General Path must knows Flashcards

1
Q

Bence Jones Proteins

A

found in urine with Multiple Myeloma

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2
Q

carcinoembryonic antigen in serum

A

pancreatic or colon cancer

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3
Q

Sclerotic lesions on bones

A

Osteoblastic lesion (not osteolytic)

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4
Q

Bladder control via Pharmacology

A

Muscarinic M3 receptor stimulation is responsible for bladder contraction

antagonism of muscarinic M3 receptors fixes urge incontinence (sudden urge to urinate resulting in frequent involuntary loss of small amounts of urine and nocturia) example is Oxybutynin

Overflow incontinence!! can be fixed with Bethanechol which is a muscarinic M2 receptor agonist, usually causes continuous dribbling and no sudden urge to void
alpha 1 antogonism (tamsulosin, used to treat BPH which can cause overflow incontinence secondary to urinary retention in men) would cause bladder next relaxation and would worsen symptoms of detrusor overactivity

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5
Q

Adrenergic drug receptor types

A

Gq - a1, H1, V1, M1, M3

Gs - b1, b2, b3, d1, h2, v2

Gi- m2, a2, d2

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6
Q

Drug Trial Phases

A

Phase 0 - very small number of volunteers (healthy or with desired disease of interest), uses <1% of therapeutic dose, no safety or toxicity assessment

Phase 1 - Is it safe?, small number of patients again but more than phase 0, assesses safety/toxicity/dosage/pharmacokinetics/pharmacodynamics

Phase 2 - Does it Work?, moderate number of patients with disease of interest, assesses tx efficacy and adverse effects

Phase 3 - Is it as good or better?, large number of patients with disease of interest randomly assigned to either treatment or placebo, compares new tx to others

Phase 4 - Can it stay on the Market?, postmarket surveillance, detects rare or long-term adverse effects and evaluates cost effectiveness

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7
Q

CYP450 Inducers, Inhibitors

A

Inducers - CHRONIC ALCOHOLics Steal PHEN-PHEN and NEVer Reuse GReasy CARBs (chronic alcohol use, St. John’s wort, Phenytoin, Phenobarbital, Nevirapine, Rifampin, Griseofulvin, Carbamazepine)

Inhibitors - “sickfaces.com group” Sulfonamides, Isoniazid, Cimetidine, Ketoconazole, Fluconazole, Alcohol (binge drinking), Ciprofloxacin, Erythromycin, Sodium valproate, Chloramphenicol, Omeprazole, Metronidazole, Grapefruit Juice

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8
Q

CGD (chronic granulomatous disease)

A

X linked recessive or Autosomal recessive

defect in superoxide production with neutrophils (Nicoinamide adenine dinucleotide phosophate oxidase, NADPH), LOOK FOR PHOX RELATED GENE ISSUES AS WELL

Diagnosis: abnormal dihydrorhodamine flow cytometry test (DHR) indicates decreased NADPH oxidase activity (decreased green fluorescence), and a nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test that is negative (incubated leukocytes fail to turn blue

Clinical features: recurrent severe infections (chronic skin/lymph node/bone/resp/GI/UTI) with catalase positive organisms (S.aureus, Nocardia spp., E. coli, Candida, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, Aspergillus, Serratia)

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9
Q

S. Pneumoniae virulence factor

A

polysaccharide capsule

acts by masking subcapsular antigens

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10
Q

S. aureus virulence factor

A

Protein A

binds to the Fc portion of IgG which protects bacteria from opsonization and phagocytosis

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11
Q

S. pyogenes virulence factor

A

M protein

blocks the alternative complement pathway protecting from phagocytic cells

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12
Q

Fungal virulence factors

A

Beta-glucan cell wall

normal fungal cell wall component

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13
Q

Lipopolysaccharide

A

expressed on gram - bacteria membrane

endotoxins that trigger macrophage, complement and tissue factor activation which enhances inflammation

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14
Q

Shigella, Salmonella virulence factor

A

Type III secretion system

inject toxins into host cells

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15
Q

Flagella virulence factor

A

Vibrio cholerae, Salmonella, Campylobacter

facilitate movement through rotation of microtubules

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16
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa virulence factor

A

gram -, catalase +

has lipid A endotoxin in lipopolysaccharide, responsible for hypotension in gram - bacteremia

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17
Q

Lipooligosaccharide

A

Neisseria meningitidis endotoxin, can cause hypotension

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18
Q

Bordatella pertussis virulence factor

A

AB exotoxin, binds to surface of host cells and endocytosis, once in cytosol it catalyzes ADP-ribosylation and impairs inhibition of adenylate cyclase

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19
Q

crowded environment pneumonaie

A

atypical PNA, Mycoplasma pneumoniae,

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20
Q

Food poisoning times

A

preformed cereulide toxin can effect minutes to hours

ETEC (enterotoxigenic E. coli) 1-3 days after with diarrhea

C. perfringens, diarrhea 6-24 hours after undercooked meat

Salmonella, nausea and vomiting 3-7 days after undercooked poultry or eggs

Listeria monocytogenes, nausea and vomiting, 6hours to 10 days after, unpasteurized dairy products or ready to eat deli meats

S. aureus enterotoxin, rapid onset nausea and vomiting, inadequate refrigeration (mayonnaise, potato salad, custard)

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21
Q

Genital Ulcer

A

nontender with inguinal lymphadenopathy, spirochete is Treponema pallidum, primary syphilis

Painful is Haemophilus ducreyi “so painful you Du-Cry”

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22
Q

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

A

PID can cause, perihepatitis, infection and inflammation of liver capsule can lead to violin string attachments

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23
Q

Hepatitis

A

jaundice, fever, increased ALT and AST

naked viruses (A and E) lack an envelope and arent’ destroyed by the gut “the vowels hit your bowels”

HBV is only DNA virus

HAV - shellfish, good prognosis, Councilman bodies (eosinophilic remnant of apoptotic hepatocytes

HBV - parenteral (blood), sexual (bedroom), perinatal (birthing), granular osinophilic “ground glass” appearance due to accumulation of surface antigen within infected hepatocytes, cytotoxic T cells mediate the damage

HCV - primarily blood (IV drugs, posttransfusion), may progress to cirrhosis or carcinoma, lymphoid aggregates with focal areas of macrovesicular steatosis

HDV - superinfection if after HBV depends on HBV HBsAg coat for entry into hepatocytes

Alcoholic Hepatitis - hx of ETOH abuse, Asparatate aminotransferase:Alanine Aminotransferase ratio > 2:1

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24
Q

Hepatitis serologic markers

A

HBsAg - surface marker, means you have HBV infection

Anti-HBs - antibody to HBsAg indicates immunity by prior infection or vaccination

HBcAg - antigen associated with core of HBV

Anti-HBc - antibody either IgM (acute/recent infection) or IgG (prior exposure or chronic infection)

HBeAg - secreted by infected hepatocyte into circulation, indicates active viral replication and therefore high transmissibility and poorer prognosis

Anti-HBe - indicates low transmissibility

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25
Q

Porphyria cutanea tarda vs AIP vs Lead poisoning

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda - uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase (cytoplasm), tea colored urine (uroporphyrin accumulation), blistering cutaneous photosensitivity and hyperpigentation, most common, worse with alcohol consumption, causes are familial and Hepatitis C

AIP - porphobilinogen deaminase (aka uroporphyrinogen I synthase in cytoplasm) which converts porphobilinogen to hydroxymethylbilane, accumulates porphobilinogen and ALA, !!!5 P’s: Painful abdomen, Port wine colored Pee, Polyneuropathy, Psychological distrubances, Precipitated by factors that increase ALA synthase

Lead Poisoning - Ferrochelatase (mitochondria) and ALA dehydratase (mitochondrial membrane), acumulate protoporphyrin and ALA in blood, microcytic anemia (basophilic stippling with ringed sideroblasts in bone marrow), child exposed to paint can have mental deterioration, adults environmental exposure lead to headache memory loss and demyelination (peripheral neuropathy)

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26
Q

AIDs CD4 count precautions

A

x<250 coccidioidomycosis recommend fluconazole (inhibits ergosterol synthesis)

x<200 Pneumocystis pna and cystoisoporiasis recommend TMP/SMX

x<150 Histoplasmosis recommend Itraconazole (inhibits ergosterol synthesis

x<100 Toxoplasma gondii recommend TMP/SMX

x<50 Mycobacterium avium complex recommend Azithromycin or clarithromycin

“My Tough Hiv Cd4 count Precuations Confuse me”

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27
Q

HIV positive pregnant woman drug treatment

A

Zidovudine - NRTI, similar to thymidine, prevents formation of 3-5 phosphodiester linkages needed for DNA replication there after incorporated will prevent the elongation of viral DNA

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28
Q

Entamoeba histolytica

A

amebiasis, abd pain and bloody stool, incubation for 1-4 weeks then symptoms, presence of cysts or trophozoites containined phagocytosed erythrocytes in fresh stool

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29
Q

Campylobacter jejuni

A

comma shaped, grows in 42 celcius stool, bloody diarrhea

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30
Q

Plasmodium differences and details of dx

A

falciparum - anopheles mosquito, incubation 1 week, irregular fever spikes, blood smear shows RBC inclusion bodies, Chloroquine resistant

ovale - tertian malaria, incubation 1 week, RBC inclusion bodies, fever pattern every 48 hours, chloroquine sensitive

malariae - quartan malaria, incubation and RBC inclusions bodies the same, fever every 72 hours, chloroquine sensitive

Malaria - would show ring shaped inclusions in erythrocytes
Clinical features: joint pain and anemia, high fever with periodic spikes as well as flu like sx

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31
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi and brucei

A

cruzi - Chagas disease (dilated cardiomyopathy, fever, generalized lymphadenopathy, GI disease), circulating parasite in blood smear
GI disease via destruction of myenteric plexus anywhere along GI tract, can result in inability to relax the lower esophageal sphincter
increased chance in Central to souther america

brucei - parastie in africa, causing sleeping sickness

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32
Q

Babesia microti

A

Ixodes tick, NE and midwest regions of US, noncyclical fever, flu like sx, hepatosplenomagaly, anemia, blood smear show intra-erythrocyte rings with maltese cross

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33
Q

Dengue virus

A

endemic to tropical and subtropic areas, noncyclical high grade fever, flu like sx, arthralgias, headache, sx onset 2-10 days after, peripheral smear would exhibit elevated lymphocytes and plasmacytoid cells

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34
Q

Leishmania donovani

A

noncyclical fever, flu like symptoms, hepatospleomegaly, pancytopenia, amastigotes on blood smear

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35
Q

Cryptococcus Neoformans

A

pathogenic fungus with thick polysaccharide capsule,
stains bright red with mucicarmine (also india ink stain),
transmitted via soil or pigeon droppings and infects resp tract especially immunodeficient,
usually PNA but can manifest as cryptococcal meningoencephalitis

narrow budding encapsulated yeast

Tx: amphotericin B and Flucytosine

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36
Q

Aspergillus fumigatus

A

causes aspergillosis can manifest with PNA, H&E/silver/PAS staining show septate hyphae with fruiting bodies branching at 45 degree angles

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37
Q

Blastmomyces dermatitidis

A

staining shows multinucleated yeast the form broad-based buds, thin mucopolysaccharide layer so mucicarmine stains light red, SE and central US along with midwest near great lakes more common around wet soil and decaying wood

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38
Q

Histoplasma capsulatum

A

asymptomatic but can cause histoplasmosis in immunocompromised pts, ovoid yeast on stain

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39
Q

Cocciodoides immitis

A

methenamine silver stain shows spherules filled with endospores, no stain with mucicarmine

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40
Q

Candida albicans

A

fungus in lungs of immunocompromised, KOH staining show budding yeasts with hyphae and pseudohyphae

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41
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii

A

commonly associated with immunodeficiency, disc shaped cysts with central spores

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42
Q

BV vs Trich vs Candida vulvovaginitis

A

BV - bacterial vaginosis, Gardnerella vaginalis, gray or milky fish odor discharge, clue cells (vaginal epithelial cell covered in bacteria)

Candida - vaginal discharge, pruritus and dysuria, odorless and white/curdy cottage cheese like discharge appearance, pseudohyphae

Trichomonas vaginalis - vaginal pruritus, dysuria, strawberry cervix (punctate hemorrhages on the cervix), yellow-green malodorous discharge, motile trophozoites with discharge pH >4.5, tx with metronidazole

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43
Q

Prodominent cells fighting fungus and virus?

A

T cells

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44
Q

T-cell immunodeficiencies (4 types)

A

Thymic aplasia - thymic shadow absent, more commonly DiGeorge syndrome 22q11 microdeletion, failure to develop 3rd and 4th pharyngeal puches, “CATCH-22”: Cardiac defects Abnormal facies Thymic hypoplasia Cleft palate Hypocalcemia

IL-12 receptor deficiency - decreases Th1 response, disseminated mycobacterial and fungal infection may present after BCG vaccine, decrease in Interferon gamma

AD hyper IgE syndrome (Job syndrome) - Th17 cells deficiency due to STAT 3 mutation, impaired recruitment of neutrophils to sites of infection, “ABCDEF gets the JOB done”: Abscesses/RETAINED BABY TEETH/Coarse facies/Dermatologic problems/increased IgE/bone Fractures in minors, increased IgE and Eosinophils “Nuertophils have trouble getting to their JOB to get the monEy, and I need it JAK-STAT” (JAK-stat issue resulting in bad chemotaxis of neutrophils and increased IgE)

Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis - T-cell dysfunction, classic form caused by defects in AIRE, absent in vitro T-cell proliferation in response to Candida antigens

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45
Q

B-Cell immunodeficiences (3 types)

A

X-linked agammaglobulinemia - Bruton, defect in BTK (tyrosine kinase gene) leading to no B cell maturation, recurrent infections after 6 months because mom’s IgG has decreased, absent B cells in peripheral blood, decrease IgG in all cases, live vaccines contraindicated

Selective IgA deficiency - unknown cause, majority are asymptomatic, decrease IgA with normal IgG and IgM levels, increase susceptability of giardiasis and can cause false-negative celiac disease test

Common variable immunodeficiency - defect in B cell differentitiation, usually diagnosed after puberty, increase autoimmune disease risk, decrease plasma cells and immunoglobulins

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46
Q

Combined B and T cell disorders (4 types)

A

SCID (severe combined immunodeficiency) - defective IL-2R gamma chain is most common and adenosine deaminase deficiency is Autosomal recessive, RAG mutation to VDJ recombination defect, failure to thrive/chronic diarrhea/thrush, screened for in newborns, absence of thymix shadow, germinal centers, and T cells

Ataxia telangiectasia - defects in ATM gene (failure to detect DNA damage, failure to halt cell cycle, mutations accumulate), Triad: GAIT ATAXIA, spider Angiomas, IgA deficiency, prone to Giardia infection

Hyper-IgM syndrome - most common is defective CD40L on Th cells (class switching defect), severe pyogenic infections in early life, normal or elevated IgM with decrease in IgG/IgA/IgE, failure to make germinal centers, prone to Pneumocystis jirovecii infection

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome - mutation in WAS gene, WATER: Wiskott-Aldrich, Thrombocytopenia, Eczema, Recurrent (pyogenic) infection. increase IgE and IgA with fewer and smaller platelets, leukocytes and platelets unable to reorganize actin cytoskeleton

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47
Q

LYST

A

lysosomal trafficking regulator gene, Chediak Higashi syndrome shows defect in LYST

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48
Q

LFA-1 integrin (CD18)

A

used for migration and chemotaxis of WBC

defect brings Leukocyte adhesion deficiency (type1), increase in neutrophils but are absent at infection site, impaired wound healing

Late seperation of umbilical cord, Absent pus, Dysfunctional neutrophils (recurrent skin and mucosal bacterial infections)

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49
Q

defect in NADPH oxidase

A

CGD, increases susepctability to catalase + organisms (nocardia), abnormal dihydrorhodamine test (decrease in green flourescence), Nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test fails to turn blue

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50
Q

Hypersensitivity Type I (immediate)

A

preformed IgE antibodies

cell degranulation results in release of histamine

anaphylaxis, drug reactions, allergies, insect venom, food allergies, reactions to inhaled environmental factors

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51
Q

Hypersensitivity Type II (cytotoxic)

A

IgM or IgG antibodies bind to antigens on cells of particular tissue types

complement system activation

Goodpasture, Rheumatic fever, hyperacute transplant rejection, Graves disease, myasthenia gravis, bullous pemphigoid, pemphigus vulgaris

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52
Q

Hypersensitivity Type III immune complex

A

IgG antibodies bind to circulating antigens and form a complex that deposits in tissue, neutrophillic lysis or phagocytosis of cells

serum sickness, polyarteritis nodosa, Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, SLE

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53
Q

Hypersensitivity Type IV (T-cell mediated)

A

contact of antigen with presensitized T lymphocytes

T cell CD4 activation to release cytokines and attract macrophages or CD8 cells recognize antigens on somatic cells and go through cell mediated cytotoxicity

acute and chronic transplant rejection, graft versus host disease, contact dermatitis, Mantoux tb skin test, stevens johnson syndrome, MS, hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Type 1 DM

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54
Q

Tetanus Vaccine

A

denaturated bacterial product of C. tetani toxoid

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55
Q

Conjugate Vaccine

A

capsular polysaccharide vaccine

S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae type b, and N. meningitidis

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56
Q

Whole-cell or Chemically inactivated virus vaccine

A

polio, hep A, influenza

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57
Q

Post-exposure prophylaxis of Rabies

A

human immunoglobulin against a viral protein

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58
Q

Live attenuated vaccine

A

viable but weakened microorganisms

measles, mumps, rubella, varicella zoster, rotavirus

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59
Q

C5-C9 deficiency suceptible to ???

A

Neisseria bactermia

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60
Q

EBV

A

double stranded DNA virus that causes mono

infection is associated with hodgkin lymphoma, burkitt lymphoma, primary central nervous system lymphoma, gastric cancer, nasopharyngeal carcinoma

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61
Q

Rheumatic fever

A

delayed inflammatory sequela of group A streptococcus (pyogenes) pharygitis 2-4 weeks after infection, sx include: fever, malaise, fatigue, pancarditis, migratory polyarthiritis, skin findings.
commonly cause mitral stenosis (diffuse fibrous thickening and distortion of the mitral leaflets, and narrowing of the mitral valve orifice)

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62
Q

Kaposi Sarcoma

A

caused by HHV 8, malignant spindle cell tumor, originates from endothelial cells, predominantly in immunosuppressed pts, cause solitary or multiple nodular purplish blue-violet painless skin plaques

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63
Q

HHC (hepatocellular carcinoma)

A

Hep B and C are risk factors along with obesity and chronic alcohol use, sx of fatigue and liver injury

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64
Q

Mycotic aneurysm

A

potential complication of infectious endocarditis or vascular trauma (drugs), sx change whether peripheral or central aneurysm

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65
Q

Newborn with jaundice and hepatospleomegaly in first 24 hours

A

Hemolytic disease of newborn

some of Mom’s IgG can cross placenta

fetal A and B antigens are not fully developed at birth so direct Coombs test is usually only weakly positive

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66
Q

Parvo B19 virus

A

“fifth disease”

infiltrates erythroid progenitor cells in bone marrow which leads to suppression of erythropoiesis

anemia with low reticulocyte count
myocarditis leading to dilated cardiomyopathy
flu like sx
“slapped-cheek” rash with perioral sparing

smallest known DNA virus, non-enveloped with linear single-stranded genome, causes erythema infectiosum aka fifth disease

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67
Q

Sickle cell anemia

A

results from a substitution of glutamic acid with valine at the 6th amino acid of beta globin protein

polymerization of deoxygenated hemoglobin, normally not symptomatic until 5 months of age when Hemoglobin F production decreases and hemoglobin S production begins

Hemoglobin F formation can be prompted via HYDROXYUREA

Howel-Jolly bodies on blood smear (purple dot in RBC, described as NUCLEAR REMNANTS)

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68
Q

G6PD deficiency

A

can be prompted via pharmacology (sulfa drugs)

impaired regeneration of reduced glutathione

G6PD catalyzes the first step of pentose phosphate pathway oxidation of glucose 6 phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone with the concomitant reduction of NADP to NADPH

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69
Q

Beta vs Alpha thalassemia

A

Beta would have an abnormal hemoglobin electrophoresis

Beta - decreased production of Beta globin proteins occurs due to mutations at promotor site of Beta globin gene,
homozygous is major (skeletal deformities, hepatosplenomegaly, severe anemia at 6 months of age),
minor is heterozygous and cause minor microcytic anemia findings

Alpha - cis deletion of alpha globin genes is common in asian populance and is normally clinically silent,
loss of 2 alleles brings mild symptoms,
3-4 alleles lost causes aberrant hemoglobin formation that would be visible on hemoglobin electrophoresis and cause clinical symptoms
*loss of 1 = alpha minima, 2 = alpha minor, 3 = HbH, 4 = Barts (fetal hydrops)

HbA = (alpha2, beta2), HbA2 = (alpha2, delta2), HbF (alpha2, gamma2)

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70
Q

Iron deficiency anemia

A

microcytic, hypochromic anemia, normal hemoglobin electrophoresis, increased RDW (due to decreased RBC production), and decreased ferritin

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71
Q

Polycythemia Vera

A

JAK 2 (gain of function mutation)
nonreceptor tyrosine kinase increased acivity
erythropoietin independent proliferation of the myeloid cell lines
increase blood cell mass
hyperviscosity and slow blood flow
increase risk of thrombosis and poor oxygenation

elevated myeloid cell lineages (pancytosis) including hemoglobin yet the EPO is low

Clinical features: PRURITIS (worse when skin is in contact with warm water), sx of thrombotic and hemorrhagic complications

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72
Q

Langherans cells histiocytosis

A

Cluster of differentiation 1a is a protein expressed by Langerhans cells that mediates the presentation of antigens to T cells.

Unregulated proliferation of Langerhans cells leads to Langerhans cell histiocytosis, which typically manifests in childhood with lytic bone lesions (most commonly in the skull), skin rash, fever, hepatosplenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy.

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73
Q

Multiple Myeloma

A

hypercalcemia, anemia, elevated serum creatinine, and lower back pain!!!!

plasma cell dyscrasia characterized by overproliferation and diffuse infiltration of monoclonal plasma cells in the bone marrow

plasma cell proliferation increases the secretion of proosteoclastogenic factors (e.g., TNF-α, IL-1, RANKL) which leads to osteolysis, and, consequently, hypercalcemia and diffuse bone pain

neoplastic plasma cell infiltration in the bone marrow suppresses hematopoiesis, resulting in pancytopenia

Kidney injury from deposition of light chain

excess production of monoclonal protein by malignant plasma cells leads to increased serum viscosity and, consequently, elevated ESR

BACK PAIN WITH RADIOLUCENT LESIONS IN THE VERTEBRAL BODIES, LYTIC LESIONS WOULD HAVE A ROUND PUNCHED-OUT RATHER THAN BAND-LIKE APPEARANCE

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74
Q

isolated PTT increase (no BT, PT, or platelets abnormality) with hx of bleeding issues?

A

Factor X conversion issue
Hemophilia

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75
Q

Glanzmann Thromboasthenia

A

autosomal-recessive bleeding disorder caused by deficient fibrinogen receptor GpIIb/IIIa in platelets, leading to defective platelet !! aggregation !! and subsequent increased mucosal bleeding (e.g., epistaxis, gingival bleeding), petechiae, and ecchymoses.

Bleeding time increased , no change in platelets/PT/PTT

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76
Q

Kartagener Syndrome

A

subset of primary ciliary dyskinesia

triad: situs inversus (dextrocardia), chronic sinusitis, and bronchiectasis

may also have reduced fertility, chronic ear infections, and conductive hearing loss

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77
Q

ASD vs VSD vs PFO

A

ASD - impaired growth of the septum, associated with down syndrome and fetal alcohol syndrome, primum ASD usually associated with other defects (15-20%) and secundum is usually isolated (70%), low pressure minor left to right shunt, SYSTOLIC EJECTION MURMUR OVER SECOND LEFT ICS STERNAL BORDER WITH WIDELY SPLIT S2 THAT IS FIXED

VSD - ventricular septal defect, more commonly in the membranous part (pars membranacea), defect leading to left to right shunt resulting in RV essentric hypertrophy and pulmonary hypertension, more common with down/edward/patau syndromes, HARSH HOLOSYSTOLIC MURMUR OVER LEFT LOWER STERNAL BORDER

PFO - variant where the foramen ovale remains open beyond 1 year of age, problems with fusion of primum and secundum,

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78
Q

Patent foramen ovale vs patent ductus arteriosus location

A

PFO between left and right atrium

PDA between Aorta and pulmonary artery

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79
Q

Machine like murmur

A

PDA

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80
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot

A

RVOTO: right ventricular outflow tract obstruction due to pulmonary infunidibular stenosis

RVH: right ventricular hypertrophy (also RIGHT AXIS DEVIATION on ECG)

VSD: ventricular septal defect

Overriding aorta

most common congenital heart lesion

associations: ASD, PDA, anomalous coronary arteries

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81
Q

Eisenmenger syndrome

A

central cyanosis, weakness, clubbing

ASSOCIATION WITH DOWN SYNDROME

endocardial or atrioventricular cushion defect

left to right blood shunt that over time leads to right ventricular hypertrophy and then reversal of the shunt

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82
Q

Asymmetric septal Hypertrophy seen in which heart condition?

A

hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

left sided heart hypertrophy

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83
Q

Cause of Edema with right sided heart failure?

