and endothelial cells

responsible for causing fever and acute inflammation

activates endothelium to express adhesion molecules promoting futher inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does IL-10 signal?

A

anti-inflammatory cytokine secreted by Th2 cells

downregulates Th17 responses, inhibits IL-12 and Interferon gamma, decreases representation of MHC class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does IL-5 signal?

A

secreted by Th2 and targets B cells

involved in IgA class switching as well as differentiation of B cells and eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does IL-6 signal?

A

produced by T and B cells, fibroblasts, and macrophages

contributes to the production of acute-phase proteins and induces B-cell differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does IL-8 signal?

A

attracts nuetrophils to site of inflammation

secreted by monocytes, neutrophils, epithelial cells, fibroblast, and endothelial cells

“CLEANUP on aisle 8”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does TNF alpha signal?

A

activates endothelium, causes WBC recruitment and vascular leak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does IL-3 signal?

A

supports growht and differentiation of BONE marrow stem cells

functions like GM-CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does Interferon gamma signal?

A

secreted by NK cells and TK cells in reposes to antigen of IL-12 from macrophages

stimulates macrophages to kill phagocytosed pathogens

inhibits differentiation of Th2 cells

increases IgG isotype switching in B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does IL-4 signal?

A

induces differentiation of T cells into Th2 (helper) cells

promotes growth of B cells, enhances class switching to IgA

stimulates growth and differentiation of Eosinophils

ain’t too proud “2 BEG 4 help”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does IL-13 signal?

A

Promotes IgE production by B cells

induces alternative macrophage activation

“IL-thirtEEn promotes IgE”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tumor Marker CA 125

A

Ovarian Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tumor Marker CA 15-3

A

Breast Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Tumor Marker CA19-9

A

Pancreatic Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tumor Marker PSA

A

Prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tumor Marker CEA

A

Colorectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tumor Marker AFP

A

Teratoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tumor Marker LDH

A

Seminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tumor Marker Beta-HCG

A

Choriocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tumor Marker NSE

A

Small cell lung cancer or SCLC

NSE found in lots of neuroendocrine tumors but mostly SCLC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MLH1 gene

A

Germline mutation of MLH1 gene prompts Lynch syndrome.

hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer

instability of short tandem DNA repeats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Chromosome 3 disorder

A

von Hippel-Lindau disease, renal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Chromosome 4 disorder

A

ADPKD (PKD2), achondroplasia, Huntington disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Chromosome 5 disorder

A

Cri-du-chat syndrome, familial adenomatous polyposis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Chromosome 6 disorder

A

Hemochromatosis (HFE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Chromosome 7 disorder

A

Williams syndrome, cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Chromosome 9 disorder

A

Friedreich ataxia, tuberous sclerosis (TSC1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Chromosome 11 disorder

A

WIlms tumore, Beta globin gene defects (sickle cell disease, Beta thalassemia), MEN1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Chromosome 13 disorder

A

Patau syndrome, wilson disease, retinoblastoma (RB1), BRCA2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Chromosome 15 disorder

A

Prader-WIlli syndrome, Angelman syndrome, Marfan syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Chromosome 16 disorder

A

ADPKD (PKD1, alpha globin gene defects (alpha thalassemia), tuberous sclerosis (TSC2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Chromosome 17 disorder

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1, BRCA1, TP53 (Li-Fraumeni syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Chromosome 18 disorder

A

Edwards syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Chromosome 21 disorder

A

Down Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Chromosome 22 disorder

A

neurofibromatosis type 2, DiGeorge syndrome (22q11)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Chromosome X disorder

A

Fragile X syndrome, X linked agammaglobulinemia, Klinefelter syndrome (XXY)

37
Q

Type 1 collagen issue

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta type 1

38
Q

Type 3 collagen issue

A

deficient in vascular type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

39
Q

Type 4 collagen issue

A

Defective in Alport syndrome and targeted by autoantibodies in goodpasture syndrome (attack basement membranes)

40
Q

HER2/neu (ERBB2)

A

tyrosine kinsase receptor

breast and gastric carcnomas

41
Q

RET

A

REceptor Tyrosine kinase

MEN 2a and MEN 2b (medullary and papillary thyroid carcinoma), pheochromocytoma

42
Q

BCR-ABL

A

CML, ALL

non receptor tyrosine kinase

43
Q

BRAF

A

oncogene
serine/threonine kinase

melanoma, non-hodgkin lymphoma, colorectal carcinoma, papillary thyroid carcinoma, hairy cell leukemia

44
Q

c-MYC

A

transcription factor

Burkitt lymphoma

45
Q

MYCN or n-MYC

A

transcription factor

neuroblastoma

46
Q

KRAS

A

RAS GTPase

colorectal, lung, pancreatic cancers

47
Q

BCL-2

A

antiapoptotic molecule

Follicular and diffuse large B-Cell lymphomas

inhibited by venetoclax which will prmote apoptosis via activation of caspases

48
Q

BRCA1/BRCA2

A

tumor suppressor genes

breast, ovarian, prostate, pancreatic cancers

49
Q

MEN1

A

MENin

multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1

pituitary, pancreas, parathyroid

50
Q

NF1

A

neurofibromin (RAS GTPase activating protein

neurofibromatosis type 1

51
Q

NF2

A

Merlin (schwannomin) protein

Neurofibromatosis type 2

52
Q

PTEN

A

negative regulator of PI2k/AKT pathway

prostate, breast, endometrial cancers

53
Q

RB1

A

inhibits E2F blocks G1 to S phase

retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma

54
Q

TP53

A

p53, activates p21, blocks G1 to S phase

most cancers, Li-Fraumeni syndrome (multiple malignancies at early age aka SBLA syndrome: sarcoma, breast, leukemia, adrenal gland)