A

increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure

Right ventricle output reduced - systemic vascular congestion - increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure - fluid leakage into the interstitium - edema

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84
Q

hypovolemic shock effects on CO, PCWP, SVR, CVP

A

CO goes down as there is less preload

PCWP goes down as there is less blood going into pulmonary arteries

SVR goes up as the body tries to compensate for loss of volume

CVP goes down as there is less venous return to the right atrium

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85
Q

Dilated vs Hypertrophic vs Restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

Dilated: eccentric hypertrophy, most common, notable associations: chagas disease, coxsackie B virus, hemochromatosis, wet beriberi. Notable S3 heart sound

Hypertrophic: 60-70% of cases are familial (genes encoding myosin binding protein C and beta-myosin heavy chain), notable S4 heart sound with possible mitral regurgitation as valve has trouble closing

Restrictive: PLEASe Help!! Postradiation fibrosis, Loffler endocarditis, Endocardial fibroelastosis, Amyloidosis, **Sarcoidosis, Hemochromatosis. can have low voltage ECG despite thick myocardium

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86
Q

ventricular aneurysms post MI timing

A

portion of free wall affected by MI outpouches

between 2 weeks and several months after MI

most form on anterioror apical walls due to occlusion of the LAD

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87
Q

Post MI Stent thrombosis

A

very similar signs of regular MI

blood circulation cut off, causing MI, acute onset chest pain and tachypnea

pain typically retrosternal, tightness, pressure

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88
Q

Infiltration of pericardium post MI timing

A

1st week after MI

neutrophils and fibrin found in pericardium adjacent to eh necrotic myocardium

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89
Q

Rupture of interventricular septum post MI timing?

A

3-5 days
VSD

chest pain, new onset systolic murmur, heart failure, left to right shunt

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90
Q

WPW on EKG

A

slurred upstroke of QRS complex (delta wave) and shortened PR interval

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91
Q

Torsades de pointes on EKG

A

cyclic alteration of the QRS axis

can result from prolonged QT interval

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92
Q

Giant cell arteritis

A

fever, malaise, weight loss

pulse-synchronous throbbing dull headache, temporal tenderness, jaw claudication

associated with polymyalgia rheumatica (x>50y/o women with diffuse joint pain)

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93
Q

Polyarteritis nodosa

A

absence of p-ANCA

involves multiple organs but NO LUNGS

ASSOCIATED WITH HEPATITIS B AND C

muscle biopsy shows transmural inflammation of the arterial wall with leukocytic infiltration and fibrinoid necrosis

high ESR, proteinuria, and hematuria

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94
Q

Granulomatosis with polyangitis

A

malaise, arthralgias, skin lesions, renal (glomerular crescent) and cardiac symptoms

UPPER RESPIRATORY TRACT disease (sinusitis, otitis media) and oculer involvement (conjunctivitis, diplopia)

P and C-ANCA (mostly C)

biopsy: necrotic, partially granulomatous vasculitis of small and medium sized vessels

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95
Q

Thromboangitis obliterans (beurger disease)

A

tobacco smoking male <40 years old

intermittent claudication may lead to gangrene

rayaud phenomenon

segmental thrombosing with vein and nerve involvement

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96
Q

Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis

A

p-ANCA and c-ANCA (rarely)

asthma association

formerly Churgg strauss

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97
Q

Takayasu Arteritis

A

aka aortic arch syndrome or pulseless disease

large and medium vessels

most common in women < 40 years old

Imaging (e.g., MR angiography) is used to confirm the diagnosis; findings include vascular wall thickening and contrast enhancement, and luminal stenosis or occlusion

syncope, angina, raynaud, skin findings

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98
Q

Microscopic Polyangitis

A

pANCA

similar to GPA but without granulomas

fibrinoid necrosis without granulomas

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99
Q

Familial hyperchilomicronemia

A

Type I - hyperchilomicronemia,

AR,

deficiency of lipoprotein lipase or apolipoprotein C-II,

no increased risk of atherosclerosis,

chylomicron elevated, triglycerides massively elevated,

CREAMY TOP LAYER of plasma

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100
Q

Familial Hypercholesterolemia

A

Type IIa - AD,

defective LDL receptors or ApoB-100, missing LDL receptors,

premature atherosclerosis may lead to MI early (x<20 years old), tuberous/TENDON XANTHOMAS ESPECIALLY ACHILLES TENDON, corneal arci

LDL elevated, triglycerides normal

clear overnight plasma

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101
Q

Familial combined hyperlipidemia

A

Type IIb

AD

defective LDL receptors or ApoB-100, missing LDL receptors,

premature atherosclerosis may lead to MI early (x<20 years old), xanthelasma

LDL and VLDL elevated, cholesterol massively elevated, triglycerides elevated

clear overnight plasma

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102
Q

Familial dysbetalipoproteinemia

A

Type III

AR

defective !!ApoE!!

premature atherosclerosis, palmar and tuberoeruptive xanthomas

chylomicrons, VLDL, cholesterol and triglycerides elevated

turbid overnight plasma

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103
Q

Familial hypertriglyceridemia

A

Type IV

AD

hepatic overproduction of VLDL or defective ApoA-V

premature atherosclerosis, tuberoeruptive xanthomas, acute pancreatitis (if triglycerides > 900 mg/dL), features of hyperglycemia

elevated VLDL and massively elevated Triglycerides

turbid overnight plasma

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104
Q

Superior Laryngeal Nerve

A

cut during 30% of thyroid dissections

external branch of SLN innervates cricothyroid muscle

directly adjacent to superior thyroid artery at upper pole of thyroid lobe

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105
Q

Perioral parasthesias after thyroid surgery?

A

sx of hypocalcemia

thyroidectomy with unintentional loss of some parathyroid glands

superior parathyroid glands are most commonly found inferior to the superior thyroid artery and the recurrent laryngeal nerve

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106
Q

Recurrent Laryngeal nerve

A

innervates all intrinsic muscles of the larynx except the cricothyroid muscle

also carries sensory input from larynx below the vocal cords

passes close to the inferior thyroid artery on its ascent to the larynx

BILATERAL DAMAGE may cause difficulty swallowing, and shortness of breath

UNILATERAL DAMAGE could result in ineffective cough

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107
Q

Accessory nerve

A

damage can cause weakness of shoulder shrug

passes through posterior triangle of the neck (clavicle inferiorly, sternocleidomastoid muscle anteriorly, trapezius posteriorly)

most common injury during biopsy of cervical lymph nodes

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108
Q

Graves disease

A

thyrotropin receptor autoantibodies that activate TSH receptor
***Neonates born to mother’s with Grave’s disease are at risk of neonatal hyperthyroidism due to placental transmission of thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins

metabolically active free t3 increases the basal metabolic rate and lipolysis (weight loss, high blood pressure, increased body temp)

TSH receptor antibodies also bind to orbital TSH receptors and stimulate adipocyte proliferation and orbital fibroblast secretion of glycoaminoglycans causing expansion of retro-orbital tissue, also PRETIBIAL MYXEDEMA ***DERMAL ACCUMULATION OF GLYCOAMINOGLYCANS

HLA-DR3 and HLA-B8

Histology: tall, follicular, epithelial cells with scalloped colloid spaces

cardiac effects: increased contractility, increased HR, increased systolic pressure, increased pulse pressure, DECREASED SYSTEMIC VASCULAR RESISTANCE

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109
Q

Thyrotropin function

A

thyroid stimulating hormone or TSH

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110
Q

Hashimoto Thyroiditis

A

subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis

enlarged painless thyroid gland

hyperthyroidism secondary to transient thyroxine release from destroyed thyroctes

autoantibodies to THYROID PEROXIDASE, anti-microsomal antibodies

NONGRANULOMATOUS THYROID INFLAMMATION

Histology: lymphoid aggregates with germinal centers and Hurthle cells

HLA-DR5

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111
Q

De Quervain thyroiditis aka Subacute thyroiditis

A

GRANULOMA FORMATION and multibucleated giant cells

hyperthyroidism caused by thyroxine release from destroyed thyroctes
TENDER GOITER and jaw pain

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112
Q

Hypothyroid

A

can result in hyperprolactinemia: low Thyroid leads to increased TRH and increased TSH, increased TRH by hypothalamus leads to increased TSH in anterior pituitary, excessive TRH can stimulate lactotroph cells of anterior pituitary to release prolactin

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113
Q

medullary thyroid cancer

A

hyperplasa of parafollicular (C) cells that release calcitonin (inhibit osteoclast activity)

ovoid cells of C cell origin and therefore without follicle development, amyloid in the stroma stains with congo red

MEN2 (RET genes) for 25% and sporadic for 75%

mostly 50-60 years of age

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114
Q

Papillary thyroid carcinoma

A

most common, prior history of radiation is risk factor

palpable lymph nodes due to metastatic spread

can be multifocal

RET/PTC rearrangements and BRAF mutations, also associated with ionizing radiation

30-50 years of age

cells with nuclear inclusions and psammoma bodies on histology along with orphan annie eyed nuclei “Papi and Moma adopted Orphan Annie

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115
Q

Follicular thyroid carcinoma

A

hematogenous metastasis especially to Lungs and Bone (lytic lesions)

rarely multifocal

vascular and capsular invasion

40-60 years old

uniform follicles

PAX-PPAR[gamma rearrangement and !!RAS mutation!!

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116
Q

Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma

A

rapid local growth

sx of compression of structures of neck (dysphagia, dyspnea)

lymph and hematogenous metastasis

very poor prognosis

normally after 60 years of age

undifferentiated giant cell, areas of necrosis and hemorrhage

TP53 mutation

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117
Q

Toxic Multinodular goiter

A

constitutively active TSH receptors can lead to this

nodular neck swelling, painless

histology: focal patches of hyperfunctioning follicular cells distended with colloid

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118
Q

Thyroid levels with pregnancy (Thyroid-binding globulin, Free T3, Free T4, Total T3+T4)

A

Thyroid-binding globulin elevated

Free T3 normal

Free T4 normal

Total T3+T4 elevated

hyperestrogenic state stimulates synthesis of thyroid binding globulin by the liver and increases the glycosylation of TBG which slows its clearance, as more T3 and T4 bind to TBG the level of free thyroid decreases, therefore more TSH is released and new equilibrium is set

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119
Q

Sick Euthyroid syndrome

A

normal free T4 levels in setting of decreased TBG free T3 and total T3+T4

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120
Q

Primary Hyperparathyroidism

A

hyperCA due to abnormally active PTH glands

PTH high
CA high
Phosphate Low
ALP high

PTH induces RANKL expression in osteoblasts, RANKL to RANK on osteoclasts activates osteoclasts*

tx with parathyroidectomy

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121
Q

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Hypocalcemia and/or hyperphosphatemia cause reactive hyperplase of PTH glands with overproduction of PTH

CKD, Calcium deficiency, Vitamin D deficiency

Ca normal or low
PTH high
Phosphate normal or high in CKD, low in other causes
ALP high

Treat the underlying cause

***RUGGER JERSEY SPINE = ALTERNATING SCLEROTIC AND RADIOLUCENT BANDS IN THE LUMBAR AND THORACIC VERTEBRAL BODIES

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122
Q

Tertiary hyperparathyroidism

A

Hypercalcemia caused by autonomous and refractory secretion of PTH secondary to untreated secondary hyperparathyroidism

persistent sHPT

CA high
PTH very high
Phosphate high
ALP high

usually tx with surgery

THINK SECONDARY HYPERPARATHYROIDISM BUT haS HYPERCALCEMIA!!

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123
Q

Primary Hypoparathyroidism

A

mostly post surgery

tetany, laryngospasm, seizures, arrhythmias are acute

chronic - extrapyramidal disorders, ocular disease

CA low
PTH low or inappropriately normal
Phosphate typically elevated

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124
Q

pseudo hypo parathyroidism

A

end-organ resistance to PTH despite sufficient PTH synthesis due to defective Gs protein alpha subunit

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125
Q

Posterior vs ANterior pituitary

A

Posterior -
stores then releases ADH (made in supraoptic and paraventricular nucleus of hypothalamus), and oxytocin (same as ADH)
develops from neural ectoderm (neurohypophysis)

Anterior -
release ACTH, TSH, LH, FSH, and MSH from basophilic cells
release prolactin, and GH from acidophil cells

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126
Q

Neuroblastoma

A

paraneoplastic syndrome

opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome

urine may have elevated homovanillic acid and vacillylmandelic acid (produced when neuroblastoma cells metabolize catebholamines

“Homer Wright rosettes” on histology. halo like clusters of neuroblast cells surrounding a central pale area containing neuropil

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127
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma

A

rare malignant mesenchymal tumor of primitive muscle cells

primarily occur in orbital cavity

children in first year of life

blastic skeletal muscles cells arranged in nests and sheets

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128
Q

Nephroblastoma (Wilm’s Tumor)

A

most common renal malignancy in children 2-5 years old

commonly incidental finding

large abd mass, hematuria, abd pain

histology: abortive glomeruli and tubules with spindle cell stroma

can metastasis to lung or liver
***ORIGINATE FROM RESIDUAL METANEPHRIC BLASTEMA

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129
Q

Hepatoblastoma

A

most common hepatic malignancy in children

elevated AFP

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130
Q

Addison’s Disease

A

fatigue, nausea, weight loss, orthostatic hypotension, hyperpigmentation

cortisol(normal = 3-23micrograms/dL) failure to increase after COSYNTROPIN stimulation test confirms diagnosis

hyperpigmentation is due to excess MSH (byproduct of ACTH synthesis

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131
Q

Glucagonoma

A

functional neroendocrine tumor derived from pancreatic alpha cells

secretes glucagon which increases gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis thus resulting in hyperglycemia

chronic diarrhea, weight loss, neuropsychiatric symptoms, DVT, normocytic anemia (glucagon inhibitory effect on erythopoiesis), and necrolytic migratory erythema

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132
Q

Insulinoma

A

pancreatic beta cells

produce insulin and facilitate weight gain and hypoglycemia

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133
Q

Somatostatinomas

A

pancreatic delta cells secrete somatostatin

weight loss and glucose intolerance

abd pain, steatorrhea, cholelithiasis

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134
Q

Gastrinoma

A

gastric G-cells

secrete gastrin

weight loss and recurrent diarrhea

abd pain, dyspepsia (and discomfort >1 month)

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135
Q

Carcinoid tumors

A

enterochromaffin cells

produce serotonin

weight loss, diarrhea, skin lesions caused by niacin deficiency, flushing, wheezing

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136
Q

DM type 1

A

insulin dependent

autoimmune response with production of autoantibodies (anti-glutamic acid decarboylase or anti-GAD, and anti-islet cell cytoplasmic antibody or anti-ICA) that destroy beta cells in pancreatic islets leading to insulin deficiency and decreased glucose uptake in tissues

HLA-DR3 and HLA-DR4

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137
Q

DM type 2

A

peripheral insulin resistance

central obesity cause - increase plasma levels of free fatty acids to impaired insulin dependent glucose uptake

increased serine kinase activity in fat and skeletal muscle cells phosphorylates insulin receptor substrate 1 decreasing affinity of IRS-1 for PI3K leading to decreased expression of GLUT4 channels

Panreatic beta cell dysfunction: accumulation of pro-amylin in the pancreas leading to decreased endogenous insulin production

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138
Q

Hemochromotosis

A

HFE gene - membrane protein that regulates iron uptake by facilitating interaction of transferrin with its receptors
gene is mutated leading to DEFECTIVE BINDING OF TRANSFERRIN TO RECEPTOR and signals decreased iron stores
Response is the liver stops producing the hormone hepcidin allowing iron reabsorption resulting in iron overload

hyperpigmented skin, DM, risk of cirrhosis,

LIVER BIOPSY SHOWS BLUE HEMOSIDERIN DEPOSITS

inability to excrete iron, transferrin/hepcidin/iron storage all increased but iron binding capacity is decreased

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139
Q

Wilson Disease

A

impaired binding of copper to ceruloplasmin

AR mutations in the ATP7B gene which also leads to impaired biliary copper excretion

hepatic damage, CNS manifestations, renal damage, kayser-Fleischer rings (1-2mm copper color on periphery of iris)

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140
Q

alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency

A

serine protease inhibitor that is made in liver and protects cells from breakdown by neutrophil elastase

mutation in SERPINA1 gene

Several genotypic expressions:
PiMM 100% expression of normal protein
PiMS 80% normal protein
PiSS, PiMZ, PiSZ 40-60% normal levels of protein
PiZZ 10-15% normal levels of protein

Autosomal codominant

Liver: accumulation of AAT in ER leading to hepatocyte destruction (hepatitis and liver cirrhosis)

Lungs: deficient AAT to uninhibited neutrophil elastase activity to destruction of pulmonary parenchyma to panacinar emphysema

Clinical Features: cough, wheeze, dyspnea, diminished breath sounds, barrel chest, prolonged neonatal jaundice, hepatitis, cirrhosis

Diagnostics: serum low AAT levels, Electrophoresis decreased alpha 1 peak,

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141
Q

pheochromocytoma

A

paroxysmal headaches, palpitations, sweating, HTN, pallor

catecholamine secreting tumor originating from chromaffin cells (epinephrine, norepi, dopamine)

MEN2B

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142
Q

Barrett Esophagus

A

metaplastic columnar epithelium in lower esophagus

chronically exposed to stomach acid in GERD

heart burn

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143
Q

Eosinophilic esophagitis

A

mucosal fragility and inflammation, dysphagia

barium swallow may show formed rings or small strictures in consequent ridges/furrows (“corrugated esophagus”)

Histology: infiltration of eosinophils in epithelium

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144
Q

Limited systemic sclerosis vs diffuse

A

loss of esophageal smooth muscles cells in lower 2/3 of esophagus and incompetence of lower esophageal sphincter

subtype of systemic sclerosis

cutaneous sclerosis of NECK, FACE, DISTAL LIMBS with sparing of trunk, raynaud phenomeneon

anticentromere autoantibodies

CREST syndrome: CALCINOSIS CUTIS, Raynaud phenomenon, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia

diffuse systemic sclerosis
cutaneous sclerosis of TRUNK, FACE, EXTREMITIES
SCLERODERMA RENAL CRISIS IS COMMON (collagen deposition in kidney parenchyma)
INTERSTITIAL LUNG DISEASE
rapid onset and normally with raynaud phenomenon
*

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145
Q

Mallory Weiss syndrome

A

mucosal lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction

epigastric pain, foreceful hematemesis, unstable vitals (hypovolemic shock)

associated with frequent foreful vomiting

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146
Q

PUD (peptic ulcer disease)

A

break in continuity of mucosal lining in stomach or duodenum, clean based gastric ulcer

common with H. pylori infection or use of NSAIDS
H. pylori is strongest predisposing factor 25-50% of gastric and 50-75% of duodenal ulcers**

epigastric pain, hematemesis

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147
Q

Whipple Disease

A

chronic polyarthritis that precedes development of diarrhea/abd pain/weight loss

PAS positive stain with foamy macrophages in lamina propria confirms diagnosis

Tropheryma whipplei is an intracellular, gram positive bacillus

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148
Q

multinucleated trophozoites in stool indicates?

A

Entamoeba histolytica or Giardia lamblia

severe diarrhea

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149
Q

Celiac disease markers? and extra

A

anti-tissue transGLUTaminase antibodies (most common), also anti-endomysial antibodies, and anti-deamidated gliadin peptide antibodies

weight loss, diarrhea, abd pain

histology include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, lymphoctic infiltration

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150
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis marker?

A

anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody (ACPA), Anti-IgG antibodies

long standing arthralgia, chronic inflammation, pain, swelling, stiffness, destruction to synovial joints

clinical features: RHEUMATOID NODULES AND PULMONARY FIBROSIS

HLA-DR4 and HLD-DR1

elevated CRP and ESR

sx BETTER throughout the day

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151
Q

Chrohn disease vs ulcerative colitis

A

anti-saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies in Chrohn’s and p-ANCA in ulcerative colitis

Chrohn’s - typically terminal ileum and colon with rectal sparing, transmural inflammation with cobblestone sign, constant RLQ pain with palpable abd mass, typically nonbloody diarrhea, Th1 cell activity releases proinflammatory IFNgamma

UC - colon and rectum, confined to mucosa and submucosa, no granulomas, friable mucosa with crypt abscesses, painful defecation and pain location LLQ, bloody diarrhea with mucus and urgency, increased secretion of IL-4 and IL-13 mediated by Th2 cells

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152
Q

Hirschsprung Disease

A

impaired migration of neural crest cells (parasympathetic) in a rostral to caudal direction

aganglionic distal sigmoid and rectum

internal anal sphincter fails to relax in response to rectal distention leading to intestinal obstruction and dilation of colon

immediate relief after finger is removed from checking shpincter tone

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153
Q

Portal Hypertension anastomosis

A

caput medusa after shift to SUPERIOR EPIGASTRIC VEINS

Esophageal varices after shift to left gastric vein then azygous vein

superior, inferior, and middle rectal veins dilate causing rectal varices

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154
Q

Gallstone Ileus

A

gallstone obstructing ileus

common to find when there is a fistula between gallbladder and small intestine

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155
Q

primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

fibrosis of common bile duct

RUQ pain, and fever

markedly elevated cholestasis parameters (ALP, GGT, and bilirubin)

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156
Q

Rubella Virus

A

togavirus

German (3 day) measles

fever, postauricular and other lymphdenopathy, arthralgias, fine maculopapular rash that start on face and spreads out to involve trunk and extremities

TORCH: congenital rubella “blueberry muffin” baby, sensorineural deafness, cataracts, PDA

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157
Q

Varicella Zoster virus

A

hhv3

chickenpox and shingles

fever, malaise, exanthem typically starts on trunk and includes scalp while sometimes oral mucosa that is severely pruritic

latent in dorsal root or trigeminal ganglia

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158
Q

Human herpesvirus 6

A

exanthem subitum maculopapular truncal rash sometimes spreads to face and extremitites normally fading after 2 days

abrupt fever, rash starts 2 days after fever, cervical and postauricular lymphadenopathy

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159
Q

Measles

A

4C’s: cough, coryz, conjunctivitis, “C”oplik spots

Koplik spots are bright red spots with blue-white center on buccal mucosa

PNA is most common death

VITAMIN A DEFICIENCY CAN BECOME WORSENED - NORMALLY TRANSPORTED VIA MICELLE-MEDIATED TRANSPORT
COMMON CAUSE OF BLINDNESS IN UNDEVELOPED COUNTRIES

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160
Q

Tinea Versicolor

A

post travel to warm climate, nonpruritic skin rash also nontender and fine scaling

most commonly increased growth of Malasezia globosa (normal skin flora)

abnormal pigmentation involving trunk, back, and/or abdomen

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161
Q

Vitiligo

A

autoimmune destruction of melanocytes

nonscaling, depigmented macules

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162
Q

acne vulgaris

A

increased sebum production

presence of comedones

in areas with sebaceous activity

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163
Q

Oculocutaneous albinism

A

deficiency of tyrosinase that produces melanin from dihydroxyphenylalanine

greatly reduced or complete lack of pigmentation in the skin, hair, and eyes of newborns

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164
Q

Allergic Contact Dermatitis

A

type IV hypersensitivity

antigen uptake via langerhans cells

intensely pruritic erythematous and papular rash in pattern of contact with external irritant

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165
Q

Tinea corporis/corpora

A

“Ringworm”

common caused by trichophyton

round pruritic erythematous plaque that grows centrifugally with central clearing and scaling and raised border

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166
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris vs bullous pemphigoid

A

PV - IgG autoantibodies to desmosomal components, loss of cell-cell adhesion, ORAL CAVITY INVOLEMENT, Nikolsky sign positive (rubbing on skin makes blisters)

Bullous pemphigoid - IgG autoantibodies to hemidesmosomes,

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167
Q

Basal cell carcinoma vs Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Basal cell is most common type, slow growing non healing ulcer with rolled borders, pearly white nodule with superficial telangiectasis or a scaling plaque, location usually above the line joining the earlobe and corner of mouth

Squamous cell is second most common type, ulcer normally on cheek and lower lip that has everted edges

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168
Q

seborrheic keratosis

A

benign skin tumor common in elderly

greasy wax like darkly pigmented macule

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169
Q

Nodular melanoma

A

often arise from skin damaged by UV light

grows rapidly over weeks

dark pigmented or red nodule that occasionally ulcerate at the surface

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170
Q

Trichoepithelioma

A

tumor of the hair follicle common on cheeks and nose

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171
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

antibodies against post-synaptic ACh receptors compete with ACh at post-synaptic membrane

Clinical Features: WEAKNESS AND REDUCED endurance with repetitive muscle use, EXTRAOCULAR EYE WEAKNESS

Tx: Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

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172
Q

Lambert Eaton

A

rare neuromuscular junction disorder characterized by proximal muscle weakness and autonomic dysfunction

autoantibodies directed against presynaptic voltage gated calcium channels (anti-VGCC) - decreased calcium influx - decrease presynaptic vesicle fusion - impaired acetylcholine release in NMJ

Clinical Features: PROXIMAL muscle weakness, (strength IMPROVES with ongoing use), reduced or absent reflexes, DRY MOUTH, constipation, ED

ASSOCIATED WITH SCLC

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173
Q

Muscle contraction myosin blah blah process

A

upon initiation of muscle contraction calcium is released from Sarcoplasmic reticulum and binds to troponin C which shifts tropomyosin and exposes myosin binding site, myosin head binds actin allowing for shortening of the sarcomere

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174
Q

SLE (Systemic Lupus Erythematous)

A

Anti-dsDNA antibodies in 70%
Anti-Smith antibodies 30% (both are highly specific)

nonspecific antibodies include: anti-ssDNA, antibodies directed against Fc region of IgG (rheumatoid factor), phospholipid-binding proteins, and antihistone antibodies (drug induced via hydralazine, phenytoin, procainamide

multisystem autoimmune disease

more common in women of childbearing age

fever, fatigue, malar rash, myalgia, arthritis

affects skin, kidney, joints

“Full house” immunofluorescence pattern (IgG, IgM, IgA, C3, C1q)

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175
Q

Differentiate synovial fluid findings

rheumatoid arthritis, sarcoidosis, osteoarthritis, gout, pseudogout, scleroderma

A

rheumatoid arthritis - proliferation of granulation tissue

sarcoidosis - noncaseating granulomas

osteoarthritis - normally no WBC, cartilage fragements

gout - monosodium urate crystals, negative birefringent, crystal shaped

pseudogout - calcium pyrophosphate crystals, positive birefringment, rhomboid shaped

scleroderma - noninflammatory superficial fibrin deposits

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176
Q

Reactive arthritis

A

response to infection (chlamydia, shigella, campylobacter, among others)

HLA-B27 genotype in 2/3 of pts

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177
Q

Dermatomyositis

A

increased risk of malignancies particularly ovarian adenocarcinomas

PROXIMAL muscle weakness, HELIOTROPE RASH OVER EYELIDS, flat topped erythematous papules over dorsal surface of interphalangeal joints (Gottron papules)

anti-Mi-2 and anti-Jo-1 antibodies (anti-nuclear antibodies)

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178
Q

Paget disease of bone

A

enlargement of skull

deposition of lamellar bone interspersed with disorganized, woven bone creates a mosaic pattern

accelerated rate of bone remodeling resulting in poor quality bone

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179
Q

Carbamezepine use during pregnancy

A

neural tube defects

same as valproic acid

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180
Q

Aminoglycoside during pregnancy

A

sensorineural hearing loss

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181
Q

Tetracycline during pregnancy

A

discolored teeth

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182
Q

Ebstein anomaly

A

pregnancy lithium exposure

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183
Q

kidney stone shapes

A

Uric - tear drop ish

calcium oxalate - envelope

calcium phosphate - phosphate needles

Magnesium ammonium phosphate - coffin lid struvite stone

Cystine - hexagonal

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184
Q

TORCH infections (O#1)

A

TrepOnema pallidum - congenital syphilis

premature birth

low birth weight, neonatal JAUNDICE, seizures, chorioretinitis, HEPATOMEGALY, hemolytic anemia, mucocutaneous rash (MACULOPAPULAR RASH ON PALMS AND SOLES), SADDLE NOSE, HUTCHINSON TEETH (widely spaced)

Hutchinson triad - dental abnormalities, sensorineural deafness, interstitial keratitis

hydrops fetalis

spirochetes on dark field microscopy

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185
Q

TORCH infections

A

Toxoplasmosis
Others (trepOnema pallidum, varicella zOster, parvO b19, and listeriOsis)
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes Simplex

great rule out is if mother has been vaccinated

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186
Q

TORCH infections (T)

A

Toxoplasmosis gondii

classic triad: Chorioretinitis, hydroCephalus, diffuse INTRACRANIAL CALCIFICATIONS (ring-enhancing lesions), Covulsions

TRASMITTED THROUGH CAT FECES

blueberry muffin rash

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187
Q

TORCH infections (O#2)

A

ListeriOsis

contamination of RAW MILK PRODUCTS

spontaneous abortion and premature birth

sepsis, DISSEMINATED ABSCESSES, LISTERIA MENINGITIS, RESPIRATORY DISTRESS

vesicular and pustular skin lesions (granulomatosis infantiseptica

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188
Q

TORCH infections (O#3)

A

Varicella zOster virus

low birth weight, CHORIORETINITIS, CATARACTS, and seizures

80% have dermatomal HYPERTROPHIC SCARS

hypoplastic limbs

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189
Q

TORCH infections (O#4)

A

ParvOvirus B19

aplastic ANEMIA

FETAL HYDROPS, MISSCARRAIGE

high output cardiac failure

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190
Q

TORCH infections (R)

A

Rubella

sensorineural deafness (COCHLEAR DEFECT), CATARACTS, HEART DEFECTS (PDA, pulmonary artery stenosis)

CNS abnormalities

blueberry muffin rash

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191
Q

TORCH infections (C)

A

Cytomegalovirus

jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly

chorioretinitis

sensorineural deafness

PERIVENTRICULAR CALCIFICATIONS, blueberry muffin rash

microcephaly

seizures

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192
Q

TORCH infections (H)

A

Herpes simplex virus

premature birth

skin, eyes, mouth involvement (VESICULAR SKIN LESIONS)

localized CNS involvement (MENINGOENCEPHALITIS)

multiple organ involvement, sepsis

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193
Q

PCOS

A

associated with insulin resistance and obesity

Diagnostics” Rotterdam criteria
Oligovulation or anovulation
Hyperandrogenism (acne, alopecia, hirsutism, increased testosterone)
enlarged or polystic ovaries on ultrasound

obese, hirsuism, acne, hair thinning, alopecia, depression, azanthosis nigricans (darkening of some spots of skin), infertility

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194
Q

Endometrioma

A

“chocolate cyst”

yellow-brown (sometimes reddish-blue) blebs

most pt are asymptomatic

chronic pelvic pain that worsens before onset of menses
infertility
dysmenorrhea
uterosacral tenderness

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195
Q

Cervical carcinoma

A

high risk strains of HPV (16,18,31, 33)

early onset of sexual activity, multiple pregnancies, smoking, STD’s

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196
Q

Choriocarcinoma

A

gestational trophoblastic neoplase

can arise from molar pregnancy, abortion, ectopic, prior pregnancy

bleeding form these is common

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197
Q

Mature cystic teratoma

A

most common type of ovarian germ cell tumor

contain any type of tissue (hair, teeth, sebaceous glands)

palpable mass

sx of hyperthyroidism

struma pearl may be present

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198
Q

Androgen insensitivity syndrome

A

X-linked recessive

insensitivity to androgens

female phenotype
blind ended vaginal pouch
uterine agenesis
crytochid testes
primary amenorrhea
infertility
scant or missing pubic hair

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199
Q

Aromatase deficiency

A

AR
CYP19A1 gene mutation

defective or absent aromatase (decreased estrogen and increased androgen production)

46XX - ambiguous external genitalia, normal internal genitalia, amenorrhea

46XY - abnormal sperm production, small or undescended tests

Both - tall stature, oseoporosis, hyperglycemia, weight gain and fatty liver

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200
Q

5-alpha reductase deficiency

A

AR

decreased conversion of Testosterone to dihydrotestosterone

female external genitalia
MALE INTERNAL GENITALIA
pseudovaginal perineoscrotal hypospadias
development of secondary sexual male characteristics in puberty

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201
Q

Klinefelter

A

47 XXY trisomy

barr body present with male phenotype

testicular dysgenesis
testosterone deficiency
gynecomastia
reduced facial and body hair
testicular atrophy
mitral valve prolapse
FIBROSIS OF SEMINIFEROUS TUBULES CAUSING DECREASED LEYDIG CELL FUNCTION (RESULTING IN LOW TESTOSTERONE)

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202
Q

Turner syndrome

A

45 XO

nondisjuction during meiosis

no Barr body

chromosomal nondisjunction, X chromosome monosomy, impaired ovarian development, malfunctioning streak gonads with connective tissue instead of normal germ cells, Estrogen and progesterone deficiences

clinical features: female phenotype, average to short height, delayed puberty, primary amennorhea, infertility (can with IVF),
webbed neck
coartation of aorta, and BICUSPID AORTIC VALVE, hypertension,
low set posterior hairline
high arched palate
osteoporosis
SHIELD CHEST
horseshoe kidney
type II diabetes

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203
Q

Genital dysgenesis

A

46XY - mutation of SRY gene on chromosome Y
impaired testicular development and underproduction of testosterone and anti-mullerian hormone
persistance of mullerian ducts (develops female genitalia despite Y chromosome

46XX - female phenotype
impaired maturation of secondary sexual characteristics
primary amenorrhea

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204
Q

Kallman syndrome

A

46xx or xy

hypogonadotropic hypogonadism with hyposmia or anosmia

Failure of GnRH-secreting nuerons to migrate from olfactory placode to their normal anatomic location in the hypothalamus

can be defect in KAL-1 gene or FGFR-1 gene(fibroblast growth factor receptor-1)

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205
Q

Factitious disorder vs conversion disorder

A

Factitious - pt consciously produce symptoms, purposely injure themselsves or self administer insulin for primary gain which is to be cared for

Conversion - function neurological disorder that involves neuro symptoms that are not fully explained by objective findings, findings are subconciously produced and not fabricated

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206
Q

Metabolic syndrome

A

HTN, abd obesity, insulin resistance with hyperglycemia, increased serum triglyceride levels and decreased HDL

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207
Q

Tuberous Sclerosis

A

AD
mutation in TSC1 or TSC2 mutation
defective tuberin-hamartin complex
Classic findings: ASH LEAF SPOTS, Shagreen patches, CNS hamartomas (subependymal nodules lining lateral ventricles and cortical glioneuronal hamartomas), GIANT CELL ASTROCYTOMAS, INTELLECTUAL DISABILITY

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208
Q

Dobutamine

A

Beta 1 receptor agonist

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209
Q

Central vs Peripheral chemoreceptors

A

Peripheral - Carotid bodies and aortic body detect ph/Oxygen/Carbon dioxide levels and stimulate a change in breathing

Central: Medullary has stimulatory receptors for inspiration (dorsal) and expiration (ventral). These receptors send impulses down phrenic nerve to diaphragm. Pontine respiratory group sends messages to medullary for rate and depth as well as the chemoreceptors

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210
Q

Pseudo allergy vs real allergy

A

Pseudo - direct mast cell degranulation (example is morphine after anesthesia

Real - IgE mediated type 1 hypersensitivity

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211
Q

Osteomalacia

A

often vitamin d deficiency
means bone softening

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212
Q

Osteopetrosis

A

persistence of spongiosa in the medullary cavity
impaired osteoclast activity
abnormal and overdense bone

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213
Q

hyperparathyroid bone details

A

subperiosteal bone resorption and cystic degeneration

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214
Q

Intussusception

A

when your bowel folds over itself
more common in children 6 months to 3 years
abd pain
following a viral infection that leads to lymphoid hypertrophy (peyer patches) that get caught during peristalsis and are pushed forward in bowel tract
most common in ileocecal junction

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215
Q

Pulse Pressure

A

difference between systolic and diastolic pressure

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216
Q

Cholinergic toxicity acronym

A

Muscarinic effects “Dumbels”:
diarrhea/diaphoresis
urination
miosis
bronchospasm/bronchorrhea/bradycardia
emesis
lacrimation
salivation

Nicotinic effects:
muscle weakness/paralysis/fasiculations

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217
Q

Granulosa cell tumor

A

estrogen and inhibin secreting
large unilateral adnexal mass
Granulosa cells: cuboidal cells with nuclear grooves (coffee bean nuclei)
Call-Exner Bodies: granulosa cells form follicle like structures around eosinophilic material

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218
Q

Yolk Sac Tumor

A

secrete alpha feto protein
shiller duval bodies: resemble glomeruli, mesodermal core with central capillary

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219
Q

Zolpedim, zaleplon, eszopiclone

A

nonbenzodiazepines
GABAa receptor agonists
primary hyponotic that doesn’t produce other sx benzos produce:anxiolytic, muscle relaxant, anticonvulsant

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220
Q

Insomnia medication

A

remelteon
melatonin receptor agonism

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221
Q

Fat emboli

A

24-72 hours following a long bone or pelvic fracture

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222
Q

norepinephrine effect on heart

A

a1>b1>b2
increase in Systemic vascular resistance
decrease in heart rate (reflex mediated decrease)

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223
Q

acyclovir

A

anti viral
guanosine analog
once entered to Herpes virus it is phosphorylated via viral-encoded thymidine kinase
then impairs DNA polymerase mediated replication

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224
Q

Glucagon effects on Liver, Fat, and heart

A

Liver: increase glycogenolysis, decrease lipogenesis, increase glucogenesis
Fat: increase lipolysis
Heart: increase heart rate, increase contractility
useful for beta blocker overdose
released from Pancreatic ALPHA cells

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225
Q

How do corticosteroids help with asthma?

A

upregulate beta 2 receptors

chronic asthma Beta 2 agonist use can result in fibrotic remodeling of lower airways making them less responsive to beta 2 agonists*

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226
Q

Type 1 collagen

A

skin, bones, ligaments, tendons, dentin, cornea, blood vessels, scar tissue

associated diseases: osteogenesis imperfecta

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227
Q

Type 2 collagen

A

cartilage, vitreous humor, and nucleus pulposus

associated diseases: skeletal dysplasia

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228
Q

Type 3 collagen

A

skin lungs, intestines, blood vessels, bone marrow, lymphatics, granulation tissue

associated diseases: Vascular Ehlos-Danlos syndrome (TYPE IV)

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229
Q

Type 4 collagen

A

basement membrane

associated diseases: alport syndrome

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230
Q

osteogenesis imperfecta

A

AD
COL1A1 or COL1A2 gene mutation

decreased formation of hydrogen and disulfide bonds

decreased synthesis of type 1 collagen

growth delay, brittle bones, bowing of bones, fractures during childbirth, BLUE SCLERAE, progressive hearing loss

tx with bisphosphonates

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231
Q

Bisphosphonates

A

Alendronate, Risedronate, Ibandronate, Zoledronate

primarily slow down bone degredation

moa: bind to hydroxyapatite binding sites on surface of bone tissue to interfere with osteoclasts, inhibit mineralization

impair adherence of osteoclasts to bone surface, decrease osteoclast proton production, induce osteoclast apoptosis, decrease development and recruitment of osteoclast precursor cells

adverse effects: hypocalcemia, ESOPHAGEAL INFLAMMATION and cancer (oral take, to avoid sit upright and drink sufficient water)

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232
Q

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

A

AD
mutation in COL5A1 and COL3A1

Vascular type is COL3A1, affects type III procollagen, classic sx with thin translucent skin and easy bruising, spontaneous organ rupture, aneurysms, dissections

Classic - COL5A1 and A2, affects type V collagen,

Classical like - TNXB gene affecting Tenascin X protein,

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233
Q

Marfans syndrome

A

AD
FBN1 gene on CHR 15 affecting fibrillin protein

aortic aneurysm, mitral valve prolapse, berry aneurysms, tall stature, long extremities, joint hypermobility, arachnodactyly, pectus carinatum/excavatum, hyperextensive skin, ECTOPIA LENTIS (upward lens dislocation)

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234
Q

Kuppfer Cells

A

Liver
macrophage derived
lie within liver sinusoids

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235
Q

Merkel Cell

A

neuroendocrine cells that lie in basal layer of epidermis
often found in association with nerve projections
play a role in perception of touch

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236
Q

Melanocytes

A

pigment producing cells that deliver malanosomes to keratinocytes

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237
Q

Dystonia

A

sustained involuntary muscle contractions
focal means one muscle specifcally
can lead to muscle hypertrophy

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238
Q

Siderophages

A

hemorsiderin laden macrophages

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239
Q

Osteocytes

A

Osteoblasts that become trapped in bone matrix

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240
Q

Pericytes

A

maintenence cell
help with wound healing
help with maintaining BBB

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241
Q

Dynein vs Kinesis vs Lamin vs Selectin vs Spectrin vs Vimentin

A

DYnein - microtubular protein for retrograde transport (moving towards nucleus)

Kinesin - microtubular protein for anterograde transport (moving away from nucleus)
*Herpes goes into latent stage via dynein and reactivation stage via kinesin

DYN vs KINd = dine bringing food in and kind is giving food away*

Lamin - help form fibrillar network that lines insie of nuclear envelope, also help organize genome and regulate gene transcription

Selectin - adhesion cells that help migrate leukocytes on out of blood stream through endothelial cells during inflammatory response

Spectrin - cytoskeletal protein inside RBC that help maintain it’s shape (defects lead to sphereocytosis and elliptocytosis)

Vimentin - intermediate filament expressed in mesenchymal cells, responsible for securing organelles inside the cytosol and provides protection from mechanical stress

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242
Q

Variable Expressivity

A

Same mutation but differing degree of disesase manifestation and severity

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243
Q

Pleiotropy

A

one gene mutation is responsible for multiple seemingly unrelated phenotypic effects

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244
Q

Incomplete Penetrance

A

same gene mutation but phenotype is not expressed in everyone with mutation

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245
Q

Anticipation

A

when the succeeding generation develops a more severe form of the disease or develops it at a younger age

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246
Q

Loss of Heterozygosity

A

one allele of a gene is dysfunctional due to an inherited mutation, and the other allele is switched off via an acquired mutation

two hit hypothesis

retinoblastoma or Li Fraumeni

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247
Q

Condylamata Acuminatum

A

HPV caused gential warts
HPV 6 and 11
HPV likes stratified squamous epithelium (anal canal, vagina, cervix) and can be passed to baby resp system (true vocal cords)

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248
Q

Paget disease of the breast

A

malignant breast condition
unilateral, painful/pruritic, eczematous rash confined to nipple and areola
dx via tissue biopsy: epidermis, intraepithelial adenocarcinoma cells enlarged with abundant cytoplasm and prominent nucleoli
very likely to have underlying malignancy (DUCTAL BREAST CARCINOMA)

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249
Q

Stellate Cells

A

primary cells involved in hepatic fibrosis
transform into myofibroblasts in response to hepatic injury
Myofibroblasts are capable of proliferating, promoting chemtaxis, and producing large quantities of collagen
Collagen stains blue with Masson Trichrome

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250
Q

Hepatic Cirrhosis

A

end stage of multiple liver diseases
characterized by replacement of normal lobular architecture with regenerating nodules separated by bridging fibrous septa

Clinical Features: ascites, gynecomastia (decreased estrogen metabolism), palmar erythema (estrogen mediated vasodilation)

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251
Q

Rett Syndrome

A

sporadic de novo mutation of MECP2 gene on X chromosome
X linked dominant
almost female exclusive
normal development until 6-18 months of age then loss of motor skills (characteristic “hand wringing”, truncal ataxia, seizures, growth failure, intellectual and verbal disability, scoliosis

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252
Q

Cri-Du-chat

A

microdeletion at short arm of chromosome 5

Clinical features: cat like high pitched crying
congenital heart defects (VSD)
microcephaly
Intellectual disability
dysmorphic facial features

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253
Q

Williams syndrome

A

Autosomal recessive defect in chromosome 7 (includes deletion of elastin gene)
intellectual disability
hypersociability
elfin facies
hypercalcemia
low muscle tone
hyperacusis
periorbital fullness and widely spaced teeth

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254
Q

Fragile X syndrome

A

CGG repeat
FMR1 gene
2nd most common genetic intellectual disability after trisomy 21
premature (x<200 trinucleotide repeats) have ataxia, premature ovarian insufficiency and tremor
Mature (x>200 trinucleotide repeats) have intellectual disability with varying severity, delayed language development, autistic behavior, long narrow face, prominent forehead and jaw, large everted ears, hypermobile joints, mitral valve prolapse, above average head circumference

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255
Q

Trisomy 21 or Down Syndrome

A

meiotic nondisjunction during meiosis 1 is about 70% of cases
can also happen with robertsonian translocation

clinical features: upward slanting palpebral fissures, epicanthal folds, ocular hypertelorism, brushfield spots, APPEARANCE OF PROTRUDING TONGUE, brachycephaly, hypoplastic nasal bones,FLAT FACIES, short neck with excess skin at nape, TRANSVERSE PALMAR CREASE, SANDAL GAP, CLINODACTYLY (inward curvature of the 5th finger), atrioventricular septal defect is most common, duodenal atresia

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256
Q

Zellweger syndrome (cerebrohepatorenal syndrome)

A

AR
PEX gene that results in impaired peroxisome synthesis
CLinical Features: neonatal seizures and Hypotonia, hepatomegaly, death within 1 year

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257
Q

Cystic Fibrosis

A

2nd most common genetic metabolic disorder in individuals of northern European descent

CFTR defect located on long arm of chromosome 7 (most common is mutation in delta F508 codon deletion leading to absence of phenylalanine in position 508 of CFTR gene)

CFTR gene is mutated (misfolded) results in absence of ATP-gated chloride channel on cell surface of epithelial cells

normal Sweat Glands - Chloride goes from lumen into cell

defective sweat gland - inability to reabsorb Cl so sweat has excess NaCl in sweat

Normal other exocrine glands (GI and Lungs) - Cl- goes from in cell to Lumen

defective other exocrine glands - Cl unable to transport intrcellularly across the membrane therefore accumulation of intracellular Cl-, formation of hyperviscous mucus,

Clinical features:
meconium ileus (failure to pass meconium, typically first 3 days of life with abd distension), failure to thrive,
pancreatic disease: (foul smelling steatorrhea, malabsoption, abd distention, deficiency in fat-soluble vitamins ADEK),
liver and bile duct abnormalities: (cholecystolithiasis, cholestasis, fatty metamorphosis of liver progressing to cirrhosis, biliary cirrhosis)
intestinal obstruction, rectal prolapse
Repiratory: chronic obstructive lung disease with bronchiectasis, chronic sinusitits (nasal polyps), recurrent or chronic productive cough and pulmonary infections (S. aureus is most common cause of recurrent infection in infancy and childhood, P. aeruginosa for adulthood, S. pneumoniae common as well), digital clubbing
Salty sweat (electrolyte wasting)
Urogenital: men usually infertile, obstructive azoospermia most common with vas deferens being absent (obstruction of ejaculatory duct), women have reduced fertility with viscous cervical mucus and amenorrhea

newborn screening: Mandatory screening in USA, blood spot test via heel prick in first 48 hours of life, Elevated IRT (immunoreactive trypsinogen) means CF possible

Diagnostics: sweat chloride testing (Cl- > 60 mmol/L), evidence of 2 CF causing CFTR gene mutations and sweat Cl- > 30mmol/L, positive physiologic CFTR testing with abnormal nasal potetial difference test

***sweat losses similar to the effects of loop diuretics, increased NaCl and H2O reabsorption with loss of H+ and K+

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258
Q

Prader Willi and Angelman Syndrome

A

Genetic syndromes cause by microdeletion at 15q11-q13; Genomic Imprinting

Angelman Syndrome - deletion or mutation of maternal UBE3A (chr15) and paternal gene methylation (silencing)
roughly 5% cases results from paternal uniparental disomy

Clinical Features; intellectual disability, pronounced epileptic seizures, ataxia, characteristic happy demeanor with frequent laughing, strabismus, wide spaced teeth, thoracic scoliosis

Prader Willi syndrome- deletion or mutation of paternal gene copy and maternal uniparental disomy in about 20-35% of cases

Clinical features- muscular hypotonia, hyperphagia, obesity, hypogonadism, intellectual disability, ALMOND SHAPED EYES AND DOWNTURNED MOUTH

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259
Q

Myotonic dystrophy

A

CTG trinucleotide repeat expansion
DMPK gene - changes in myotonin protein kinase expression

AD
myotonia (slow relaxation of muscles after cessation of contraction)

Type 1 and 2 - myotonia, skeletal muscle weakness, myalgia, arrhythmia, cataracts, testicular atrophy or ovarian insufficiency, frontal balding, cognitive and behavioral impairment, hypogammaglobulinemia

Type 1 usually occurs younger

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260
Q

fetal alcohol syndrome

A

most preventable cause of intellectual disability in the US

failed neuronal and glial cell migration

Clinical features: THIN UPPER LIP, smooth hypoplastic philtrum, down slanting short palpebral fissues, hypertelorism (increased distance between two body parts), microcephaly, VSD, heart lung fistulas, liimb dislocations, holoprosencephaly (forebrain fails to divide into two hemispheres

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261
Q

Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia

A

rare autosomal recessive disorder

absent or dysmotile vilia

defect in dynein arm of microtubules

Clinical features: chronic productive cough, RECURRENT OTITIS/SINUSITIS/NASAL POLYPS, bronchiectasis, conductive hearing loss, displaced heart sound, KARTAGENER SYNDROME (SITUS INVERSUS/RECURRENT SINUSITIS/BRONCHIECTASIS,

diagnosistics: nasal nitric oxide test: reduced nasal nitric oxide

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262
Q

IL-12 function and receptor deficiency

A

IL-12 induces the maturation of naive T cells to helper T cells and the production of IFN gamma and TNF alpha by Th-cells

IL-12 receptor deficiency
AR
impaired Th1 response
macrophages cannot be activated by IFN-gamma so there’s no cytotoxicity in cells infected with intracellular pathogens (Mycobacteria, Salmonella)

underlying pathology in most cases of high Mendelian susceptibilty to mycobacterial disease

Clinical features: Mycobacterial infections (developing tuberculosis after BCG vaccination, fungal infections

Diagnosis: decreased IFN-gamma

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263
Q

IFN-gamma

A

cell signaling protein that medicates macrophage activity and expression of MHC molecules

activation of macrophages increases production of macrophage elastases

released by stimulated Th1 and NK cells

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264
Q

SCID (Severe combined immunodeficiency)

A

numerous genetic mutations that result in defective development of functional B and T cells

X-linked recessive = most common defect, defect in common gamma chain, efective IL-2R GaMmA CHAIN receptor linked to JAK3

Autosomal recessive = ADA (adenosine deaminase) deficiency, accumulation of toxic metabolites and disrupted purine metabolism, accumulation of dATP inhibitis the function of ribonucleotide reductase, impaired generation of deoxynucleotides

RAG mutation = faulty VDJ recombination

Clinical features: NORMAL AT BIRTH, severe recurrent infections, failure to thrive, chronic diarrhea, lymph noes and tonsils may be absent

Diagnosis: Quantitative PCR shows decrease T cell receptor excisions circles (TRECs), absent T cells, lymph node biopsy with absent germinal center, CXR shows absent thymic shadow

AVOID LIVE VACCINES, GIVE IV IMMUNOGLOBULINS< BONE MARROW TRANSPLANT OR STEM CELL TRANSPLANTATION NEEDED

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265
Q

micrognathia

A

lower jaw undeveloped

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266
Q

Edwards syndrome

A

47XX or 47XY +18
2nd most common autosomal trisomy in which fetuses can survive, after trisomy 21
meiotic nondisjunction

Clinical Features: LOW SET EARS (malformed auricle), MICROGNATHIA (congenital mandibular hypoplasia), PROMINENT OCCIPUT, CLENCHED FISTS with flexion contractures and overlapping finger, ROCKER-BOTTOM FEET, congenital heart defects (VSD/ASD/Tetralogy of Fallot), myelomeningocele, omphalocele, severe intellectual disablity

Diagnosis: quadruple test = decrease in free estriol/AFP/beta-HCG/and normal or decreased inhibin A

about 13% live past 1 year of age

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267
Q

Patau syndrome Trisomy 13

A

trisomy 13

meiotic nondisjunction
abnormal fusion of prechordal mesoderm, midline defects

clinical features: MICROCEPHALY, HOLOPROSENCEPHALY, CLEFT LIP AND PALATE, LOW-SET MALFORMED EARS, MICROPHTHALMIA, POLYDACTYLY, congenital heart defects (VSD/PDA), rocker bottom feet, aplasia cutis congenita(scalp lesions with a punched out appearance, omphalocele, PKD, capillary hemangioma

diagnostics: DECREASED PAPP-A (pregnancy associated protein A) and increased nuchal translucency

*****7 P’s: Patau, holoProsencephaly, cleft liP and Palate, Polydactyly, Pump disease (congenital heart disease), Polycystic kidney disease, cutis aPlasia

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268
Q

Omphalocele

A

congenital visceral malformation in which organs herniate at midline abd wall through the umbilicus into a hernial sac

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269
Q

Quadruple test purpose and results

A

prenatal screening test performed at 15-22 weeks gestation that includes measurements of beta-HCG, alpha-fetoprotein, estriol, and inhibin A in the materal serum
Left to right test order: beta-HCG, alpha-fetoprotein, estriol, and inhibin A

Trisomy 21 - increase, decrease, decrease, increase
Trisomy 18 - decrease, major decrease, major decrease, normal or decrease
Neural tube defects - normal, increase, normal, normal
Abd wall defects - normal, increase, normal, normal

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270
Q

Streak Gonads

A

gonadal dysgenesis and replaced by connective tissue (think turner’s syndrome)

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271
Q

Holoprosencephaly

A

failure of prosencephalon (anterior portion of embryonic brain) to develop into two cerebral hemispheres

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272
Q

Sturge-Weber syndrome

A

Congenital noninherited developmental anomy of neural crest derivatives

somatic mosaic mutation of GNAQ gene, gain of function mutation in one copy of gene - malformation of capillaries

Clinical Features: SKIN PORT WINE STAIN (nevus flammeus) commonly seen in CN V1 and V2 dermatomes of the face and typically unilateral, LEPTOMENINGEAL ANGIOMA (benign vascular tumor involving arachnoind and pia mater that is ipsilateral to port-wine stain), seizures/epilepsy, intellectual disability, recurrent stroke like sx, EYE EPISCLERAL ANGIOMA

SSTURGGE-weber = Sporadic, port-wine Stain, Tram-Track calcifications, Unilateral, Recurrent strokes, Glaucoma, Gnaq gene, Epilepsy

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273
Q

Dorsal midbrain syndrome aka Parinaud syndrome

A

PCA affected, often results from compression via pinealoma

Tectal plate and medial longitudinal fasiculus affected resulting in vertical gaze palsy, eyelid retraction (Collier sign), pupillary light near dissociation (pseudo-Argyll Robertson pupils) and convergence retraction nystagmus

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274
Q

Lateral Pontine Syndrome

A

Anterior inferior cerebellar artery affected

Spinal trigeminal nerve nucleus affected resulting in ipsilateral loss of facial sensation to pain and temp

Facial Nerve nuclei affected resulting in ipsilateral facial muscle weakness, decreased lacrimation and salivation, and loss of taste sensation from anterior 2/3 of tongue

Vesitbulocochlear nerve nuclei and labyrinth of inner ear affected resulting in ipsilateral vertigo, nystagmus, and hearing loss

Sympathetic fibers affected resulting in ipsilateral horner syndrome (miosis, partial ptosis, and anhidrosis)

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275
Q

AICA stroke

A

anterior inferior cerebellar artery

Facial droop means AICA has swooped

involves facial nuclei

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276
Q

Thiamine before glucose Why?

A

thiamine’s active form is thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) which serves as a cofactor for dehydrogenases such as pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase which are both essential for ATP generation

thiamine deficiency leads to ATP depletion which damages aerobic tissues such as CNS neurons there fore giving glucose prior to thiamine can induce Wernicke encephalopathy

the excess glucose goes to pyruvate but can’t be synthesized into ATP so it goes to lactate accumulation

TPP is also essential for regeneration of the antioxidant glutathione, decreased glutathione regeneration impairs free radical neutralization causing further damage

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277
Q

wernicke encephalopathy

A

acute neuro syndrome cause by THIAMINE deficiency

triad of confusion, ophthalmoplegia (eye paralysis), and ataxia

suspect in pt with heavy alcohol use

acute and reversible

Labs: decreases thiamine and erythrocyte transketolase activity (thiamine dependent)

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278
Q

Korsakoff syndrome

A

late development in pts with persistent vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency

petechial lesions and small vessel hemorrhage in the mesencephalon/mamillary bodies/ventricle walls/ and dorsomedial nucleus of thalamus

Sx: Confabulation (produce fabricated memories to fill in lapses of memory), anterograde and retrograde amnesia, personality changes, disorientation to time/place/person

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279
Q

Cobalamin

A

Vitamin B12

cofactor in enzymatic reactions responsible for rbc formation and myelination of nervous system

deficiency leads to chronic neuro sx including gait abnormalities, macrocytic anemia, mild icterus, glossitis, symmetric peripheral neuropathy, subacute comined degeneration of spinal cord, neuropsychiatric disease

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280
Q

Reye Syndrome

A

rare type hepatic encephalopathy associated with aspirin use for viral illness in children < 19y/o

accumulation of salicylate metabolites in the liver, mitochondrial injury and reversible inhibition of enzymes required for fatty acid oxidation
hyperammonemia, cerebral edema, increased ICP

Clinical Features: acute encephalopathy, severe vomiting, altered mental status, coma, liver failure, hepatomegaly

Diagnostics: increased AST and ALT, hyperammonemia, hypoglycemia

LIVER BIOPSY: MICROVESICULAR HEPATIC STEATOSIS

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281
Q

Disulfiram

A

medication used to deter pt from drinking alcohol by precipitating a disulfiram-alcohol reaction (headache, nausea, vomiting)

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282
Q

Osmotic demyelination syndrome

A

damage to myelin sheath of nerves in the CNS caused by sudden rise in osmolarity of blood

commonly caused by rapid correction of chronic hyponatremia

sx appear 2-6 days after correction
sx: altered level of consciousness, coma, locked-in syndrome, dysarthria, dysphagia, diplopia, and/or worsening quadriparesis

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283
Q

Clindamycin

A

primarily used to tx anaerobes (Clostridium perfringens, Bacteroides spp.)

moa: binds 50s subunit to block peptide translocation

can cause pseudomembranous colitis (commonly caused by Clostridiodies difficile)

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284
Q

Antipsychotics (1st gen)

A

antipsychotic
Block D2 receptor, increasing cAMP
high potency (Haloperidol, fluphenazine, perphenazine, trifluoperazine, pimozide)
side effects include extrapyramidal symptoms (bradykinesia, rigidity, dystonia, atheosis, chorea, ballismus, akathisia, tics, tremors)

Low potency (Chlorpromazine, Thioridazine) also have anticholinergic and antihistaminergic properties use for less chance of extrapyramidal sx)

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285
Q

Antipsychotics 2nd gen

A

Clozapine, Olanzapine, Risperidone, Quetiapine, Amisulpride, Ziprasidone, Aripiprazole, Lurasidone, Asenapine, Iloperidone, Paliperidone

D2 receptor antagonism, 5-HT2A receptor antagonism, interaction with several other D3/D4/alpha adrenergic receptors,

**Aripiprazole is partial D2 agonist
Ziprasidone - associated with prolonged QT syndrome
**
Olanzapine - associated with weight gain, sedation, dry mouth, constipation, tremors, muscle stiffness, metabolic changes
*Clozapine - neutropenia

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286
Q

Neruoleptic Malignant Syndrome

A

Caused by antipsychotics

underlying mechanism is not well understood, central D2 receptor blockade in nigrostriatal pathway

Presentation:
Mental status change, encephalopathy, delirium, confusion, stupor
Parkinsonism
Hyperthermia
Autonomic instability, tachycardia, dysrhythmias, labile blood pressure, tachypnea, diaphoresis

FALTER - fever, autonomic instability, leukocytosis, tremor, elevated enzymes, rigidity

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287
Q

Acid Maltase

A

enzyme that converts glycogen to glucose in the lysosome

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288
Q

Pompe disease

A

Type II glycogen storage disease

Lysosomal acid maltase (alpha-1,4-glucosidase) deficiency
enzyme normall used for glycogenolysis, hydrolyzes alpha-1,4- and alpha 1,6- linkages in the acidic environment of lysosome

Clinical features:
Cardiac - hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, conduction blocks, cardiomegaly
MACROGLOSSIA
Failure to thrive
proximal myopathy and hypotonia leads to resp insufficiency and early death
intercranial aneurysms

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289
Q

Myophosphorylase

A

enzyme that catalyzes the release of glucose-1-phosphate from glycogen
rate limiting step in glycogenolysis

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290
Q

McArdle Disease

A

Type V glycogen storage disease

Myophosphorylase deficiency
skeletal muscle glycogen phosphorylase
used in glycogenolysis

Clinical Features:
Generalized muscle weakness, exercise intolerance (with 2nd wind phenomenon: sx of muscle fatigue disappear after a period of activity because of increased blood flow)
Demanding physical exercise may cause rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinuria
Electrolyte imbalances can trigger cardiac arrhythmias
Normal serum glucose levels
Flat venous lactate curve with exaggerated elevations in blood ammonia during exercise
glycogen accumulates in muscles but can’t be metabolized

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291
Q

Iduronate Sulfatase

A

lysosomal enzyme responsible for the degradation of glycoaminoglycans such as dermatan sulfate and heparan sulfate

deficiency is hunter syndrome

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292
Q

Hunter syndrome vs Hurler Syndrome

A

Hunter: x linked recessive, deficiency of iduronate-2-sulfatase results in accumulation of glycoaminoglycans

Hurler: autosomal recessive, deficiency of alpha-L-iduronidase results in accumulation of glycoaminoglycans

Both clinical features: (typically milder in hunter syndrome) developmental delay, facial dysmorphism, frontal bossing, elongated skull, flattened nasal bridge, broad nasal tip, thickened gingiva, anteverted nostrils, constant nasal discharge, spaced and protruding eyes, airway obstruction, hepatosplenomegaly

Hunter clinical features: AGGRESSIVE BEHAVIOR, hyperactivity, NO CORNEAL CLOUDING

Hurler clinical features: CORNEAL CLOUDING, hypertrichiosis

Diagnostics: increased urinary levels of dermatan sulfate and heparan sulfate, enzyme assay to confirm specific enzyme deficiency

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293
Q

alpha-L-iduronidase

A

lysosomal enzyme responsible for hydrolysis of glycoaminoglycans

deficiency is hurler syndrome

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294
Q

Glucose-6-Phosphatase

A

enzyme responsible for catalyzing the final step of glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, the conversion of glucose-6-phosphate to glucose

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295
Q

von Gierke disease

A

Type Ia - Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency
Type Ib - Glucose-6-phosphatse translocase deficiency (normally trasnports G6P into ER where it’s hydrolyzed by G6-phosphotase

Clinical features: renomegaly and hepatomegaly, SEVERE FASTING HYPOGLYCEMIA, mild ketosis, SEVERE HYPERLIPIDEMIA (especially triglycerides) leads to doll-like facies, HYPERURICEMIA, lactic acidosis, anemia, failure to thrive, dysfunctional glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

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296
Q

Beta-Glucocerebrosidase

A

lysosomal enzyme responsible for degradation of sphingolipid glucocerebroside during glycolipid metabolism

deficiency = gaucher disease
gene deficiency = increased risk of Parkinson disease

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297
Q

Gaucher disease

A

AR
most common lsosomal lipid storage disease
INCREASED INCIDENCE OF TYPE 1 WITH ASHKENAZI JEWISH POPULATION

deficiency of Beta-glucocerebrosidase which results in accumulation of glucocerebroside

Type 1: non-neuropathic
All Types: Hepatosplenomegaly, bones crises, osteoporosis ,avascular necrosis of the femur, anemia, thrombocytopenia, pancytopenia, pulmonary manifestations, growth delays
Type 3: neurodegeneration

Diagnostics: lipid rich macrophages with an enlarged cytoplasm with inclusions that resemble crumpled tissue on paper on microscopy

tx: recombinant glucocerebrosidase

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298
Q

Tay-Sachs

A

AR
COMMON IN ASHKENAZI JEWISH POPULATION
hexosaminidase A deficiency leads to accumulation of GM2 ganglioside to progressive neurodegeneration

Clinical features: RAPID REDUCTION OF physical and mental abiliteies begins around the age of 3-6 months
Developmental delay, MACULA SHOWING A “CHERRY RED” SPOT, hypotonia, seizures, hyperreflexia, hyperacusis, NO HEPATOMEGALY

diagnostics: lysosomes with onion-skin appearance

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299
Q

Alpha-galactosidase

A

responsible for breakdown of alpha-galactosides in lysosome

deficiency is Fabry disease

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300
Q

Fabry disease

A

X linked recessive
mainly affects boys
deficiency in alpha-galactosidase results in accumulation of ceramide trihexoside (aka globotriaosylceramide)

Clinical features:
Early triad - DYSTHESIA (caused by small fiber neuropathy), HYPOHIDROSIS, ANGIOKERATOMAS

 Other early - corneal clouding, cataract

  Late sx: cardiomyopathy, CEREBROVASCULAR LESIONS, NEPHROPATHY
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301
Q

athetosis

A

slow writhing worm like movements

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302
Q

hypertrichiosis

A

excessive hair growth

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303
Q

hyperacusis

A

reduced tolerance to sound

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304
Q

Niemann-Pick disease

A

AR
COMMON IN ASHKENAZI JEWS
deficiency of sphingomyelinase results in excess sphingomyelin

Clinical features: progressive neruodegeneration, Cherry red spot in macula, hepatosplenomegaly

diagnostics: lipid lagen macrophages (foam cells), Zebra bodies (abnormal configuration of myelinoid membranes into parallel palisading lamellae in the lysosomal cytoplasm

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305
Q

hypohidrosis

A

inadequate sweating

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306
Q

dysthesia

A

abnormal physical touch sensation

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307
Q

angiokeratomas

A

hard bumps on skin

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308
Q

Telotristat

A

inhibits tryptophan hydroxylase which is the rate limiting enzyme of serotonin synthesis

used to reduce peripheral serotonin production in patients with carcinoid syndrome to treat diarrhea

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309
Q

Octreotide

A

it can mimic somatostatin

inhibits Adenyl Cyclase, inhibition of voltage gated calcium channels, stimulation of voltage dependent potassium channels

injection that is used to treat high levels of growth hormone in acromegaly

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310
Q

carcinoid syndrome

A

carcinoid tumors are neuroendocrine tumors that arise from mine precursor uptake and decarboxylation cells (APUD cells)

Tumor locations
55% GI tract are Carcinoid tumors
15% Pancreas as Insulinoma or Glucagonoma
10% in bronchopulmonary system as Carcinoid lung tumor or SCC
Thyroid medullary carcinoma
Adrenal Glands Pheochromocytoma

Clinical Features:
Carcinoid syndrome - diarrhea, cutaneous flushing, dyspnea, wheezing, palpitations
Carcinoid heart disease - Endocardial fibrosis (especially right heart), tricuspid insufficiency and/or pulmonary stenosis, sx of Right sided heart failure
Abd Pain

***in lung - cough, dyspnea, hemoptysis, recurrent pneumonia

Diagnostics: increased 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) in 24 hour urine
Biopsy: prominent rosettes composed of numerous small monomorphic cells with salt-and-pepper chromatin

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311
Q

Dopamine Beta-hydroxylase

A

enzyme of catecholamine synthesis (dopamine to norepinephrine)

inhibitors of this enzyme are used for pheochromocytoma

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312
Q

Vasoactive intestinal peptide

A

polypeptide hormone primarily produced by duodenum, pancreas, and parasympathetic neurons in sphincters

relaxes sphincters and increases the secretion of water and electrolytes

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313
Q

Plasma kallikrein

A

part of kinin cascade which releases Bradykinin from high molecular weight kininogen

Bradykinin in excess can cause dyspnea, abd pain, diarrhea

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314
Q

Tryptophan hydroxylase

A

enzyme that converts tryptophan to serotonin

excess serotonin can be seen in carcinoid tumors

inhibited by Telotristat

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315
Q

Histidine decarboxylase

A

converts histidine to histamine

histamine can cause anaphylactic symptoms (dyspnea, wheezing, curateous flushing, abd cramps, diarrhea

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316
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

tumor arised from chromaffin cells

90% adrenal medulla locatization (physiologically activated by acetylcholine)
25% are hereditary germline mutations (MEN2a, MEN2b, NF1, VHL)

CLinical features: episodic HTN, paroxysmal throbbing headache/diaphoresis/heart palpitations/tachycardia/pallor, signs of polycythemia if EPO is secreted

5P’s - Pheochromocytoma: increased blood Pressure, head Pain (headache), Perspiration, Palpitations, and Pallor

Diagnostics: plasma free metanephrines or urinary fractionated metanephrines (24 hour collection), fractionated catecholamines, Homovanillic acid and vaillylmandelic acid

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317
Q

Chromaffin cells

A

derived from the neural crest

found in adrenal medulla and other ganglia of SNS

release epinephrine and norepinephrine

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318
Q

VIPomas

A

neuroendocrine tumor that secretes VIP

Excess VIP leads to relaxation of gastric and intestinal smooth muscles and cAMP activity (similar to cholera toxin) which leads to secretory diarrhea and inhibition of gastric acid production

Tumor normally found in pancreas

Clinical Features: WHDA syndrome (watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, achlorhydria), tea colored watery diarrhea (>700 mL/day) leading to dehydration

Diagnostics: increased serum VIP concentration, hypokalemia, hypercalcemia, hyperglycemia, gastric achlorhydria or hypochlorhydria

TX: tumor resection or Octreotide

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319
Q

Topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase)

A

responsible for cleaving DNA to relieve supercoils after DNA is seperated by DNA helicase

inhibited by chemotherapeutic drugs like etoposide and teniposide

Irinotecan and topotecan inhibit cellular replication by reversibly binding to DNA topoisomerase I

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320
Q

DNA polymerase III

A

adding nucleotides 3 prime hydoxyl group of the leading strand

dicontinuous synthesis of the Okazaki fragments of the lagging strand using the RNA primers creating by primase

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321
Q

DNA ligase

A

joins the completed short DNA fragments (Okazaki fragments) of the lagging strand during DNA replication (after removal of the RNA primers

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322
Q

DNA polymerase I

A

remove RNA primers from lagging strand and fills the gap left behind

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323
Q

DNA helicase

A

unwinding of duplex DNA at origin of replication

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324
Q

replication protein A in eukaryotic cells

A

binding to single stranded DNA to prevent reannealing

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325
Q

Arylsulfatase A

A

lysosomal enzyme responsible for the degradation of sphingolipid (cerebroside sulfate)

deficiency = metachromatic leukodystrophy

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326
Q

metachromatic leukodystrophy

A

AR
lysosomal storage disease which arylsulfatase A deficiency leads to buildup of sphingolipid (cerebroside sulfate) causing central and peripheral demyelination

Clinical Features: hypotonia, developemental delay or regression, ataxia, seizures, choledocholithiasis (obstruction in common bile duct), optic nerve atrophy

no cure and death usually occurs 5 to 20 years after diagnosis

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327
Q

Galactocerebrosidase

A

lysosomal enzyme responsible for degradation of galactocerebroside

leads to accumulation of toxic myelin degradation products (psychosine)

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328
Q

Krabbe disease

A

AR
deficiency of Galactocerebrosidase leading to accumulation of toxic myelin breakdown products

Clinical features: developmental delay, peripheral neuropathy, visual impairment, hypertonia

pt usually die around age of 2 years

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329
Q

Insulin effects (glycolysis, glycogenesis, lipolysis, gluconeogenesis)

A

stimulates glucose uptake by increasing expression of GLUT4 on SKELETAL MUSCLE AND ADIPOSE TISSUE as well as increasing glucokinase activity in the liver
CORTICAL NEURONS AND ERYTHROCYTES UTILIZE GLUT1 AND WORK INDEPENDENT OF INSULIN
HEPATOCYTES AND PANCREATIC BETA CELLS UTILIZE GLUT2 AND WORK INDEPENDENT OF INSULIN

decreases protein kinase A activity which raises fructose-2,6-bisphosphate concentration which promotes glycolysis by increasing activity of phosphofructokinase-1

inhibits gluconeogenesis by reducing activity of fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase

promotes glycogenesis by activating glycogen synthase

inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue by blocking expression of adipocyte triglyceride lipase

promotes lipogenesis by stimulating the activity of acetyl CoA carboxylase, HMG CoA reductase and endothelial lipoprotein lipase

incease glycolysis, increase glycogenesis, decrease lipolysis and decrease gluconeogenesis

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330
Q

methymalonyl-Coa mutase

A

requires b12 (cobalamin) as cofactor in metabolism of odd chain fatty acids

deficiency in b12 results in accumulation of methylmalonyl-CoA and its precursor propionyl-CoA

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331
Q

Succinate dehydrogenase

A

mitochondrial enzyme that participates in the TCA cycle and uses Vitamin B2 (RIBOFLAVIN) as cofactor

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332
Q

1-alpha hydroxylase

A

key enzyme necessary for the production of the active form of Vit D

deficiency could result in Rickets

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333
Q

Pyruvate carboxylase

A

participates in amino acid/carbohydrate/and lipid metabolism and uses Vitamin B7 (biotin) as a cofactor

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334
Q

Propionyl-CoA carboxylase

A

involved in conversion of propionyl-CoA to methylmalonyl-CoA and uses biotin as cofactor

deficiency of Biotin would impair said enzyme resulting in accumulation of propionyl-CoA causing demyelination within the spinal cord

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335
Q

Dopamine beta-hydroxylase

A

converts dopamine to norepinephrine and uses vitamin C as a cofactor (ascorbic acid)

deficiency results in scurvy

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336
Q

Vitamin D deficiency lab findings for calcium/phosphorus/PTH/calcitriol

A

decrease calcium, phosphorus, and calcitriol

increased PTH

reduces intestinal calcium reabsorption and low Ca increases PTH secretion

PTH decreases phosphate reabsoption in PCT

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337
Q

calcitriol

A

active form of Vitamin D

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338
Q

Vitamin B3 name and cofactor status

A

Niacin
precursor to NAD+ and NADP+
deficiency can cause pellagra and glossitis

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339
Q

pellagra

A

niacin deficiency
glossitis and “the 3 D’s” (diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia, with possible Death)

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340
Q

Vitamin B1 name and cofactor status

A

Thiamine
cofactor for several enzymes of carbohydrate and amino acid metabolism

can cause wenicke-korsakoff syndrome and beriberi

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341
Q

Vitamin B7 name and cofactor status

A

Biotin
cofactor for various carboxylation enzymes including acetyl-CoA carboxylase, methylcrotonyl CoA carboxylase and propionyl-CoA carboxylase

deficiency can cause dermatitis, enteritis, and alopecia

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342
Q

Vitamin C name and cofactor status

A

Ascorbic Acid
cofactor in hydroxylation and redox reactions
coenzyme to LYSYL TO PROLYL HYDROXYLASE which is essential for collagen synthesis

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343
Q

Vitamin B2 name and cofactor status

A

Riboflavin
precursor to flavin mononucleotide and flavin adenine dinucleotide

deficiency can cause cheilosis and conjunctivitis with corneal vascularization, glossitis, lip lesions

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344
Q

Vitamin B6 name and cofactor status

A

Pyridoxine (pyridoxal phosphate is active form)
important COFACTOR in the TRANSAMINATION reactions performed by AST and ALT
required for glycogen phosphorylase reactions, decarboxylation, and synthesis of cystathionine/heme/niacin/and histamine

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345
Q

Vitamin B9 name and cofactor status

A

folic acid or tetrahydrofolate(active form)
cofator for methylation reactions including nucleic acid synthesis

deficiency can result in megaloblastic anemia and materal deficiency can mean neural tube defects for child

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346
Q

Cheilosis

A

swelling and fissuring of lips

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347
Q

Bcl-2 function and what if overexpression?

A

antiapoptotic protein that inhibits the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis by maintaining the impermeability of the mitochondrial membrane

overexpression (seen in follicular lymphoma) impairs apoptosis and leads to tumor growth

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348
Q

BAX (Bcl-2-associated X protein) and BAD initiation

A

proapoptotic proteins
initiation results release of mitochondrial cytochrome C

Cytochrome C leads to activatin of caspases which cause destruction of the cytoskeleton, enter the nucleus, and cause DNA laddering and nuclear fragmentation

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349
Q

Apoptosis (visualization)

A

dense eosinophilic cytoplasm, nuclear shrinkage, and plasma membrane blebbing

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350
Q

Necrosis

A

denaturation of cytoplasmic proteins
biopsy show cellular swelling, cell membrane rupture, inflammation

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351
Q

Fas/FasL

A

complex of a death receptor and its ligand (FasL)
triggers extrinsic death receptor pathway of apoptosis by directly activating caspases
inhibition of Fas/FasL interaction would decrease apoptosis

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352
Q

Coagulative Necrosis

A

tissue ischemia in solid organs (heart, liver, spleen, kidneys)
acidosis from lack of aerobic oxygen, increase lactic acid and then denaturing proteins

temporary preserved cellular architecture either without cell nuclei or with nuclei that are still undergoing karyolysis

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353
Q

red infarct vs pale infarct

A

red typically occurs due to venous occlusion in tissue with multiple blood supplies (intestine, liver, lung)

pale in solid organs with singular blood supply (kidney, spleen, heart)

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354
Q

nonenyzymatic fat necrosis

A

fatty tissue (breast, subcutaneous tissue) following blunt trauma or surgery

histology: lipid laden macrophages with foreign body giant cells as well as fibrosis and dystrophic calcifications

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355
Q

Gangrenous necrosis

A

most common in pt with chronic limb ischemia (dry gangrene) or GI tract ischemia (wet gangrene)

HIstology: preservation of cellular architecture along with the absence of nuclei

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356
Q

Liquefactive necrosis

A

lysosomal enzymes are released in order to degrade and liquefy necrotic material

classically seen in cerebral infarctions but can also occur in bacterial abscesses

histology: liquified tissue with multiple macrophages and cyst formation

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357
Q

Fibrinoid necrosis

A

commonly seen in blood vessels in pt with vasculitides or malignant hypertension
immune complex and/or fibrin deposition in the blood vesel wall

histology: protein rich, eosinophilic acellular material in damaged vessels

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358
Q

Caseous Necrosis

A

granulomatous infection such as nocardiosis, tuberculosis (including renal tuberculosis), and histoplasmosis
Histology: acellular material that appears granular and is surrounded by macrophages, T-cells, and giant cells

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359
Q

Acute Methemoglobinemia

A

decreased %Oxygen saturation, normal Oxygen partial pressure, decreased oxygen content, and normal Hb concentration

abundance of methemoglobin (altered form of hemoglobin in which ferrous iron Fe2+ is oxidized to the ferric form Fe3+
since ferric form cannot bind oxygen the O2 saturation and O2 content decrease leading to functional anemia

pt show clinical signs of cyanosis
Pts with G6PD deficiency are prone along with medications (benzocaine, lidocaine, inhaled nitric oxide, nitroglycerin, dapson, sulfonamides)

Clinical features: least to most methemoglobin levels cyanosis, mild confusion, headaches, dyspnea, tachycardia, CNS depression, seizures, chest pain, arrhythmias, death

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360
Q

HMWK (high molecular weight kininogen

A

precursor of vasodilator bradykinin

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361
Q

Lactoferrin

A

glycoprotein component in innate immune system
binds free iron with high affinity limiting the amount of ions available for microbial metabolism
store in neutrophil granules and is released as an acute phase reactant

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362
Q

nitric oxide

A

gaseous free radical in some cells as a signaling molecule (produced by NO synthase)
once activated neutrophils secrete NO to kill pathogens with the free radical

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363
Q

Chemotactic agents

A

leukotriene B4, IL-8, kallikrein, C5a, platelet-activating factor

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364
Q

Thromboxane A2

A

arachidonic acid derivative produced by activated platelets
potent vasoconstrictor

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365
Q

Neutrophil with wound healing

A

early inflammatory stage (days 1-3)
help digest bacteria, foreign debris, and necrotic tissue by secreting lysosomal enzymes

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366
Q

Macrophages in wound healing

A

mainly derived from recruited monocytes
in inflammatory and proliferative stages (days 1-3, and 3-7)
assist in host defense, removal of apoptotic cells, and promotion of cellular proliferation and angiogenesis by secreting cytokines such as VEGF

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367
Q

Fibroblasts in wound healing

A

derived from local mesenchymal stem cells or migrate from nearby dermis in response to cytokines and growth factors (TGF-Beta)
produce collagen and other extracellular matrix components

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368
Q

Endothelial cells in wound healing

A

secretes VEGF to promote angiogenesis during proliferative phase
Angiogenesis involves vasodilation, basement membrane degradation, endothelial cell migration and proliferation, capillary tube formation and anastomosis then basement membrane formation

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369
Q

myofibroblasts in wound healing

A

derived from fibroblasts
generate a contractile force that draws wound edges together
present in proliferative stage (days 3-7) and are lost through apoptosis when wound healing is complete
excessive proliferation and persistence of myofibroblasts lead to patholgic fibrosis and contracture *skin is tense with thick epithelialezd scar and ROM is restricted

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370
Q

Edema from acute inflammatory reaction

A

mast cell degranulation and increased histamine
separation of endothelial junctions resulting in increased vascular permeability and paracellular movement of fluid

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371
Q

Langhans giant cells

A

multinucleated giant cell formed from fusion of epithelioid macrophages
associated with granulomatous diseases such as tb and sarcoidosis

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372
Q

Aldesleukin

A

IL-2 analog
IL-2 is cytokine released by all T-cell subtypes and triggers destruction of tumor vells via activation of cell types that recognize MHC I receptors

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373
Q

IL-6

A

induction of fever and stimulation of acute phase reactants (also IL-1beta, TNF-alpha, and IFN-gamma)

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374
Q

IL-10

A

inhibition of both MHC II expression and cytokine release from Th1 cells

anti-inflammatory along with TGF-beta

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375
Q

IL-2

A

stimulates the activation of NK cells and cytotoxic T cells

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376
Q

IL-3

A

supprots the growth of bone marrow stem cells
similar to GM-CSF

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377
Q

TNM classification system

A

tumor oncology staging
T - size or direct extent of primary tumor
N - involvement of regional lymph nodes
M - presence of distant metastasis
SPread determines stage and Stage detemines survival more than grade
N and M are typically most important prognostic factors for survival

Grading
G1 well differentiated (low grade)
G2 moderately differentiated
G3 poorly differentiated (high grade)
G4 undifferentiated/anaplastic (high grade)
Gx differentitation cannot be assessed

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378
Q

BRCA1 and BRCA2

A

Tumor supressor genes that code for DNA repair protein
associated with increased risk of breast cancer and ovarian cancer with lesser extent to colon,pancreas,stomach, and prostate cancer

BReast CAncer

mutation to BRCA+ would result in accumulation of double stranded DNA breaks

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379
Q

p53

A

tumor supressor gene - regulates cell apoptosis and cell cycle arrest at the G1 phase (by activating p21) and inhibits entry in the S phase of cell cycle

mutations lead to unrestrained division of cells
underlying defect in Li-Fraumeni syndrome
also associated with osteosarcomas, breast cancer, brain tumors, and adrenocortical carcinomas

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380
Q

Li-Fraumeni syndrome

A

AD
mutation to p53 tumor supressor gene

one abormal copy of TP53 gene is inherited and 2nd allele is somatically mutated or deleted resulting in unregulated cell proliferation and Cancer

BLAST53 - Breast cancer/Brain tumors, Leukemia/Lymphoma, Adrenocortical carcinoma, Sarcome, and Tp53

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381
Q

Nucleotide excision repair

A

mechanism of single stranded DNA repair in which endonucleases excise DNA containing damaged bases (pyrimidine dimers)

defective in pts with Xeroderma pigmentosum (cells can’t fix dimers after UV light exposure) pt has dry skin/photosensitivity/early skin cancers

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382
Q

MLH1

A

DNA mismatch repair gene

associated with hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (lynch syndrome or HNPCC) pts also have increased risk for colorectal, endometrial, gastric, urothelial, and ovarian cancers

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383
Q

Base Excision repair

A

replaces deaminated (no amino group) DNA bases throughout the cell cycle

defects associated with some familial colorectal cancer

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384
Q

RET

A

proto oncogene

mutations associated with MEN2A and MEN2B syndromes and medullary thyroid carcinoma

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385
Q

KRAS

A

proto oncogene encodes GTPase that regulates cellular growth

mutations associated with colon cancer, non-small cell lung cancers, pancreatic cancers

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386
Q

PTEN gene

A

tumor suprressor gene that negatively regulates the PI3k/AKT pathway

mutations associated with prostate cancer and Cowden syndrome

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387
Q

Rb

A

retinoblastoma protein which deactivates E2F transcription factors thereby preventing G1 phase to S phase transition

mutations associated with retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma

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388
Q

Brain metastases

A

most common from lung cancer, 2nd from breast, followed by melanoma and cancers of kidney and colon

approximately 50% of brain tumors are from metastatic disease

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389
Q

PSA

A

Prostate specific antigen

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390
Q

Bence Jones proteins

A

polypeptide consisting of one or two immunoglobulin light chains
detection in urine is suggestive of plasma cell disorders such as multiple myeloma or waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia

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391
Q

Multiple Myeloma

A

IgA and IgG is typical multiple myeloma
Bence Jones myeloma (free ligh chains in urine) are 15-20% of multiple myelomas

neoplastic proliferation of plasma cells
bone marrow infiltration by malignant plasma cells leads to suppression of hematopoiesis to leukopenia to thrombocytopenia to anemia
Cell proliferation leads to pro-osteoclastogenic factors to osteolytic lesions to hypercalcemia
hyperviscosity syndrome

Clinical features: bone pain (primarily back pain), hypercalcemia, foamy urine

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392
Q

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

A

nonspecific tumor marker
especially associated with pancreatic or colon cancer
can metastasize to bone and present with osteoblastic metastases

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393
Q

Malignant melanoma

A

tumor highly malignant from melanocytes
risk factors are extensive sun exposure and family history

Genetic mutations include BRAF gene mutations or CDKN2s gene mutations

ABCDE criteria

Lentigo Maligna
peak incidence between 65-80 years old
sun exposed areas
Darkly pigmented macule, irrgular borders, varying size, gradual growth, color irrugularities, surrounding island like speckling
premalignant lesion, up to 50% untreated may transform into lentigo maligna melanoma

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394
Q

Desmopressin and Vasopressin

A

Desmopressin is synthetic vasopressin
Anti-diuretic hormone

V2 receptor is Gs protein-coupled receptor which leads to activation of adenylate cyclase

helps to reduce frequent urination and excessive thirst

used to tx bet wetting

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395
Q

Dose vs effect graph

A

efficacy = maximum effect
potentcy = how much of agonist drug is used to attain effect

shift to the right = decrease in potency
shift down = decrease in efficacy

non-competitive antagonist can not be overcome by increasing dose of agonist therefore decreases efficacy of agonist (down shift)

Inverse Agonist binds to same receptor but has a different binding site and typically elicits the opposite of the agonistic effect which lowers the agonist’s efficacy and can’t be overcome with more agonist

Functional antagonist doesn’t use the same receptor as the drug it’s antagonizing, therefore even when agonist binds the effect would be negated by action of functional antagonist lowering the efficacy

Full agonist has same potency and efficacy as original drug so curve is unchanged

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396
Q

Atropine

A

anticholinergic agent
antidote for acetylcholinesterase poisoning

Effect: increased heart rate, decrease secretions of exocrine glands, decrease tone and motility of smooth muscles, MYDRIASIS AND CYCLOPLEGIA

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397
Q

Scopolamine

A

anticholinergic agent
nonspecific muscarinic antagonist
used for motion sickness

area of effect: area postrema

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398
Q

Ipratropium bromide and Tiotropium bromide

A

Muscarinic antagonists

causes smooth muscle relaxation in lungs

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399
Q

adverse effects of antimuscarinics

A

Blind as a bat (mydriasis), Mad as a hatter (delirium), red as a beet (flushing), hot as a hare (hyperthermia), dry as a bone (decreased secretions and dry skin), the bowel and bladder lose their tone (urinary retention and paralytic ileus), and the heart runs alone (tachycardia)

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400
Q

Michaelis-Menton curve

A

shows the relationship between the concentration of a substrate and the rate of the corresponding enzyme

Vmax is maximum rate at which enzyme can catalyze a reaction
can be increased with more enzyme

Km is michaelis constant which is the substrate concentration at which half of the active sites of an enzyme are bound by substrate

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401
Q

Enterococcus faecium

A

gram + dipplococci
GI tract
growth in bile and NaCl 6.5%
may be triggered by GI/GU procedures
UTI

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402
Q

Actinomyces israelii

A

gram + with branching filaments(form yellow sulfur granules), anaerobic, non acid fast
oral cavity reservoir
oral caries and peridontitis (oral and facial abscess)
Penicillin G high dose

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403
Q

Serratia marcescens

A

gram - enterobacteriaceae, catalase positive
reservoir is water and starchy foods (bread)
multidrug resistance
nosocomial infections, wound infection, ocular infections

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404
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

gram + encapsulated lancet shaped diplococci OPTOCHIN SENSITIVE
ALPHA HEMOLYSIS
capsular polysaccharide
IgA1 protease
PNA with RUSTY COLORED SPUTUM

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405
Q

Clostridiodes difficile

A

gram + bacilli, obligate anaerobe, spore-forming rod
facultative pathogen
Toxin A (enterotoxin), Toxin B (cytotoxin)
Psuedomembranous colitis
TX: Metronidazole, Oral Vancomycin (inhibits cell wall synthesis or Fidaxomicin (macrolide)

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406
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

A

gram +cocci,
BETA HEMOLYSIS
M protein
bacitracin sensitive
group A strep
Hyaluronic acid capsule (to prevent phagocytosis)
impetigo, erysipelas (bad skin lesion), acute rheumatic fever, PSGN,
Penicillin

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407
Q

M protein virulence factor

A

Streptococcal M protein

Streptococcus pyogenes

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408
Q

Beta-glucan cell wall virulence factor

A

important component of fungal cell walls

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409
Q

Lipopolysaccharide virulence factor

A

integrated into the outer bacterial membrane of gram-negative bacteria

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410
Q

Type III secretion system virulence factor

A

certain gram - bacteria

Shigella, Salmonella

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411
Q

Shigella

A

gram - bacilli
humans are only host
spread from cell to cell (invasion of M cells, MALT)
resistent to gastric acid
Shiga toxin - inhibtis 60s subunit in ribsomes by cleavage of adenine in rRNA
shigellosis (bloody diarrhea), reactive arthritis, HUS

412
Q

Salmonella

A

gram - bacilli
highly infectious dose required for infection, not resistant to gastric acid
produces H2S (hydrogen sulfide)
flagellar motility
salmonellosis (diarrhea, possibly bloody), typhoid fever, osteomyelitis (in pt with sickle cell)

413
Q

Poysaccharide capsule virulence factor

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

414
Q

Protein A virulence factor

A

binds to Fc portion of IgG

Staphylococcus aureus

415
Q

Flagella virulence factor

A

Vibrio chloerae, Salmonella, Campylobacter

416
Q

Vibrio chloerae

A

gram - bacilli
contaminated water or undercooked seafood
oxidase +
cholera toxin making “rice water” diarrhea
grows in alkaline media - acid labile - requires large infectious dose

417
Q

Campylobacter

A

gram - bacilli, oxidase positive, curved or spiral shaped, polar flagellum
grows best at 37-42 celcius
poultry or unpastuerized milk, contact with infected person or animal
enterocolitis, reactive arthritis, precedes guillan barre

418
Q

Lecithinase virulence factor

A

P. aeruginosa

419
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

gram - bacilli, oxidase positive, produces pyocyanin (blue-green pus), sweet odor when grown in culture
biofilm formation, Exotoxin A(inactivates EF2 - inhibition of protein synthesis - cell death), phospholipase C (destroys cell membranes)
chronic PNA in CF pts, nosocomial burn wound pts,

420
Q

Lipoligosaccharide virulence factor

A

Neiserria

421
Q

Neisseria meningitidis

A

gram - diplococcus
maltose and glucose fermenter
lipoligosaccharide
pili adhesions
meningitis and waterhouse-friderichsen syndrome
waterhouse . . . - complication during meningitis more common with this bacteria, life threatening septicemia, DIC and hemorrhagic necrosis of the adrenal glands resulting in acute adrenal insufficiency

422
Q

Poly-D-glutamate virulence factor

A

Bacillus anthracis

423
Q

Bacillus anthracis

A

gram + bacilli, rod shaped, aerobic
soil
colonies show a half of projections (medusa head)
Anthrax toxin - exotoxin consisting of: edema toxin, lethal factor, protective antigen

424
Q

Teichoic acid virulence factor

A

part of phospholipid bilayer and cell wall of many gram + bacteria

425
Q

Lipid A virulence factor

A

Pesudomonas bacteremia

426
Q

heat stable vs labile effects intracellular

A

Light As Air - heat Labile increases cAmp and Adenylate cyclase
STABLE as Granite - heat STABLE upregulates cGmp and Guanylate cyclase

427
Q

Exotoxin A bacteria and moa

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa
inactivates EF2 - inhibition of protein synthesis - cell death

428
Q

E. coli

A

gram - bacilli
lactose fermenter
pink colony on macConkey agar
produce beta-galactosidase (ferment lactose and glucose)

EPEC - adherence to intestinal microvilli, inhibits absorption, destruction of microvilli

EHEC - shiga like toxin

429
Q

diphtheria toxin bacteria and moa

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae
same as exotoxin A (inactivates EF2 - no protein synthesis - cell death)

430
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

gram + bacilli
club shaped rods
black colonies on cysteine tellurite agar
loffler medium

431
Q

Shiga toxin bacteria and moa

A
432
Q

E.coli (EHEC)

A
433
Q

Bordetella pertussis

A
434
Q

Legionella pneumophila

A
435
Q

Blastomyces dermatitidis

A

broad based budding yeast on KOH smear
PNA, flu like sx

436
Q

Adenovirus

A
437
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A
438
Q

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

A
439
Q

Influenza virus

A
440
Q

Epstein-Barr virus

A
441
Q

Respiratory syncytial virus

A
442
Q

Staph aureus enterotoxin transmission?

A

ingestion of contaminated food

typically caused by inadequate refrigeration of foods like mayonnaise, potato salad, custard

443
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

A

ingestion of contaminated food

sx onset within 6-10 hours

transmitted via unpasteurized dairy products or ready-to-eat deli meats

444
Q

Salmonella enteritidis

A
445
Q

Clostridium perfringens

A
446
Q

Bacillus cereus

A
447
Q

Cereulide toxin bacteria and moa

A
448
Q

Transpeptidase

A
449
Q

Aminoacyl-tRNA binding

A
450
Q

Dihydrofolate reductase

A

conversion of folic acid to dihydrofolate, and dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate using NADPH

451
Q

Dihydropteroate synthase

A
452
Q

Topoisomerase II and IV

A
453
Q

Penicillins

A
454
Q

Fluoroquinolones

A
455
Q

Tetracyclines

A
456
Q

Trimethoprim and pyrimethamine***

A

Trimethoprim can act on epithelial cells in collecting duct the same as a potassium sparing diuretic can. Adverse effect can include hyperkalemia

457
Q

Sulfonamides

A
458
Q

Schistosomiasis

A
459
Q

Mucomycosis

A
460
Q

Q fever

A
461
Q

Pulmonary anthrax

A
462
Q

ICAM-1

A
463
Q

CCR5

A
464
Q

Gp120

A
465
Q

CD21

A
466
Q

CD4

A
467
Q

CXCR4

A
468
Q

P antigen

A
469
Q

Histoplasma capsulatum

A
470
Q

Aspergillus fumigatus

A

acute angle hyphae
fruiting bodies with septate

471
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A
472
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii

A
473
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A
474
Q

Mycobacterium avium complex

A
475
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A
476
Q

Cytomegalovirus

A

more likely to get if older

HHV-5

blood transfusions, resp droplet, sexual transmission, breast milk

Immunocompetent pt: 90% asymptomatic, 10% mononucleiosis (fever, malaise, cervical lymphadenopathy)

Immunocompromised:
PNA: interstitial pneumonitis - CD4 < 50
Retinitis: PIZZA PIE appearance (retinal hemorrhages, fluffy/granular white opacities around retinal vessels resembling cotton wool spots, retinal detachment)
Esophagitis and/or Colitis: odynophagia, abd pain, bloody diarrhea, endoscopy shows linear ulcers
encephalitis: impair cognitive fx, neurodeficits

Owl Eye appearance histology PRESENCE OF INTRANUCLEAR BASOPHILIC INCLUSIONS

477
Q

Integrase inhibitors

A

Bictegravir, Dolutegravir, Elvitegravir, Raltegravir -tegravir

inhibition of viral integrase - blockade of viral DNA incorporation in host genome - inhibition of viral replication

Adverse effects: elevated creatinine kinase

478
Q

Nucleoside polymerase inhibitors

A
479
Q

Fusion inhibitors

A
480
Q

Entamoeba histolytica

A
481
Q

Giardia lamblia

A
482
Q

Shigella dysenteriae

A
483
Q

Campylobacter jejuni

A
484
Q

Crytosporidium parvum

A
485
Q

Trichuris trichiura

A
486
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi

A
487
Q

Plasmodium ovale

A
488
Q

Plasmodium falciparum

A
489
Q

Babesia microti

A
490
Q

Dengue virus

A
491
Q

Plasmodium malariae

A
492
Q

Chikungunya virus

A
493
Q

Trypanosoma brucei

A
494
Q

Leishmania donovani

A
495
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A
496
Q

Treponema pallidum

A
497
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A
498
Q

Gardnerella vaginalis

A
499
Q

Candida albicans

A

oval, budding yeast with pseudohyphae
prolonged damp areas
normal flora on skin

500
Q

Tichomonas vaginalis

A
501
Q

Physiologic changes with age

A

1 Immunology AMboss

Autoimmunity increased - synthesis of T-reg cells decreases and synthesis of autoantibodies increases

502
Q

B cells

A
503
Q

Complement C5-9

A
504
Q

T cells

A
505
Q

complement C1-4

A
506
Q

Neutrophils

A
507
Q

Immunoglobulin A vasculitis

A

formerly known as Henoch-Schonlein purpura
type 3 hypersensitivity

508
Q

Polyarteritis Nodosa

A
509
Q

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN)

A

infection of mouth and pharynx

group A beta-hemolytic strep - immune complexes containing the streptococcal antigen deposit within the GBM - complement activation (increased consumption of complement factors - destruction of glomeruli - immune complex mediated glomerulonephritis and nephritic syndrome

Clinical features: 1-6 weeks after infection, nephritic syndrome (hematuria, HTN, edema, oliguria

Dx: nephritic sediment with urinalysis, and decerased C3 complement
antistreptococcal antibodies
renal biopsy - granular deposits in glomelular mesangium and capillaries, IgG/IgM/C3 complement, “lumpy-bumpy” appearance
Electron microscopy - immune complexes between the epithelial cell layer and glomerular basement membrane “subEPITHELial humps”

510
Q

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)

A

***Levodopa

511
Q

Graft versus Host disease

A
512
Q

Types of transplantation rejection

A

Hyperacute

Acute

Chronic

GVHD

513
Q

Capsular polysaccharide Vaccine

A
514
Q

Chemically-inactivated virus vaccine

A
515
Q

Denaturated bacterial product vaccine

A
516
Q

Human immunoglobulin against a viral protein vaccine

A

Viable

517
Q

Viable but weakened microorganism vaccine

A
518
Q

Defective CD40 Ligand

A
519
Q

Defective beta-2 integrin

A
520
Q

Defective IL-2R gamma chain

A
521
Q

Defective tyrosine kinase

A
522
Q

Defective NADPH oxidase

A
523
Q

Defective microtubules

A
524
Q

Defective actin cytoskeleton

A
525
Q

Deficiency prompting increased risk of Neisseria species?

A
526
Q

Deficiency prompting increased risk of Giardia species?

A
527
Q

Deficiency prompting increased risk of Fungal infections

A
528
Q

Deficiency prompting increased risk of Pneumocystis species

A
529
Q

Deficiency prompting increased risk of Nocardia species

A
530
Q

Deficiency prompting increased risk of Mycobacterium species

A
531
Q

Hodgkin Lymphoma

A
532
Q

Sirolimus

A
533
Q

Prednisolone

A
534
Q

Tacrolimus

A
535
Q

Azathioprine

A

immunosuppressant
inhibits purine synthesis pathway
it’s converted to 6-mercaptopurine and then 6-thioguanine metabolites
theses metabolites are pharmacologically active and mediate both the therapeutic and adverse effects

blockade of de novo purine synthesis

6-thioguanine metabolites reduce cellular proliferation via inhibiting phosphoribosylpyrophosphate amidotransferase and acts as false nucleotides getting incorporated into actively replicating DNA and RNA making the growing nucleic acid strand nonfunctional

side effects: exerts effects preferentially on rapidly dividing cells but are otherwise nonspecific and disrupt hematologic cell lines including neutrophils, erythrocytes, and platelets

NEED TO MONITOR CBC PERIODICALLY

536
Q

Mycophenolate mofeitil

A

Reversible inhibition of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase - blocks purine synthesis - selective inhibition of lymphocyte proliferation

537
Q

Pure red cell aplasia

A

isolated decrease in red cell production

normocytic normochromic anemia characterized by a severe reduction in circulating reticulocytes and marked reduction or absence of erythroid precursors in bone marrow

diagnostics: low reticulocyte count, bone marrow biopsy shows marked reduction or absence of erythroid precursors

DIAMOND BLACKFAN ANEMIA
intrinsic defect of erythroid progenitor cells

538
Q

Anemia of Chronic disease

A

anemia from chronic inflammation

inflammation - increase in cytokines and hepcidin - results in:
reduced iron release from macrophages
reduced intestinal iron absoption
reduced erythrocyte survival

diagnostics: normocytic anemia early and microcytic anemia late, low iron, low iron saturdation, low total iron binding capacity, HIGH SERUM FERRITIN, low reticulocyte count

539
Q

Ceruloplasmin

A

converts ferrous iron to ferric iron

major carrier of copper in the blood

540
Q

Copper deficiency

A

Menkes disease

mutation in Menkes P-type ATPase protein encoded by the ATP7A gene

causes inability to transport copper from enterocytes to the liver and other cells of the body

541
Q

Copper Excess

A

Wilson disease

AR
mutations in the ATP7B gene on chromosome 13

reduced incorporation of copper into apoceruloplasmin resulting in decreased ceruloplasmin

reduced biliary copper excretion

increased free serum copper, accumulates in liver/cornea/CNS (basal ganglia, brainstem, cerebellum), Kidneys

Clinical Features: hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, ascites, sx of acute or chronic hepatitis (hepatic encephalopathy, cirrhosis, portal HTN), KAYSER-FLEISCHER RINGS!! COPPER ACCUMULATION IN DESCEMET MEMBRANE (green-brown rings in periphery of cornea), dysarthria, dystonia, PARKINSONISM, tremor, drooling, cognitive impairment, major depressive disorder, irritability, psychosis, Fanconi syndrome

Dx: slight lamp examination: Kayser-Fleischer rings

542
Q

Fanconi Syndrome

A

proximal convoluted tubule cells are UNABLE TO REABSORB BICARB leading to increased bicarb excretion in urine

hydrogen secretion from alpha-intercalated cells in the collecting duct can acidify the urine but can’t compensate for the excessive bicarb excretion in the urine resulting in distal tubular acidosis

impaired absorption of bicarb, potassium, glucose, phosphate, and amino acid in PCT

associated with: Tyrosinemia, Type 1 glycogen storage disease, wilson disease, Multiple myeloma
Drug association: ifosfamide, tenofovir, expired tetracyclines, aminoglycoside, cisplatin, and heavy metal poisoning

Clinical features: Vit D resistant hypophophatemic rickets/osteomalacia, short stature, polyuria-polydipsia, dehydration

Dx: hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis (normal anion gap), hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, aminoaciduria, glucosuria, phosphaturia

543
Q

Porphobilinogen deaminase (PBG-D)

A

converts porphobilinogen to hydroxymethylbilane

affected by AIP

544
Q

Acute Intermittent porphyria (AIP)

A

AD
Porphobilinogen deaminase (PBG-D) affected

!!!5 P’s: Painful abdomen, Port wine colored Pee, Polyneuropathy, Psychological distrubances, Precipitated by factors that increase ALA synthase (CYP450 inducers)!!!

545
Q

ALAD or Aminolevulinic acid dehydratase

A

converts aminolevulinic acid to porphobilinogen
inhibited with lead poisoning

546
Q

Ferrochelatase

A

iron dependent enzyme catalyzes the eighth and final step of heme synthesis pathway

converts protoporphyrin to heme by inserting iron into protoporphyrin IX

inhibition seen with lead poisoning and leads to sideroblastic anemia

547
Q

Lead Poisoning

A

battery manufacturing, metallurgy, lead ammunition, drinking water contaminated by lead plumbing, lead containing paint (common children source)

inhibition of aminolevulinate dehydratase and ferrochelatase - heme synthesis disruption - increase in protoporphyrin and aminolevulinic acid in RBCs

Clinical features: polyneruopathy, encephalopathy, headache, demyelination of peripheral nerves (wrist/foot drop), anemia, nephropathy, PURPLE-BLUE LINE ON GUMS (LEAD LINE OR BURTON LINE), ABD PAIN (LEAD COLIC), constipation

DX: basophilic stippling of erythrocytes, microcytic/hypochromic anemia, ring sideroblasts in bone marrow

548
Q

Methionine synthase

A

converts homocysteine to methionine

549
Q

UROD or Uroporphyrinogen III decarboxylase

A

catalyzes converstion of uroporphyrinogen III to coproporphyrinogen III

affected in porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT)

leads to accumulation of uroporphyrinogen in skin (photosensitivity, blistering, scarring, hyperpigmentation

550
Q

akathisia

A

extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medication
restlessness, inability to sit or stand

tx is to lower antipsychotic dose or add a beta blocker or benzodiazepine

551
Q

P-glycoprotein role in chemotherapy drug resistance

A

decrease intracellular concentration of dugs due to efflux pump
tumor cells may have increased frequency of glycoprotein

552
Q

Treatment for Infectious Urethritis

A

doxycycline (tetracycline) and a 3rd gen cephalosporin (ceftriaxone)

Ceftriaxone or Azithromycin (macrolide) monotherapy can be used for N. gonorrhoeae if the NAAT (nucleic acid amplification testing) is negative for C. trachomatis

553
Q

PD-L1

A

programmed cell death ligand 1
binds to T cells to inhibit immune response

can be overexpressed with some cancer cells

Tx for this type of cancer includes monoclonal antibodies that bind to PD-L1 so T-cells may still start immune response to kill cancer cell
pembrolizumab and nivolumab are examples

554
Q

Giant Cell Arteritis (temporal arteritis)

A

Sx: acute painless vision loss, headache, polymyalgia rhuematica, jaw claudication

Dx: Elevated ESR and C-reactive protein
temporal biopsy: intimal thickening, elastic lamina fragmentation, multinucleated giant cells

Tx: glucocorticoids!

555
Q

Lyme Disease

A

Borreliosis, Lyme borreliosis (
Northeast and upper midwest
Ixodes tick
“white footed mouse”

Stage 1
7-14 days after tick bite
erythema migrans (target shaped lesions), flu like sx
Stage 2
aka early disseminated Lyme disease
3-10 weeks after bite
migratory arthralgia (can progress to lyme arthritis if left untreated), early neuroborreliosis (bells palsy, meningitis), lyme carditis, multiple erythema migrans lesions
Stage 3
aka late disseminated Lyme disease
months to years after the initial infection
Lyme arthritis, Late neuroborreliosis

Dx: serology for IgM and IgG antibodies against borrelia burgdorferi

Tx: DOXYCYCLINE, amoxicillin, cefuroxime, axetil, PREFERRED IV is CERFTRIAXONE

556
Q

Modafinil

A

Tx for narcolepsy

nonamphetamine stimulant
bind to dopamine reuptake pump and inhibit reuptake

557
Q

Narcolepsy

A

recurrent lapses into sleeps or naps (x>3 times per week for 3 months)
x>1 of the following:
cataplexy - brief loss of muscle tone precipitated by strong brief emotional response
Low CSF levels of hypocretin-1
Shortened REM sleep latency
Hypnagogtic or hyponopompic hallucinations
sleep paralysis
CSF with decreased Orexin-A

558
Q

BPH treatment

A

Finasteride
5-alpha reducatase inhibitor
decreases conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone
antiandrogen
reduces prostate size, can cause decreased libido and ED

559
Q

Methotrexate

A

dihydrofolate reducatase competitive inhibitor
preferred first line tx to RA
antimetabolite that inhibits purine and pyrimidine synthesis

preferentially inhibits growth of rapidly dividing cells (cells with high turnover rate)
Side effects include: ulcers to mouth and GI tract, alopecia, pancytopenia, hepatotoxicity and pulmonary fibrosis

fix OD with Leucovorin

560
Q

Zidovudine

A

NRTI
prevents formation of 3-5 phosphodiester linkages needed for DNA replication
prevent elongation of viral DNA genome

561
Q

HIV

A

single stranded RNA virus

562
Q

Aspirin

A

COX inhibitor
impairs prostaglandin synthesis by inhibiting cyxlooxygenase
inhibition of COX-1 in platelets prevents synthesis of thromboxane A2 (potent stimulator for vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation)

IF PT ALLERGIC TRY CLOPIDOGREL

prostaglandins cause painful menses*

563
Q

Apixaban

A

direct Xa inhibitor
prevent platelet activation and fibrin clot formation
used for prevention or treatment of thromboembolic events

564
Q

Cilostazol

A

phosphodiesterase inhibitor
occasionally used in pt with symptomatic peripheral vascular disease

565
Q

Clopidogrel and Prasugrel, ticagrelor (-GREL)

A

irreversibly blocks P2Y12 component of ADP receptors on platelets surface
prevents platelet aggregation

as effective as aspirin in prevention of cardiovascular events for pt with coronary heart disease
used several hours before percutaneous coronary intervention*

566
Q

Enoxaparin

A

low molecular weight heparin (also dalteparin)

indirect thrombin inhibitors that bind with antithrombin and convert it from a slow to a rapid inactivator of thrombin and factor Xa

567
Q

Eptifibitide

A

platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor that inhibits the final common pathway of platelet aggregation

568
Q

NSAIDs

A

Naproxen, INDOMETHACIN, Ibuprofen, Diclofenac, Piroxicam, Meloxicam, Ketorolac
used for pain management in pt with osteoarthritis

reversible inhibition of COX 1 and COX2 - decreased prostaglandin synthesis

569
Q

Warfarin

A

inhibits Vitamin K epoxide reductase required for synthesis of active vitamin K resulting in decreased synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X)

used for tx or prevention of thromboembolic events and commonly for long term anticoagulation in pt with A-FIB who are at increased risk of embolic stroke

Protein C and Protein S require Vitamin K - Protein S is cofactor for Protein C and they help to regulate abnormal clotting

570
Q

Why pair sulfadiazine with pyrimethamine

A

synergistic effect

571
Q

Theophylline

A

adenosine receptor antagonist
indirect adrenergic agent

toxicity can cause arrythmias and seizures

572
Q

Acetemenophen intoxication tx

A

N-acetylcysteine is given

Liver tries to make glutathione to get rid of toxins but gets depleted after while and has damage

N-acetylcysteine provides a precursor of clutithione to the liver so that NAPQI can further detoxify liver and prevent further hepatotoxicity

573
Q

Endothelin-1

A

used for treatment of pulmonary hypertension

574
Q

Phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitors

A

ex. Roflumilast

block degradation of cyclic AMP

leads to reduced airway inflammation and mosoth muscle relaxation in pt with COPD

575
Q

Amphotericin B

A

binds ergosterol in fungal cell membranes to form holes

monitor Potassium and Magnesium as they are commonly depleted with Amphotericin B

RENAL TOXICITY, infusion related reaction characterized by FEVER AND CHILLS

576
Q

Bulimia Nervosa tx

A
  1. recurrent binge eating episodes associated with 2. inappropriate weight compensatory behaviors (self induced vomiting or laxative use) 3. occur once or more a week for at least 3 months 4. sense of self worth disproportionately influenced by self image or weight 5. 1 and 2 don’t occur just during episodes of anorexia nervosa

Clinical features: seizures, cardiac arrhythmias, Esophagitis and/or gastritis, esophageal/gastric lacerations (Mallory-Weiss), bilateral parotid gland swelling (sialadentitis), calluses on the knuckles (Russell sign), dry and brittle nails, caries and perimylolysis from vomiting

Cognitive behavioral therapy
nutritional rehabilitation
SSRI

577
Q

Anorexia nervosa tx

A

deliberate avoidance of energy intake

Clinical features: hypothermia, seizures, bradycardia, hypotension, cardiac atrophy, mitral valve prolapse, secondary amennorrhea, lanugo body hair (short, fine, nonpigmented hair), secondary osteoporosis

Cognitive behavioral therapy
nutritional rehabilitation
Olanzipine - antipsychotic with weight gain side effect

578
Q

Bupropion

A

norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor

Uses: smoking cessasion

side effect: elevated chance of seizures

579
Q

cyclophosphamide toxicity tx

A

Mesna

580
Q

Doxorubicin toxicity tx

A

Dextrazoxane

581
Q

Methotrexate Overdose tx

A

Leucovorin or Folinic acid

582
Q

Ondasteron

A

used to treat chemotherapy side effects

5-HT3 receptor inhibitor

583
Q

PDE5 inhibitors

A

sildenafil, tadalafil
tx for ED
increase activity of cGMP in penile corpora
formation of nitric oxide which induces formation of cGMP which promote vascular smooth muscle relaxation
cGMP is inactivated by PDE (cleaves cGMP)

side effects: could also inhibit PDE6 in retina which is involved with color (pt will have bluish discoloration)

584
Q

Ectopic pregnancy tx

A

Methotrexate
folic acid antagonist
directly binds with dihydrofolate reductase inhibiting formation of tetrahydrofolate

inhibits DNA synthesis and cell reproduction primarily in active proliferating cells and trophoblasts

585
Q

Azathioprine

A

immunosuppression drug
inhibits purine nucleotide synthesis and incorporates false purine nucleotides into DNA and RNA

reduces the proliferation and activity of both B and T lymphocytes

side effects include APLASTIC ANEMIA due to bone marrow suppression

586
Q

Lab Test prior to Metformin use

A

Serum Creatinine level

Metformin lowers blood glucose by reducing hepatic gluconeogenesis and increasing insulin-dependent peripheral glucose uptake. Lactic acidosis is a rare complication but not being able to clear Lactate due to RENAL INSUFFICIENCY increases the chance

587
Q

-zosin drugs

A

alpha 1 antagonist
Doxazosin and Terazosin

increase heart rate (reflex), and decreased systemic vascular resistance

ORTHOSTATIC HYPOTENSION

588
Q

Rituximab

A

monoclonal antibody for autoimmune disease and hematologic malignancy

binds to CD 20 on B lymphocytes resulting in apoptosis

589
Q

Digoxin

A

inhibits the sodium potassium ATPase enzyme (blocks potassium in and sodium out)
because calcium has a sodium channel as well the effect is increased intracellular sodium and calcium resulting in positive ionotropic effect

chronic toxicity can cause nonspecific GI and neuro sx, CHANGES IN COLOR VISION, POTENTIALLY FATAL CARDIAC ARRHYTHMIAS (HYPOKALEMIA)

590
Q

Venous Blanching via norepi drip treatment?

A

local administration of phentolamine

norepi leak causes intense a1 mediated vasoconstriction leading to tissue necrosis
pentolamine is an alpha receptor blocker leading to vasodilation (must be given within 12 hours)

591
Q

How sterilization techniques work? (alcohols, chlorhexidine, hydrogen peroxide, iodine)

A

Alcohol - disruption of cell membranes, denaturation of proteins

Chlorhexidine - disruption of cell membranes, coagulation of cytoplasm

Hydrogen peroxide - produces destructive free radicals that oxidize cellular components

Iodine - Halogenation of proteins and nucleic acids

592
Q

Acute Opiod intoxication

A

decreased resp rate, miosis, depressed mental state

activated mu, kappa, and delta receptor types

can also cause classic triad: hypothermia, hypotension, and decreased tidal volume

593
Q

Cholinesterase inhibitor effect with Alzheimers

A

provide symptomatic improvement but do not enhance neuron survival

594
Q

Mannitol

A

sugar alcohol used as osmotic diuretic that increases plasma osmolality

increase in flow of water down it’s concentration gradient from intracellular space to plasma

does not cross BBB

because of plasma volume expansion the serum sodium concentration decreases

renal blood flow increases (increase GFR and renal tubular flow)

is filtered but not reabsorbed in renal tubles

595
Q

MAO inhibitors

A

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

increase availability of all 3 major monoamines (dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin)

the MAO enzyme normally breaks down monoamines.

Tyramine is indirected sympathomimetic found in some foods (aged cheese, cured meats, draft beer) that is usually broken down in GI tract by MAO

PT CAN GO THROUGH TYRAMINE INDUCED HTN CRISIS IF EATING TYRAMINE FOODS WHILE ON MAO INHIBITOR

596
Q

Plasminogen role

A

breaks down fibrin

used to break up clots or help with chest tube drainage

597
Q

Corticosteroids moa

A

bind to cytoplasmic receptors and translocate to the nucleus where they act by inhibiting transcription of genes encoding inflammatory mediators
decrease tissue production of proinflammatory prostaglandins and leukotrienes through the inhibition of COX1/COX2/PHOSPHOLIPASE A2
decrease synthesis of proinflammatory cytokines (IL-4, IL-13)
increase production of anti-inflammatory mediators

Adverse effects: CAN CAUSE ACUTE PSYCHOSIS

598
Q

Montelukast

A

blocks the effect of leukotrienes (released by mast cells and eosinophils)

599
Q

IL-4

A

stimulates B-cell production of IgE

600
Q

Lithium

A

can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus as it will increase resistance to ADH leading to hypernatremia/polyuria/and decreases urine osmolality

Urine would be dilute showing:
urine specific gravity < 1.010
Urine Osmoles < 200mOsm/kg

every 6-12 months test TSH levels as Lithium can cause hypothyroidism

601
Q

Entacapone and Tolcapone

A

Block Catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) which increases Levodopa

Levodopa can dross BBB but is rapidly metabolized by COMT therefore only a small amount reaches the brain
Levodopa can cause drug-induced immune hemolytic anemia

Entacapone or Tolcapone used with Carbidopa (DOPA decarboxylase inhibitors) decrease Levodopa degradation and increase amount available to cross the blood-brain barrier

602
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers

A

DHP - amlodipine, flodipine, nifedipine
Action is on VASCULAR SMOOTH MUSCLE resulting in vasodilation

Non-DHP - Verapamil, and Diltiazem
Verapamil action on CARDIAC MUSCLE to reduce HR and contractility
Diltiazem action is on vascular smooth muscle and CARDIAC for combined physiologic effects

Adverse effects: can cause 3rd degree AV block and prolonged QT

603
Q

Aspirin overdose

A

elevated salicylate acid levels in body

most commonly accidental child OD

tx with soium bicarb
alkalyzes the blood making it easier to eleminate excess salicylate in urine
Sodium bicarb takes the hydrogen molecule off lipophilic salicylate making it lipophobic and unable to penetrate cell’s membrane trapping it in bloodstream

604
Q

Cardiovascular effects of adrenergic agonists

A

alpha 1: peripheral vasoconstriction, increased SVR

Beta 1: increase heart rate and contractility, increase cardiac output

Beta 2: peripheral vasodilation, decrease SVR

Dopamine 1: renal arteriolar vasodilation

605
Q

Dobutamine

A

Beta 1 > Beta 2

-/decrease in BP and increase HR

606
Q

Dopamine

A

Low Dose: D1>B1>A1
-/decrease in BP and increase in HR

High Dose: A1>B1>D1
increase in BP and -/decrease (reflex) in HR

607
Q

Epinephrine

A

Low Dose: B1>B2>A1
-/decrease in BP and increase in HR

High Dose: A1>B2>A1
Increase in BP and -/decrease (reflex) in HR

608
Q

Isoproterenol

A

B1=B2
-/decrease in BP and increase in HR

609
Q

Norepinephrine

A

A1>B1>B2
increase in BP and -/decrease (reflex) in HR

610
Q

Phenylephrine

A

A1-agonist
increase in BP and decrease (reflex) in HR

611
Q

Benzodiazepine

A

Lorazepam, Diazepam, Chlordiazepoxide

Increase duration of Chloride channel GABA-A receptor

612
Q

Tuberculosis Drugs

A

Ethambutol - inhibition of arabinosyl transferase
Side effect: OPTIC NEUROPATHY!! including pain and color vision loss

Isoniazid - inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis
Side effect: NEUROTOXICITY (GIVE VITAMIN B6 PYRIDOXINE), and HEPATOTOXICITY
COMMONLY USED FOR PROPHYLAXIS OF PT EXPOSED TO ACTIVE TB

Pyrazinamide - unclear moa
Side effects: hepatotoxicity, hyperuricemia

Rifampin - inhibition of bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
Side effects: GI effects, rash, RED-ORANGE BODY FLUIDS, cytopenia

613
Q

Sideroblastic Anemia

A

form of anemia caused by ineffective heme synthesis

characterized by presence of basophilic stippling and ringed sideroblasts in peripheral blood smear and secondary iron overload

COMMONLY SEEN WITH ISONIAZID USE RESULTING IN VITAMIN B6 (pyridoxine) DEFICIENCY

614
Q

dacrocytes

A

tear drop shaped RBCs

indicate extramedullary hematopoiesis

615
Q

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemias

A

type of anemia that results from mechanical damage of erythrocytes by microthrombi in small blood vessels

characterized by schistocytes (FRAGMENTATION OF ERYTHROCYTES)

common causes are thrombocytopenic purpura, Hemolytic uremic syndrome, DIC, and HELLP syndrome

616
Q

Thrombocytopenic Purpura vs ITP

A

TTP
thrombotic microangiopathy in which microthrombi (platelet derived) form and occlude microvasculature

caused by reduced activity of vWF protease ADAMTS13

pentad of symptoms: FAT RN - Fever, Anemia, Thrombocytopenia, Renal disfuctions, Neurologic abnormalities

ITP
antiplatelet antibodies (mostly IgG directed against GpIIb/IIIa and GpIb/IX) bind to surface of platelets - sequestration by spleen and liver - decreased platelet count - bone marrow megakaryocytes and platelet production increase in response
SUSPECT ITP IN CHILD WITH THROMBOCYTOPENIA AND PETECHIAE FOLLOWING A VIRAL ILLNESS!!!

617
Q

HUS or Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome

A

mainly childrean under 5y/o
Bacterial exotoxins (shiga like toxin from enterohemorragic E. coli from undercooked beef or vegetables
Shiga toxin produced by Shigella dysenteriae

thrombotic microaniopathy characterized by formation of microthrombi occluding the microvasculature
1. infection with EHEC or another causative organism
2. mucosal inflammation facilitates bacterial toxins entering systemic circulation
3. damaged endothelial cells secrete cytokines that promote vasoconstriction and platelet microthrombus formation at site of damage
4. RBCs are mechanically destroyed as they pass the platelet microthrombi occluding small blood vessels - hemolysis (schistocytes) resulting in end organ ischemia and damage ESPECIALLY KIDNEYS - decreased GFR

clinical features: diarrheal illness (usually bloody) for last 5-10 days
TRIAD OF SX: THROMBOCYTOPENIA, MICROANGIOPATHIC HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA, IMPAIRED RENAL FUNCTION

Dx: decreased hemoglobin/platelets/haptoglobin, increased indirect bilirubin/reticulocytes/LDH/schistocytes, increased BUN and creatinine (decreased renal fx)

Tx: supportive care and antibiotic therapy

618
Q

DIC or Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

A

systemic activation of the clotting cascade, platelet consumption, and subsequent exhaustion of clotting factors that leads to widespread thrombosis and hemorrhage

STOP Making Trouble - Sepsis/Snackbites, Trauma, Obstetric complications, Pancreatitis, Malignancy, Transfusion

Massive Bleeding type - hyperfibrinolysis (decreased platelets, increased PT/D-dimer/fibrin derived products, decreased fibrinogen

Bleeding time increased, PT/PTT increased, platelet count decreased

Organ Failure type - hypercoagulability and thrombosis

4 concurrent events
1. initiation and PROPAGATION OF COAGULATION
2. systemic inflammatory activation - IMPAIRMENT OF PHYSIOLOGICAL ANTICOAGULANT PATHWAYS and ENDOGENOUS FIBRINOLYSIS
3. INCREASED THROMBIN PRODUCTION
4. IMPAIRED FIBRIN REMOVAL

619
Q

Thrombin

A

converted from prothrombin to thrombin and then converts fibrinogen to fibrin

620
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis

A

most common congenital hemolytic disorder among northern european descent

AD
proteins affected are SPECTRIN AND ANKYRIN

gene mutation - defects in RBC membrane responsible for tying the inner membrane skeleton with the outer lipid bilayer - continuous loss of lipid bilayer components - decreased surface area of RBC in relation to volume - SPHERE SHAPED RBCs with decreased membrane stability - inability to change form when going through narrowed vessels
entrapment in splenic vasculature - splenomegaly
destruction via splenic macrophages - extravascular hemolysis

clinical features: anemia, jaundice, splenomegaly, BLACK PIGMENT GALLSTONE

621
Q

Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)

A

peak incidence 65 years

no identifiable cause or risk factors in most cases but can occur after chemotherapy
Down syndrome has increased risk

M3-AML aka Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL)

Clicincal features: Leukemia cutis (nodular skin lesions with a purple or gray-blue color), Gingival hyperplasia (M4 and M5), signs of CNS involvement

Dx: greater than 20% myeloblasts

AML: t(8;21)
APL: t(15;17

Auer rods and myeloperoxidase (MPO) positive

Tx: AML - cytarabine (antimetabolite) and for APL (ATRA/All trans retinoic acid

MAY CAUSE DIC (MICROANGIOPATHIC HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA OR MAHA)

622
Q

Acute Lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

A

peak incidence 2-5 years
most common malignant disease in children

no identifiable cause or risk factors in most cases
Down syndrome has increased risk

B cell ALL 80-85% cases

Clinical features: fever, painless lymphagdenopathy, bone pain, airway obstruction due to mediastinal or thymic infiltration, Meningeal leukemia, testicular enlargement (rare finding)

Dx: greater than 20% lymphoblasts
MPO negative bu TdT positive (marker for premature lymphocytes)

B-ALL - usually positive for CD 10/19/20
T-ALL - usually positive for CD2-8 especially CD3

philadelphia translocation in 20-30% of adults
Childhood B-ALL t(12;21)

623
Q

Hairy Cell Leukemia

A

most common in middle aged men
mature B-cell tumor BRAF mutation common

clinical features: symptomatic pancytopenia, MASSIVE SPLENOMEGALY, no lymphadenopathy

Dx: usually TRAP positive (tartrate resistant acid phosphatase), Flow cytometry preferred, peripheral blood smear shows hairy cells with irrgeular cytoplasmic projections that cause the characteristic “hairy” appearance, Bone marrow aspiration: DRY TAP

624
Q

Follicular Lymphoma

A

most common low grade lymphoma in adults

slowly progressive and painless course with alternating pattern of lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly

t(14;18) involves heavy chain Ig (chr14) and Bcl-2 gene (chr18) leads to overexpression of Bcl-2 leads to dysregulation of apoptosis (Bcl-2 normally inhibits apoptosis)

625
Q

Marginal zone B-cell lymphoma

A

most common in adults
associated with autoimmune diseases (Sjogren syndrome, Hashimoto thyroiditis)

Extranodal MZL: gastric MALT lymphoma (most common) and nongastric MALT lymphoma (thyroid, salivary gland)
Gastric MALT lymphoma: t(11:18)(q21;21) and H. pylori infection

626
Q

Mantle Cell lymphoma

A

Most common in adult men

t(11;14) involving cyclin D1 (chr11) and heavy chain Ig (chr14)

CD5 positive

spreads rapidly; most patients are diagnosed with advanced disease (stage IV)

627
Q

Burkitt Lymphoma

A

most common in children

t(8;14) involving c-myc (proto oncogene on chr8) and heavy chain Ig (chr14) leading to overactivation of protooncogene c-myc and activation of transcription

Forms:
1. Sporadic - typically located in abdomen or pelvis
2. Endemic - associated with EBV (most prevalent in equitorial Africa and S. AMerica) and is typically located in the MAXILLARY AND MANDIBULAR BONES

STARRY SKY PATTERN ON HISTOLOGY (tingible body macrophages)

628
Q

Sjogren Syndrome

A

mostly females age 40-60

Primary: idiopathic
Secondary: associated with another autoimmune disease (RA, SLE, systemic sclerosis, polymyositis, primary biliary cirrhosis)

Sx: XEROPHTHALMIA (dry eyes), keratoconjunctivitis sicca (conjunctival injection, eye itching or burning sensation, sensation of sand or foreign object in eyes), XERSTOMIA (dry mouth), dental caries, oral infections, parotid gland enlargement, tongue fissures
***SYstemic sx include arthralgias, RAYNAUD PHENOMENON, and Gi involvement
SIALADENITIS (swollen parotid gland)

Dx: ANTI-RO/SSA ANTIBODIES; ANTI-LA/SSB ANTIBODIES (target ribonucleoprotein antigens (Ro/La) in epithelial cells, especially in the salivary glands), Antinuclear antibodies, Rf antibodies

Biopsy of minor labial salivary gland shows destructoin of gland (fibrosis, parenchymal atrophy) and LYMPHOCYTIC INFILTRATION

629
Q

Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

A

MOST COMMON NHL IN ADULTS

mutations in Bcl-2, Bcl-6, and p53

Primary CNS lymphoma (subtype of DLBCL)
associated with EBV and AIDS
focal neurologic deficits, neuropsychiatric symptoms
solitary ring-enhancing lesions on MRI

positive for CD19, CD20, and CD79a

630
Q

Calcium Pathway

A

Cholesterol - synthesized in body or through food

Provitamin D3 (7-Dehydrocholesterol) - made in liver

Vitamin D3 (Cholecalciferol) - processed from Provitamin 3 after UV radiation or eaten through food

Calcidiol (25-Hydroxycholecalciferol) - processed in liver via enzyme 25-hydroxylase

Calcitriol (1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3) - made in kidney via 1alpha-hydroxylase
PTH and cAMP increase activity and Calcium Phosphate decreases activity

631
Q

Calcitriol

A

1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3

form of vitamin D3 that becomes hormonally active in the kidneys via 1alpha-hydroxylase

increases calcium absorption in the small bowel and renal tubules and increases calcium release from bones

632
Q

Renal Cell Carcinoma

A

most common malignancy of the renal parenchyma

peak incidence between 55-74 years old

more RCCs occur sporadically

risk factors include smoking and obesity

Hereditary from Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome (chr3p) and Tuberous sclerosis

Clinical Features: weight loss, fever, night sweats, anemia, Tumor causing include hematuria/flank pain/palpable renal mass

adenocarcinomas usually arise from the epithelial cells of PCT

Clear cell renal cell carcinoma - 70% of RCCs, Clear cells (polgonal cells arranged as cords or tubules (non-papillary growth, clear glycogen and/or lipid filled cytoplasm aka scant cytoplasm))

633
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

A

disease resulted from deletion of VHL gene on chr3 (tumor suppressor) - impaired uniquitination and elimination of hypoxia-inducible factor 1a - loss of function - tumor and cyst development

AD or spontaneous

Clinical Features: Vascular tumors (hemangioblastoma or angiomatosis) commonly found in retina, cerebellum, brainstem and/or spine (cells have hyperchromatic nuclei), Bilateral RCC, Pheochromocytoma

*** von HIPPEL-lindau syndrome = Hemangioblastoma, Increased risk of rcc, Pheochromocytoma, Pancreatic lesions, Eye Lesions

Dx: plasma catecholamines and urinary catecholamine metabolites to screen for pheochromocytoma

634
Q

Tubreous Sclerosis

A

AD or spontaneous

mutation of tumor supressor gene - loss of function - unchecked cell growth - tumor development

TSC1 gene on chr9 encodes HAMARTIN protein
TSC2 gene on chr16 encodes TUBERIN protein

Clinical Features: intellectual disbility, Infantile spasms, focal seizures, ADENOMA SEBACEUM (facial angiofibroma, benign tumor composed of blood vessels and fibrous connective tissue), ASH LEAF SPOTS (white macules on trunk and extremities), SHAGREEN PATCH (flesh colored papule in lumbosacral region with orange-peel appearance), GIANT CELL ASTROCYTOMA, CARDIAC RHABDOMYOMA (may cause mitral regurgitation and or CHF)

635
Q

Neurofibromatosis

A

Types 1 and 2 both AR or spontaneous

mutation of tumor supressor gene - loss of function - uninhibited cell growth - neurofibroma development

Type 1: NF1 gene mutation 100% penetrance, chr17, encodes NEUROFIBROMIN protein, inhibition of cell growth and proliferation via inhibition of Ras signal transduction pathway
Clinical Features: multiple neurofibromas typically under skin and in adolescence, CAFE AU LAIT SPOTS (brown flat macule or patch), LISCH NODULES (pigmented iris hamartomas), axillary and inguinal freckling, sezures, intellectual disability, Bone involvement (scoliosis, sphenoid wind dysplasia, short stature

Type 2: NF2 gene mutation, chr 22, encodes MERLIN protein
Clinical Features: age of onset 18-24 years, bilateral vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuromas located internal acoustic meatus affecting the vestibulocochlear nerve causing tinnitus/hearing loss/vertigo), multiple cerebral and spinal tumors especially MENINGIOMAS and ependymomas

636
Q

Sarcoidosis

A

age onset 30-55 y/o
highest in African american population

GRANULOMA FORMATION- mature granulomes are composed of epithelioid cells and macrophages surrounded by lymphocytes and fibroblasts
1. macrophages activate Th1 cells
2. Th1 cells stimulate formation of epithelioid cells and multinucleated giant cells by releasing IFN-gamma
3. Epithelioid cells produce ACE and release cytokines that recruit more immune cells
FIBROSIS
CALCIUM DYSREGULATION -
1. activated pulmonary alveolar macrophages
2. increase 1-alpha hydroxylase expression and activity
3. increase calcitriol production - hyperviaminosis D - hyperphosphatemia/hypercalcemia/possible renal failure

Clinical Features:
often asymptomatic
fever, malaise, lack of appetite, weight loss, lymphadenopathy
Pulmonary - dyspnea cough chest pain
Extrapulmonary - ARTHRITIS, ERYTHEMA NODOSUM, ANTERIOR UVEITIS

lungs most commonly affected showing interstitial fibrosis

Cutaneous shows ERYTHEMA NODOSUM AND LUPUS PERNIO (pathognomonic manifestation of sarcoidosis, extensive violaceous skin plaques on nose/cheeks/chin/and or ears

features of sarcoidosis are GRUELING - Granulomas, aRthritis, Uveitis, Erythema nodosum, Lymphadenopathy, Interstitial fibrosis, Negative TB test, Gammaglobulinemia

Dx: CXR shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with or without pulmonary infiltrates (reticular and/or ground glass opacities)
Bronchoalveolar lavage shows increased CD4:CD8 ratio
Biopsy shows noncaseating granulomas with giant cells, ASTEROID BODIES< SCHAUMANN BODIES

637
Q

Coagulation factors pathway (intrinsic, extrinsic, Vitamin K, etc.)

A

Intrinsic - 8,9,11,12
12 - 12a helps 11 - 11a helps 9 - 9a
8 - 8a helps 9a

Extrinsic - 7
7 - 7a helps 10 to 10a

7a and 9a help 10 - 10a which breaks down prothrombin II to Thrombin IIa which helps Fibrinogen I to Fibrin Ia

Hemophilia A inhibits 8
Hemophilia B inhibits 9
Hemophilia C inhibits 11

Liver Cirrhosis stops factors 2,7,9,10

Vitamin K deficiency is similar to liver cirrhosis as the factors will not be carboxylated by gamma-glutamyl carboxylase

Vitamin K is reduced via Epoxide reductase

638
Q

Monoclonal Antibodies Chemotherapy

A

Trastuzumab

tx for breast cancer HER2/neu-positive

side effects are cadiotoxicity which can manifest as left ventricular ejection raction and features of heart failure

639
Q

Alkylating agents chemotherapy

A

Busulfan (severe myelosuppression, pulmonary fibross, hyperpigmentation)
Cyclophosphamide (bladder toxicity, hemorrhagic cystitis, Bladder carcinoma, SIADH secretion)
Mesna - tx to help with cyclophosphamide side effect of hemorrhagic cystitis
Cisplatin, -platin (nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity, peripheral neuropathies)
Amifostine - tx to help with Cisplatin induced nephrotoxicity
alkylates (damages) DNA

used as chemotherapy and immunosuppressants

Side effects: myelosuppression for all but some specifics listed above for each drug

640
Q

Vinca Alkaloids chemotherapy

A

Vincristine, Vinblastine

binds beta-tubulin and inhibits polymerization of mitotic spindle arresting cell cycle in M-phase

Side effects: neurtotoxicity and myelosuppression

641
Q

Topoisomerase I inhibitors chemotherapy

A

-tecans (irinotecan, topotecan)

inhibits topoisomerase I which prevents DNA unwinding and replication

side effect: myelosuppression and diarrhea

642
Q

Anthracycline chemotherapy

A

-rubicin (Doxorubicin)

multiple MOAs:
1. inhibition of topoisomerase II
2. intercalation with DNA preventing synthesis
3. DNA strand excision
4. generation of free radicals

side effect: dilated cardiomyopathy
***can be limited with use of DEXRAZOXANE (iron chelating agent)

643
Q

Lymph Node Drainage

A
  1. Superficial Inguinal nodes
    everything south of belly button drains to these nodes
    EXCEPT TESTIS AND LATERAL FOOT
    anal canal below pectinate line, scrotum, vulva
  2. Para Aortic
    on sides of aorta
    testis, uterus, ovaries, kidneys
  3. Celiac
    Most organs
    Liver, Spleen, stomach, Pancreas, upper duodenum
  4. Popliteal
    dorsolateral foot, posterior calf
  5. Deep inguinal
    glans penis and anterior urethra
  6. External Iliac
    superior part of bladder
  7. Inferior mesenteric
    most of large intestine (splenic flexure through upper rectum including superior and sigmoid rectum
  8. Internal Iliac
    prostate, corpus cavernosum, bladder, lower rectum (to the anal canal above the dentate line
  9. Mediastinal
    trachea and esophagus
644
Q

ACE inhibitors

A

-pril

***teratogenic and cause renal tubular dysplasia and oligohydramnios, intrauterine growth restriction, and lack of cranial ossification

645
Q

Beta 1 adrenoreceptor antagonism

A
646
Q

ARBs

A
647
Q

Aldosterone receptor antagonism

A
648
Q

Potassium Sparing diuretics

A
649
Q

Pharyngeal Arch Derivatives

A

6.

650
Q

Persistant Truncus Arteriosus

A
651
Q

ASD or Atrial Septal Defect

A
652
Q

VSD or Ventricular Septal Defect

A
653
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot Card above

A
654
Q

Patent Foramen Ovale

A
655
Q

Kartagener syndrome (above)

A
656
Q

Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return or TAPVR

A
657
Q

Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome

A
658
Q

Aortic Coarctation

A
659
Q

Pulmonary vascular congestion on CXR indicates?

A

Left Heart Failure

“backing up” of blood

leads to enlarged pulmonary vessels

660
Q

Wet Beriberi

A
661
Q

Duchenne’s Mucular dystrophy

A
662
Q

Becker Muscular dystrophy

A
663
Q

Heart Sound, Opening snap left lower sternal border

A

Tricuspid stenosis

signs of Right sided heart failure

664
Q

Heart Sound, Loud S1 best heard in 5th intercostal space midclavicular line?

A

Mitral valve closure
loud could be mitral valve stenosis or mobile leaflets

rheumatic heart disease is most common cause of itral stenosis in pts that have recently migrated from a developing country

665
Q

S2 split explanation (physiologic, wide, fixed, paradoxical)

A

Physiologic - A2 closes before P2 and is widening with inspiration due to increased blood flow in right ventricle causing pulmonic valve to stay open longer
INCREASED CAPACITY OF THE PULMONARY CIRCULATION

Wide split - A2 closes before P2 and is wider than usually due to left to right blood shunting

Fixed split - A2 closes before P2 and is unaffected by inspiration, most likely due to ASD

Paradoxical - P2 closes before A2, and inspiration closes the gap in the split or fixes the split, most likely due to severe aortic stenosis or HOCM (inspiration causes more blood into right ventricle delaying closure of P2 closing the split)

666
Q

Heart Sound, early systole immediately after S1, click, with crescendo/decrescendo systolic murmur

A

pulmonic stenosis

typically encountered among pediatric patients with other congenital heart disesases (ex. ToF)

667
Q

Heart Sound, early diastole S3

A

rapid ventricular filling

due to INCREASED LEFT VENTRICULAR END-SYSTOLIC VOLUME, dilated ventricles, mitral regurgitation

668
Q

Heart Sound, S4 gallop

A

Late diastolic sound

decreased myocardial compliance

important sign of heart failure with diastolic dysfunction or other conditions reducing myocardial compliance (active ischemia, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy)

669
Q

Dressler Syndrome***

A

2-10 weeks post MI

autoimmune response against cardiac antigens can lead to immune complex-mediated damage (type III hypersensitivity) to pericardium

Clinical features of acute pericarditis (fever, tachypnea, chest pain worsen with inspiration alleviated by leaning forward, dry cough, pericardial friction rub, increased troponin levels, diffuse ST elevations, pericardial effusion, and pleural effusions)

670
Q

Pulmonary Embolism***

A

pleuritic chest pain, cough, low grade fever

671
Q

Infective Endocarditis***

A

Mitral valve vegetations and glomerulonephritis (increased creatinine, red cells casts, proteinuria)

most likely Staphylococcus aureus - rapid valve destruction and formation of large valvular vegetations

Renal issues from IE can be caused by: antigen-antibody complex depositions, septic embolization from infected valves (look for janeway lesions, roth spots, and subungual petechiae), drug induced acute interstitial nephritis (mostly penicillin allergy would have wbc and eosinophils in urine, if aminoglycosides used could be acute tubular necrosis which would have granular casts and increased urine sodium levels)
ABOUT 50% OF AUTOPSIES AFTER IE SHOW INFECTED THROMBI IN RENAL ARTERIES

Clinical features: Janeway lesions (nontender erythematous macules and papules on palms and soles), Roth spots (retinal hemorrhages that occur in IE from vascular occlusion and localize dimmune mediated vasculitis

672
Q

cholestrol emboli

A

cholesterol released from atherosclerotic plaque

obstructs blood vessels causing livedo reticularis, gangrene and renal failure

673
Q

Brugada syndrome***

A

EKG: pseudo-RBBB with ST elevation in V1-2

Clinical features: dizziness, palpitations, a-fib

defective cardiac voltage-gated sodium channels

674
Q

Epsilon wave following QRS complex

A

highly specific for arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)

dizziness, palpitations, chest pain, sudden cardiac death

caused by mutations in desmosomal proteins which lead to fatal arrythmias

675
Q

Long QT syndrome***

A

prolonged QTc = x > 440ms in men and x > 460ms in women

QTc = QT interval / sqaure root of RR interval in seconds

congenital or acquired

676
Q

Statin drugs

A

moa: competitive inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase
unable to convert HMG-CoA to mevalonate (rate limiting step of cholesterol synthesis)

reduced intrahepatic cholesterol biosynthesis - upregulation of expression of LDL receptor gene - increased LDL recycling because it’s a competitive inhibitor and binds to active site it will increase HMG-CoA reductase’s apparent Km

major decrease in LDL cholesterol
increase in HDL cholesterol
decrease in Triglyceride level

Side effects: increase in LFTs, myalgia (INCREASE IN CREATININE KINASE)

677
Q

ACE inhibitors effect on bradykinin?

A

increase in bradykinin because Angiotensin converting enzyme breaks down bradykinin

adverse effects on ACE inhibitors are cough and angioedema, HYPERKALEMIA due to its effects on aldosterone production

678
Q

Beta selective vs nonspecific drugs

A

nonselective beta blocker for B1, B2, and A1 - Labetalol, and Carvedilol

B1 cardioselective blocker - Metoprolol, Atenolol, Esmolol, Betaxolol, Nebivolol

nonselective B1, B2 blockers - Propranolol, Nadolol, Timolol
and Sotalol but it also blocks potassium channels*

679
Q

Thioamides

A

Propylthiouracil and Methimazole

inhibits thyroid production via inhibition of thyroid pyroxidase (BLOCKS IONIDATION AND COUPLING)

Propylthiouracil also lowers peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 via inhibition of 5-deiodinase

Methimazole is preferred for Grave’s disease tx due to less likelihood of HEPATOTOXICITY

Propylthiouracil is preferred for first trimester of pregnant women with Grave’s

680
Q

post intercourse dysuria and suprapubic pain with urine showing bacteria and wbcs?

A

think acute cystitis and tx with trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole

not Chlamydia because it’s intracellular and bacteria wouldnt be seen (tx with doxycycline or azithromycin)

not Trichomonas (metronidazole tx) or Candida (fluconazole tx) because of lack of vaginal discharge and odor

681
Q

Antifungal -azoles

A

Fluconazole, Itraconazole

inhibition of 14-alpha demethylase (fungal cytochrome p450) - decreased fungal synthesis of ergosterol from lanosterol - decreased levels of ergosterol - membrane instability - cellular death

Ketoconazole inhibits 17alpha-hydroxylase/17,20-lyase used for prostate cancer

Side effects are gynecomastia and it is a cytochrome p450 inhibitor so be careful

682
Q

nitroimidazole

A

Metronidazole

creates free radicals within the bacterial cell promoting DNA strand breaks

CLinical use: protozoa (Entamoeba histolytica, GIARDIA, Trichomonas), Anaerobes (C. difficile, Bacteroides), Facultative anaerobes (Gardnerella vaginalis, Helicobacter pylori)

Adverse effects: Headache, Metallic taste, GI side effects (NAUSEA, VOMITING, ABD PAIN)

take the Metro To lonG BEaCH = Metronidazole treats Tichiomonas, Giardia/Gardnerella, Bacteroides, Entamoeba, Clostridium and H. pylori*

683
Q

Sulfonamides

A

inhibition of bacterial folic acid synthesis

inhibit DIHYDROPTEROATE SYNTHASE

TMP = Treats Marrow Poorly

ROCk, PAper, SCiSSors: most important sulfa drugs are fuROsemide, (hydro)Chlorthalidone, Probenecid, Acetazolamide, Sulfamethoxazole/Sulfadiazine, Celecoxib, Sulfasalazine, and Sulfonylureas)

684
Q

Pt with ED takes nitrate after chest pain and experiences major hypotension?

A

nitrates don’t mix well with ED meds

accumulation of cGMP

nitrates are converted to nitric oxide and nitric oxide increases cGMP as a 2nd messenger which results in vascular smooth muscle relaxation

685
Q

Valproate or Valproic acid

A

anticonvulsant and mood stabilizer

blocks voltage gated sodium channels and enhances availability of GABA

*Lamotrigine and Carbemazapine are also used similarly but Carbemazapine is a CYP450 inducer and Lamotrigine can cause steven-johnson syndrome

Adverse Effects: severally hepatotoxic

686
Q

Azothioprine vs Mycophenylate

A
687
Q

Tacrolimus vs Sirolimus

A
688
Q

Prednisone and other glucocorticoids moa***

methylprednisolone, fluticasone

A

inhibit Nf-kB

decrease transcription of IL-2 and other cytokines

689
Q

Bordatella pertussis description and tx

A

gram (-) coccobacilli strictly aerobic

cultured in Bordet-Gengou agar

Virulence factors: Capsule and Pertussis toxin

Tx: Macrolides (azithromycin, erythromycin) to stop protein production via inhibition of 50s ribosomal subunit (stopping translocation)

690
Q

Ritoxumab

A
691
Q

Cyclosporine

A

Calcineurin inhibitor used for immunosuppressant therapy after transplantation

Side effects: AKI, HYPERTENSION, tremor, headache, Hyperglycemia, Hyperlipidemia, alopecia

692
Q

Leuprolide vs Finasteride

(description and when to use for prostate) #11 Pharm 1

A
693
Q

Pupil receptors for mydriasis and miosis

A

Mydriasis - Alpha1 receptor - radial muscle contraction

Miosis - M3 receptor - sphincter muscle contraction

694
Q

Hereditary Angioedema

A

deficient or dysfunctional C1 esterase inhibitor

leads to increased levels of bradykinin and C1 complement pathway products

AVOID ACE INHIBITORS AS THEY WILL INCREASE THE AMOUNT OF BRADYKININ PRESENT AND PREVENT IT’S BREAKDOWN

695
Q

Masked Hypoglycemic tachycardia in pt with Migraine?

A

Propranolol can mask hypoglycemic signs and symptoms

696
Q

Cromolyn***

A

inhibits mast cell degranulation

697
Q

Clonidine and Guanfacine

A

Alpha 2 agonists
MOA: activate alpha2 receptors in presynaptic sympathetic neurons in the CNS - increase presynaptic negative feedback - decrease NE release - central vasodilation

decreases sympathetic outflow from the CNS

Uses: ADHD, hypertensive urgency, Tourette Syndrome

Adverse effects: orthostatic hypotension, HYPERTENSIVE CRISIS AFTER ABRUPT DISCONTINUATION, miosis, bradycardia

698
Q

DHP calcium channel blockers vs Non-DHP***

A

DHP:
Nifedipine and Amlodipine

Non-DHP:
Diltiazem and Verapamil

699
Q

Presbycusis

A

gradual insidious onset of bilateral hearing loss

700
Q

Parkinson’s Disease tx

A

Dopamine precursor:
L-Dopa, broken down to Dopamine via DOPA decarboxylase, can cross BBB unlike dopamine, used for bradykinetic sx

Decarboxylase inhibitors:
Carbidopa, used with L-dopa to decrease the peripheral conversion of L-Dopa to dopamine - increase bioavailability of L-dopa and decreases side effects

Dopamine agonists:
Non-ERGOT - Ropinirole, Pramipexole, Apomorphine, Rotigotine
ERGOT - Bromocriptine,

COMT inhibitors (Catechol-O-methyltransferase):
Entacapone and Tolcapone, decrease peripheral conversion of L-dopa
Tolcapone - increases central dopamine effect decreasing the need for a ton of L-dopa* monotherapy ineffective and needs to be treated with L-dopa

NMDA antagonists:
Amantidine, acts antagonistically at the glutamate NMDA receptors, increase dopamine release and decrease dopamine reuptake
Adverse effect: LIVEDO RETICULARIS!!

MAO-B inhibitors:
Rasagiline Salfanamide and Selegiline, selective inhibition of MOA-B, DECREASE OF BREAKDOWN OF DOPAMINE in brain, alternative to L-dopa tx for short term mild sx parkinsons

Anticholinergic drugs:
Benztropine Biperiden and Trihexyphenidyl, inhibition of excitatory cholinergic nerurons - decrease in acetylcholine
***benefits with tremors but doesn’t help with bradykinesia

701
Q

Acarbose and miglitol

A

alpha glucosidase inhibitor (brush border enzyme in intestine responsible for glucose and carb breakdown after eating)

decreases post prandial elevated glucose levels

Side effects: flatulence, diarrhea, elevated liver enzymes

DON’T USE WITH severe RENAL DISEASE PTs

702
Q

Sulfonylureas and Meglitinides

A

1st Gen: Chlorpropamide and TOLBUTAMIDE
2nd Gen: Glyburide, Glipizide, Glimepiride

MOA: blocks ATP sensitive potassium channels of pancreatic Beta cells - depolarization of cell membrane - calcium influx - insulin secretion

Side effects: HYPOGLYCEMIA, and 1st gen has disulfuram like reaction with alcohol

CONTRAINDICATIONS INCLUDE BETA BLOCKERS AS THEY WILL MASK SOME HYPOGLYCEMIC SX

Meglitinides: Repaglinide Nateglinide
similar to sulfonylureas

703
Q

Biguanides

A

Metformin

moa: enhances effect of insulin
inhibits mGPD (mitochondrial glycerophosphate dehydrogenase) - DECREASED HEPATIC GLUCONEOGENESIS and intestinal glucose absorption
increases peripheral insulin sensitivity - increase peripheral glucose uptake and glycolysis

METFORMIN ASSOCIATED LACTIC ACIdosis

704
Q

HIV Protease inhibitors

A

-navir
Lopinavir, Indinavir, Nelfinavir, Ritonavir

inhibition of Viral HIV-1 protease - inability to cleave viral polyproteins into functional units - generation of impaired viral proteins - production of immature virions

adverse effects: GI upset, NEPHROLITHIASIS, CRYSTAL INDUCED NEPHROPATHY, HEMATURIA, FAT ACCUMMULATION, HYPERGLYCEMIA, LIPODYSTROPHY
thrombocytopenia with indinavir
Ritonavir boosts effects

705
Q

Dopaminergic pathways and effects when effected

A

Mesocortical - decreased activity = “negative” sx: flat affect, limited speech

Mesolimbic - increased activity = “positive” sx: delusions, hallucinations

Nigrostriatal - Decreased activity = extrapyramidal sx: dystonia, akathisia, tardive dyskinesia, parkinsonism

tuberoinfundibular - Decreased activity = increased prolactin, sexual dysfunction, galactorrhea

706
Q

Akathisia

A

inability to remain physically still

707
Q

Tardive dyskinesia

A

face, body, or both make sudden movements you can’t control

most commonly caused by long term use of dopamine antagonists

708
Q

Chrohn’s tx

A

Mild to moderate:
controlled ileum released BUDESONIDE
corticosteroids

Moderate to Severe:
Oral systemic corticosteroids and Immunomodulator (azathioprine or ANTI-TNF-ANTIBODIES!!!!) or no corticosteroids and combine other two

Severe:
IV corticosteroids and Inflixumab

709
Q

anti-TNF-alpha antibodies

A

Chimeric: Infliximab

Humanic: Adalimumab, Golimumab, Certolizumab

Etanercept: DECOY RECEPTOR FOR TNF ALPHA

Indication: chronic inflammatory diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, psoriasis, chrohn disease

Side effects: TB REACTIVATION, drug induced Lupus

710
Q

trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole contraindication with Pregnancy? why?

A

Sulonamides displace unconjugated bilirubin from albumin causing hyperbilirubinemia and sometimes Kernicterus (brain damage from high bilirubin), DON’T TAKE DURING THIRD TRIMESTER

sometimes mother has leftover from prior UTI and uses it again during pregnancy

711
Q

Chronic vs Acute Gout tx

A

Purines - hypoxanthine - Xanthine (via xanthine oxidase) - Plasma uric acid (via xanthine oxidase) - filtered into kidney

Chronic gout drugs
1. Allopurinol - competitive inhibition of Xanthine oxidase - decreased conversion of hypoxanthine and xanthine to urate
increase concentrations of xanthine oxidase active metabolites, azathioprine, and 6-MP

  1. Probenecid - inhibits reabsorption of uric acid in proximal convoluted tubule
    can precipitate uric acid calculi or lead to sulfa allergy
    also inhibits organic anion transporter in the kidneys reducing the excretion of several drugs including penicillins
  2. Pegloticase
  3. Febuxostat

Acute
1. NSAIDs - use salicylates with caution, may decrease uric acid excretion

  1. Glucocorticoids - oral, intra-articular, or parenteral
  2. Colchicine - binds and stabilizes tubulin to inhibit microtubule polymerization, impairing neutrophil chemotaxis and degranulation
    Adverse effects: GI, meuromyopathic adverse effects, myelosuppression, nephrotoxicity
712
Q

Orlistat

A

inhibits gastric and pancreatic lipase - decrease breakdown and absorption of dietary fats

taken with fat-containing meals

clinical use: weight loss

Adverse effects: abd pain, flatulence, bowel urgency/frequent bowel movements, steatorrhea, decreased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins

713
Q

Bile acid resins

A

Cholestyramine, colesevelam, colestipol

MOA: disrupt eterohepatic bile acid circulation - compensatory increase conversion of cholesterol to bile - decrease intrahepatic cholesterol - increase LDL receptor recycling

Decrease in LDL, sligh increase in HDL and triglycerides

Adverse effects: GI upset, decrease absorption of other drugs and fat-soluble vitamins

714
Q

Fat Soluble Vitamins

A

A - retinol, retinal, retinaldehyde, retinoic acid

D - Calciferol

E - Tocopherol

K - phylloquinone, menaquinone

715
Q

Ezetimibe

A

prevents cholesterol absorption at small intestine brush border

decrease in LDL, slight increase/no effect on HDL, slight decrease/no effect on triglycerides

Adverse effects: rare increase in LFTs, diarrhea

716
Q

H2 blockers

A

Cimetidine, FAMOTIDINE, nizatidine

MOA: reversible block of histamine H2 receptors - decrease hydrogen secretion by parietal cells

Clinical use: peptic ulcer, gastritis, mild esophageal reflux

Adverse effects: CIMETIDINE is a potent inhibitor of cytochrome p450

take H2 blockers before you -DINE

717
Q

GI secretory products

A

Gastric Acid
Parietal cells, decrease stomach pH, increase with histamine/vagal stimulation (ACh) and gastrin

Intrinsic factor
Parietal cells, vitamin B12-binding protein (required for B12 uptake in terminal ileum),

Gastrin
G cells, promotes secretion of gastric acid

Cholecystokinin
I cells, causes increased pancreatic secretion/gallbladder contraction and decreased gastric emptying

Mucus and Bicarb
Mucous cells, protect epithelium from acidic environment

Pepsinogens
Chief cells, aid in protein digestion

718
Q

Anticoagulation regimens in A-fib and atrial flutter

A

DOACs - Direct oral anticoagulant binds to clotting factors
Dabigatran, Rivaroxaban, Apixaban, Edoxaban
Avoid iN PREGNANCY

Vitamin K antagonists
Warfarin
AVOID IN PREGNANCY

Heparin
unfractionated or LMWH (nnoxaparin, dalteparin
USE WITH PREGNANCY

719
Q

Metoclopramide

A

antiemetic

D2 antagonist, serotonin receptor antagonist

Central antiemetic effect in area postrema

Peripheral antiemetic effect in GI tract cause increase in gastric contractions, small bowel motility, and resting tone of lower esopageal sphincter

Adverse effects: OD CAN LEAD TO EXTRAPYRAMIDAL EFFECTS

720
Q

Amantadine

A

medication used for parkinson’s and antiviral agent
historically used to treat influenza

MOA: uncertain, thought to promote dopamine release while inhibiting reuptake thus increasing overall availability
Also antagonizes the NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptor

Adverse effects: livedo reticularis (mottled lacelike purplish discoloration of the skin)

721
Q

Hepatic Encephalopathy tx

A

Lactulose

acidifies colonic contents and reduces the absorption of ammonia from bowel

722
Q

Zileuton vs Zafirlukast

A

Zileuton blocks leukotrienes production

Zafirlukast blocks leukotrienes receptor

723
Q

Senna Glycoside

A

constipation caused by opiods tx

promotes peristalsis through enteric nerve stimulation

724
Q

Magnesium Citrate

A

draws water into lumen via osmosis

725
Q

Aminoglycoside resistance

A

transferase enzymes that cause inactivation of enzymatic modification

726
Q

Macrolide resistance

A

Methylation of 23s rRNA-binding site prevents drug binding

macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, streptogramins

727
Q

Class 1 anti arrythymic drugs A/B/C effects on action potential duration and effective refractory period

A

1A - Quinidine/Procainamide/Disopyramide
Increase action potential duration and effective refractory period

1B- Lidocaine/Phenytoin/Mexiletine
Decrease action potential duration

1C- Flecainide/Propafenone
significantly prolongs ERP in AV node and accessory bypass tracts

728
Q

Fibrates

A

Fenofibrate, Gemfibrozil

decrease LDL, incrase HDL, greatly decrease triglycerides

MOA: activate PPAR-alpha - upregulate LPL - increase triglyceride clearance

Adverse effects: myopathy (increased with statins), cholesterol gallstones (via inhibition of cholesterol 7alpha-hydroxylase)

729
Q

NRTIs (Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors)

A

Abacavir, Didanosine, Emtricitabine, Lamivudine, Stavudine, Tenofovir, Zidovudine

act as nucleoside anaolgs - competitive blockage of nucleoside binding to reverse transcriptase - inhibition of formation of 3 and 5 prime phosphodiester linkages - termination of the DNA chain - inhibition of RNA to DNA reverse transcription

Activation requires intracellular phosphorylation thus it is reliant on kinase availability and activity

Adverse effects: Mitochondrial toxicity (disruption of mitochondrial function leading to myopathy, peripheral neuuropathy, hepatic steatosis, lactic acidosis), HIV associated lipodystrophy (loss in face, buttocks, extremities but a gain within liver, muscles, abd, breasts, neck, upper back)

Tenofovir - nephrotoxicity, ATN
Abacavir - hypersensitivity in pt with HLA-B5701 pts*
Zidovudine - bone marrow suppression and neutropenia, DNA depleting mitochondrial myopathy with red “ragged” fiber appearance

730
Q

NNRTIs (NONnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors)

A

Delavirdine, Efavirenz, Nevirapine

noncompetitive inhibitors of viral reverse transcriptase at different location than NRTIs

DO NOT REQUIRE INTRACELLULAR PHOSPHORYLATION

Adverse Effects: hypersensitivity rash, and steven johnson syndrome

Nevirapine - hepatoxicity
Efavirenz - CNS toxicity and vivid disturbing dreams

731
Q

Leukotrienes vs Prostaglandins vs Prostacyclin vs Thromboxane

A

Linoleic acid (essential fatty acid found in cell membrane) broken down to Arachidonic acid and goes one of two ways
5-Lipoxygenase goes towards leukotrienes
Cox 1 and Cox 2 go to prostaglandin H2 which goes to either prostaglandins/Prostacyclin/or thromboxane (Thromboxane synthase)

Leukotrienes - promote chemotaxis and inflammation, vasoconstriction

Prostaglandins - vasodilation, increases uterine tone and softens cervix, raises body temperature,
-prost drugs
Thromboxane - vasoconstriction, promotes platelet aggregation

Prostacyclin - inhibits platelet activation and is a potent vasodilator

732
Q

Adenosine

A

activates Gi protein - inhibition of adeylate cyclase - decrease cAMP - deactivation of L-type calcium channels and activation of Potassium channels - Decrease calcium and increase potassium efflux - hyperpolarization - Transient AV node block (roughly 15 seconds) - acute termination of SVT

Adverse effects: IMPEDING DOOM!!!, FLUSHING, BRONCHOSPASMS, HYPOTENSION, CHEST PAIN

theophylline and caffeine lessen the effects due to being adenosine receptor antagonists

733
Q

Myocardial Action Potential

A

Myocardial Action Potential (myocardium, bundle of HIS, Purkinje Fibers)

Phase 0
Upstroke = action potential from pacemaker cell or adjacent cardiomyocyte causes transmembrane potential to rise above -90mV
Depolarization = fast voltage gated sodium channels open at -65mV - rapid sodium influx into the cell - TMP rises further until slightly above 0mV
most effected by Class 1 antiarrhythmics

Phase 1 (early repolarization)
Inactivation of voltage gated sodium channels
Transient potassium channels start to open (outward flow of potassium returns TMP to 0mV)

Phase 2 (plateau phase)
potassium efflux through delayed rectifer potassium channels and Calcium influx through voltage gated L-type calcium channels which triggers calcium release from the SR - contraction of myocyte
most effected by Class 4 antiarrhythmics

Phase 3 (rapid repolarization)
inactivation of calcium channels
Potassium efflux through delayed recitfier potassium channels continues: persistent potassium outflow of potassium exceeds calcium inflow and brings TMP back to -90mV
most effected by Class 3 antiarrhythmics

Phase 4 (resting phase)
resting membrane potential stable at -90mV due to constant outward flow of potassium through inward rectifier channels
sodium and calcium channels closed
most effected by Class 2 antiarrhythmics

734
Q

Pacemaker cells action potential

A

Pacemaker cells action potential (SA node and AV node)

Phase 0
Upstroke - at -40mV the L-type calcium channels open - TMP increases to +40mV
no rapid depolarization! because fast voltage gated sodiu channels are inactivated in pacemaker cells - results in slower conduction velocity between atria and ventricles

Phase 1- ABSENT

Phase 2 - ABSENT

Phase 3
closure of voltage gated calcium channels and opening of delayed rectifier potassium channels - potassium efflux (TMP returns to -60mV)

Phase 4
no resting phase
sympathetic stimulation - INCREASE CATIONS CHANNEL CONDUCTION - increase slope of phase 4 - increase heart rate
FUNNY CHANNELS!!!!

735
Q

Mifepristone and Misoprostol for pregnancy termination

A

Mifepristone - competitive inhibitor of progestins at progesterone receptors
Ulipristal is similar but used for emergency contraception

Misoprostol - PGE1 analog which increases production and secretion of gastric mucous barrier and decreases acid production ALSO ripens cervix and increased uterine tone so it’s used in pregnancy termination

Progesterone is maintained in pregnancy but use of Mifepristone interupts progesterone effects and Misoprostol then expels any uterine contents

736
Q

Homocystinuria

A

differentiate with ehlers danlos and marfans

deficiency of enzyme CYSTATHIONE SYNTHASE (homocysteine to cystathione), METHIONINE SYNTHASE (homocysteine to methionine), or MTHFR (METHYLENETETRAHYDROFOLATE REDUCTASE)
all forms can accumulate homocysteine

AR

Clinical Features: growth faltering, developmental delays, Marfanoid features, DOWNWARD AND INWARD SUBLUXATION OF EYES, progressive intellectual disability, osteoporosis, cardiovascular complications

DX: elevated homocysteine in urine and serum
urine sodium nitroprusside test (urine changes color to an intense red from excess homocysteine
Methionine levels depends on enzyme deficiency

737
Q

Cystinuria

A

accumulation of cysteine in the urine and bladder due to disruption of amino acid transport in PCT and intestine

AR

amino acids COAL (cysteine, ornithine, arginine, and lysine)

impaired reabsorption of COAL

frequently forms hexagonal cysteine stones

738
Q

Alkaptonuria

A

inherited genetic disorder characterized by a mutation in the HGD gene and subsequent homogentisic acid dioxygenase deficiency and impaired tyrosine catabolism

AR

lack of functional homogentisic acid dioxygenase
accumulation of homogetisate

Clinical Features: urine turns black when standing for periods of time, arthritis, nephrolithiasis

739
Q

Maple Syrup Urine Disease MSUD

A

impaired breakdown of branch chained amino acids

AR

absent or deficient branched-chain alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase leads to impaired degradation of BCAA (leucine, Valine, isoleucine) - accumulation of alpha-ketoacid formation

CLinical Features: vomiting, lethargy, poorfeeding, SWEET SMELLING URINE, INTELLECTUAL DISABILITY

Dx: elevated levels of alpha-ketoacids in serum (especially leucine)

Tx: supplementation with thiamine

740
Q

Phenylketouria

A

AR

accumulation of phenylalanine
MOST COMMON: due to deficiency in liver enzyme PAH (phenylalanine hydroxylase) - impaired conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine and tyrosine becomes nutrtionally essential
Least Common: tetrahyrdobiopterin deficiency (malignant PKU) which is a cofactor for phenylalanine metabolsim, due to deficiency with dihydropteridine reductase (normally

Excess phenylalanine is transformed to phenylketone metabolites that are excreted in urine

CLinical features: MUSTY ODOR, growth restriction, seizures

Dx: phenylketone metabolites in urine, newborn screening for increased phenylalanine in serum 2-3 days post birth, hyperphenylalaninemia

Tx: low phenylalanine diet and high tyrosine diet

741
Q

Hartnup Disease

A

defect in renal and intestinal transport of neutral amino acids (tryptophan)

AR

impaired sodium dependent amino acid transporter on enterocytes and Proximal renal tubular cells - decreased renal and intestinal absorption of tryptophan - inability to synthesis vitamin B3 (niacin)

CLinical features: niacin deficiency sx such as PELLAGRA (dermatitis, glossitis, diarrhea, dementia)

Dx: increased neutral amino acids in urine

Tx: high protein diet and niacin supplementation

742
Q

Osteoporosis tx

A

Bisphosphanates - see above card

Nonbisphosphanates

Denosumab - monoclonal antibody against the Receptor Activator of Nuclear Factor -kB ligand, targets RANKL by mimicking osteoprotegrin - interference with osteoclast maturation - decrease osteoclast activity

PTH and PTH related peptide analogs (teriparatide) - recombinant human PTH that increases osteoblastic activity - increased bone growth

Raloxifene - can be used at pt with increased risk of breast cancer, SERM (selective estrogen receptor modulator), increased risk of venothromboembolism

Calcitonin - Postmenopausal osteoporosis, inhibits bone resorption

743
Q

Flucytosine

A

anti fungal

converted to 5-fluorouracil by fungal cytosine deaminase thereby inhibiting DNA and RNA synthase

adverse effects: bone marrow suppression

744
Q

Renal Artery Stenosis tx to avoid?

A

ACE and ARB

stenosis leads to less perfusion of kidney - response is elevated renin - angiotensinogen - aldosterone to help reprofuse kidney

stoping the ACE and ARB would stop kidney trying to get itself more bloodflow

745
Q

Grapefruit juice for pt taking tricyclic antidepressants

A

QT PROLONGATION

746
Q

Griseofulvin

A

binds to keratin precursor cells
accumulation of keratin rich tissues (hair nails)
entry into fungal cells
interference with microtubule formation specifically the alpha/beta tubulin dimers and disrupts the spindle apparatus
disruption of fungal mitosis

Clinical use: tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) tinea corporis (ringworm)

Adverse Effects: hepatotoxicity, teratogenicity, DISULFURAM LIKE REACTION WHEN TAKEN WITH ETOH (flushing, tachycardia, hypotension)

747
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

binds 50s subunit - blockage of peptidyltransferase - inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis

Uses: meningitis caused by H. influenzae/N. meningitidis/S. pneumoniae
Ricketssia infections (rocky mountain spotted fever caused by Rickettsia rickettsii)

Adverse Effects: APLASTIC ANEMIA, GREY BABY SYNDROME

Contraindications: pregnancy and infancy

748
Q

Medication induced fetal abnormalities (renal dysplasia, neural tube defects, congenital goiter, cleft palate, ebstein anomaly, ototoxicity, cartilage damage, inhibition of bone growth, basal ganglia damage, limb malformation)

A

Renal dysplasia - ACE inhibitors

Neural Tube Defects - Valproic Acid, CARBAMAZEPINE, methotrexate, sulfa-trimeth

Congenital Goiter - radioactive iodine, potassium iodide, propylthiouracil

Cleft Palate - antiepileptic drugs (carbamazepine)

Ebstein anomaly - Lithium

Ototoxicity - aminoglycosides

Cartilage damage - Fluoroquinolones

Inhibition of bone growth - tetracyclines (discoloration of teeth)

Basal Ganglia damage - sulfamethoxazole (binds albumin can displace unconjugated bilirubin, deposition of bilirubin into basal ganglia)

Limb Malformation - Thaialomide (used for nause in pregnancy awhile ago)

umbilical hernia and scalp lesion - methimazole

749
Q

Oral Nitrates

A

-nitrate or -nitro in name

exogenous supply of NO - stimulates guanlyl cyclase to make cGMP - activates protein kinase G - increases myosin light chain phosphatase activity - decreased phosphorylated myosin - smooth muscle relaxation

Peripheral vasodilation, decreases preload and improves myocardial perfusion
decreased afterload - reduces contraction effort - decreases myocardial oxygen demand
greater vasodilatory effect on veins compared to arteries EXCEPT SODIUM NITROPRUSSIDE
Coronary dilation
Anginal pain relief

Adverse effects: HYPOTENSION, HEADACHE, CYANIDE TOXICITY (inhibition of mitochondrial cytochrome C oxidase in electron transport chain)

750
Q

Anti-Coagulant OD fixes (warfarin, Heparin, Factor Xa inhibitors, fibrinolytics)

A

Warfarin - FFP for immediate and Vitamin K for later

Heparin - Protamine Sulfate

Factor Xa inhibitors (rivaroxaban, apixaban) - Andexanet alfa

Fibrinolytics - Aminocaproic acid

751
Q

Medications causing gynecomastia

A

Ketoconazole - anti fungal agent
Finasteride - 5-alpha reductase inhibitor
Hormone replacement therapy (estrogen, progesterone)
Spironolactone (potassium sparing drug)
Anti psychotics (haloperidol and risperidone)
H2 receptor antagonists (cimetidine and rantidine)

752
Q

Direct Parasympathomimetics and effects on M2/M3/nicotinic receptors (cholinergic agonists)

A

DIRECT AGONISTS:
BETHANECHOL, Carbachol, Cevemeline, PILOCARPINE, Methacholine
MOA: bind to muscarinic/nicontinic AChR and act as direct agonists

INDIRECT AGONISTS:
Pyridostigmine, Donepezil, Rivastigmine, Galantamine
MOA: inhibit AChE decreasing breakdown of ACh and increasing ACh levels
Tx: Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine OD

M2 - heart - decreased HR and atrial contractility along with slowing down AV conduction

M3 (Gq pathway) - Smooth muscle - increase GI peristalsis, increase detrusor muscle tone increasing bladder contraction, increase bronchial secretions and bronchoconstriction, MIOSIS, vasodilation
Exocrine glands - increase sweat and gastric acid secretion

Nicotinic - skeletal muscle - increase muscle contraction and tone

753
Q

Pre-treatment before Niacin to reduce facial redness and flushing?

A

Aspirin

754
Q

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia tx?

A

stop heparin and start a direct thrombin inhibitor

755
Q

Flumazenil

A

reversal agent for benzodiazepine intoxication
competitive antagonist of GABA receptors

756
Q

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome (Gastrinoma)

A

neuroendocrine tumors of the GI tract that secrete Gastrin
Hypergastrinemia - stimulates parietal cells - gastric acid hypersecretion which leads to: Peptic Ulcer Disease
Inactivation of Pancreatic enzymes - diarrhea/steatorrhea - malabsoption

Clinical Features: abd pain, diarrhea, steatorrhea, weight loss

CAN BE CAUSED BY MEN1 ISSUES SO LOOK FOR THOSE FEATURES AS Well

Dx: multiple ulcers and thick gastric folds

757
Q

Phases of Uterine cycle (Estrogen, Progesterone, FSH, LH levels as well)

A

Phases of Ovarian Cycle:
Follicular - FSH and LH are steady then a sudden spike in LH at Ovulation
Luteal - LH spike decreases and both are back to normal levels

Phases of Uterine Cycle:
Menses - shedding of uterine wall, Estrogen and Progesterone low
Proliferative - Estrogen slowly rises and peaks with LH at Ovulation, Progesterone starts to increase right before Ovulation
Secretory - Progesterone continues to rise, Estrogen gets halfway between peak and normal levels, Corpus Luteum gives extra bump to estrogen
Menses again once Progesterone and Estrogen go back to normal levels

Contraceptives have estrogen and progesterone - give negative feedback to LH and FSH - without FSH feedback the Estrogen will not increase to the required level for midcycle LH surge thus preventing ovulation

758
Q

-nib drugs

A

BCR-ABL and c-KIT inhibitors
Imatinib, Dasatinib, Nilotinib
inhibition of autophosphorylation and activation of multiple proteins by TYROSINE KINASES
Tx: CML, BCR-ABL positive ALL, Kit (CD117) positive GI stromal tumors

EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors
Erlotinab, Gefitinib, Afatinib
inhibition of HER1/EGFR tyrosine kinase
Tx: NSCLC

Janus Kinase inhibitors
Ruxolitinib
inhibition of JAK1 and JAK2 kinase - reduced activation of hematopoetic precursors
Tx: metastatic breast cancer

759
Q

Germ Cell Tumors and Markers

A

Seminoma/Ovarian Dysgerminoma - malignant, painless, homogenous testicular enlargement, MOST COMMON, “fired egg” appearance of cells on histology, INCREASED PLAP/normal to increased beta-hCG

Embryonal Carcinoma - malignant, painful, hemorrhagic mass with necrosis, Increased beta-hCG and normal AFP when pure but has increased AFP when mixed (which is most of the time)

Teratoma - Mature teratoma may be malignant in adult males but is benign in women and children, normal PLAP/AFP/bHCG (could have elevated AFP)

Yolk Sac Tumor/Endodermal sinus tumor - malignant, aggressive, yellow mucinous tumor, SCHILLER-DUVAL BODIES RESEMBLE GLOMERULI, INCREASED AFP is highly characteristic, MOST COMMON TUMOR IN CHILDREN UNDER 3y/o

Choriocarcinoma - malignant, disordered syncytiotrophoblastic and cytotrophoblastic elements, hematogenous metastases to lungs and brain, INCREASED HCG, may produce gynecomastia/sx of hyperthyroidism (beta subunit to hCG is similar to TSH)

760
Q

Non-Germ Cell Tumors and Markers

A

Leydig Cell Tumor - mostly benign, golden brown color, contains REINKE CRYSTALS (eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions), produces androgens and estrogens - precosious puberty/gynecomastia

Sertoli Cell Tumor/Androblastoma - arises from sex cord stroma, mostly benign

Primary Testicular Lymphoma - malignant, aggressive, typically diffuse large B cell lymphoma, often bilateral, most common testicular cancer in males great than 60y/o

761
Q

hypoglycemia effet on pancreatic Beta islet cells

A

less insulin secreted

during hypoglycemia the ATP gated potassium channels stay open and the membrane fails to depolarize, reducing calcium entry, decreasing activation of voltage gated calcium channels and decreasing insulin secretion by islet cells

762
Q

Epidural Hematoma

A

middle meningeal artery
between skull and dura mater
lucid interval, neurologic deterioration, CRANIAL NERVE III PALSY
CT: biconvex lesion, does not cross suture lines

763
Q

Subdural Hematoma

A

Coritcal Bridging veins
Between dura and arachnoid mater
Gradual onset (days to months)
CT: crescent shaped lesion, crosses suture lines

764
Q

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

aneurism usually at branch points of anterior communicating artery
between arachnoid and pia mater
rapid time course, described by patients as “worst headache of my life”
CT: blood within the ventricles

765
Q

Interparechymal hemorrhage

A

most common cause is hypertension
Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysm
most often occur in basal putamen/globus pallidus of basal ganglia

766
Q

beta-hCG/TSH/LH/FSH similarites and differences

A

all have same alpha subunit

beta subunit of beta-hCG and LH are similar

LH functions to control the menstrual cycle and cause ovulation, specifically promoting follicle rupture

beta-hCG functions to maintain corpus luteum until placenta is formed to take over for corpus luteum

767
Q

How does HPV cause cancer?

A

E6 and E7 productes produces by HPV all the cell to cycle out of control, despite damage to DNA

768
Q

Thiazide short vs long term effects

A

lowers blood pressure by blocking Na/Cl cotransporter in DCT

Acute effects are Sodium Diuresis - increased fluid loss to urine - loss of ECF and plasma volume = diminished venous return/lower cardiac output/decreased blood pressure

After 4-6 weeks the plasma volume will return to it’s pre medication values

Long run effects of Thiazides are VASODILATION but cause is not fully understood

769
Q

Cluster Headaches

A

episodes of headaches lasting 15 minutes to 3 hours

usually unilateral periorbital/temporal/orbital

associated with tearing, conjunctival injection, rhinorrhea, miosis, and ptosis
associated with 2ndary activation of the trigeminal autonomic reflex probably via trigeminal hypothalamic pathway

Tx: Acute - Sumatriptan, 100% Oxygen
Prophylaxis - Verapamil

770
Q

Tension headaches

A

bilateral
greater than 30 minutes and usually 4-6 hours
steady “bandlike” pain, no more than one of photophobia or phonophobia
no nausea or vomiting
most common primary headache and more common in females

Tx: Acute - NSAIDs, analgesics, acetaminophen
Prophylaxis - TCAs, behavioral therapy

771
Q

Migraines

A

unilateral
lasting 4-72 hours
pulsating pain with nausea, photophobia, and/or phonophobia, possible “aura”,
due to irritation of CN V, meninges, or blood vessels
more common in females

POUND - Pulsatile, One-day duration, Unilateral, Nausea, Disabiling

Tx: Acute - NSAIDs, triptans, dihydroergotamine, antiemetics
Prophylaxis - lifestyle changes, beta blockers, amitriptyline, topiramate, valproate, botulinum toxin, anti-CGRP monoclonal antibodies

772
Q

Male with headaches and peripheral vision loss?

A

PROLACTINOMA YOU FUCKING IDIOT

proliferation of lactotrophs in anterior pituitary gland
headache, bitermporal hemanopsia, galactorrhea, impotence or decreased libido

773
Q

Pepsin

A

protease located in stomach

pepsinogen activated to pepsin via acid in stomach

preferably cleaves bonds involving phenylalanine, tyrosine, and leucine

774
Q

Enterokinase

A

aka enteropeptidase
allows activation of several digestion enzymes for degrading proteins and complex lipids

on plasma membrane of enterocytes in duodenum that activates trypsinogen to trypsin

active trypsin then activates pancreatic enzymes like lipase, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase which are required for breaking down proteins and complex lipids

775
Q

Chymotrypsinogen

A

pancreatic secretion to