55
Q

VHL

A

von Hippel-Lindau disease

56
Q

WT1

A

urogenital development trascription factor

Wilms Tumor (nephroblastoma)

57
Q

Neurofibromatosis type 1 vs 2

A

Type 1 - chromosome 17 (encodes neurofibromin a negative RAS regulator), cafe-au-lait spots, lisch nodules (pigmented iris hamartomas) seizures/focal neurologic signs (often from meningioma), bone lesions

Type 2 - chromosome 22, Merlin gene mutation, BOTH EARS AND BOTH EYES, bilateral vestibular schwannomas, juvenile cataracts, meningiomas, ependymomas

58
Q

MLH1

A

DNA mismatch repair gene

associated with lynch syndrome and breast cancer

59
Q

CCR5 and CXCR4

A

used by HIV for fusion with our cells, at first CCR5 and later CXCR4 but need a CD4 receptor as well

Homozygous mutations of the CCR5 receptor (CCR5Δ32 deletion) give individuals immunity against HIV infection, while heterozygous mutations slow the course of the disease

60
Q

CD4

A

surface protein allow binding of CD4 T cells to the MHC class II molecules on antigen presenting cells

61
Q

CD21

A

part of B cell coreceptor complex

62
Q

JAK 2

A

kinase that belongs to the group of intracellular tyrosine kinases involved in cytokine-mediated signaling

myeloproliferative neoplasms, including polycythemia vera, primary myelofibrosis, and essential thrombocythemia.

63
Q

MYCL1 or L-myc

A

lung cancer

64
Q

Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)

A

marker for immature lymphocytes because its gene is exclusively transcribed by lymphoblasts during their early phases of maturation

65
Q

Elevated ESR lab

A

inflammation present

66
Q

CREST syndrome

A

less severe form of scleroderma

calcinosis cutis, Raynaud phenomenon, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia.

67
Q

SLE antibodies

A

Anti-dsDNA (in ∼ 70% of cases)
Anti-Sm (Smith)

Anti-histone (in drug-induced lupus erythematosus)
Anti-Ro/SSA
Anti-La/SSB
Anti-U1 RNP (ribonucleoprotein)

Antiphospholipid antibodies (anti-cardiolipin most common type)
Anti-C1q antibodies (correlates with disease activity)
68
Q

Systemic sclerosis antibodies

A

Anti-Scl-70 (anti-topoisomerase antibody I: seen in 30–70% of cases

Anticentromere
Anti-RNA polymerase III

69
Q

Sjogren syndrome antibodies

A

Anti-Ro/SSA
Anti-La/SSB
60–80% of patients positive for one or both antibodies

Rheumatoid factor (RF); present in > 50% of patients
Anti-CCP
Salivary gland antibodies

70
Q

Myeloperoxidase antibody and Proteinase-3 antibody

A

p-ANCA and c-ANCA

71
Q

HLA B27

A

reactive arthritis (Chrohn’s as well)

72
Q

Anti-dsDNA antibodies

A

SLE

73
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Ixodes tick

lyme disease

74
Q

HLA-DQ2 proteins on WBCs

A

Celiac Disease

75
Q

IgM antibodies against the Fc region of IgG

A

Rhumatoid factors

ACPA (anti-citrullinated peptide antibodies are more specific to RA

76
Q

22q11.2

A

DiGeorge Syndrome

defective development of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches

CATCH-22 (cardiac anomalies, anomolous face, thymus aplasia, cleft palate, hypocalcemia)

77
Q

NF-kB

A

transcription factor involved in the regulation of multiple inflammatory and immunologic processes. Activates COX-2. Glucocorticoid therapy inhibits NF-κB and results in immunosuppression.

78
Q

HLA-DR4 and HLA-DR3 association

A

DM1

79
Q

HLA-A3

A

Hemochromatosis

80
Q

Alendronate

A

bisphosphanate

stops osteoclast function

81
Q

Cinacalcet

A

calciemetic that allosterically activates the calcium sensitive receptor in parathyroid gland

lowers PTH

82
Q

Prednisone effect on calcium?

A

can worsen hypoglycemia by decreasing expression of Vit D receptor

83
Q

primary tx for hyperthyroidism?

A

radioactive iodine, thyroidectomy, methimazole (inhibits thyroperoxidase)

84
Q

sevelamer

A

non absorbable phosphate binding polymer that decreases phosphate absorption in GI tract

85
Q

Isoniazid

A

one of 4 TB drugs

metabolized via acetylation to N-acetyl-Isoniazid

adverse effects include hepatic damage
do not take with foods containing thiamine

MOA: inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis following activation by the bacterial catalase–peroxidase enzyme KatG in Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Mtb)

86
Q

Essential Tremor tx

A

Beta blockers

87
Q

epinephrine effect for allergies

A

Alpha 1 - vasoconstriction
Beta 1 - increase heart contractility,
beta 2 - increase bronchodilation
binds to mast cells via beta 2 and stops degranulation of histamines

88
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

gram (+) acid fast bacillus causing tb

Step 1 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions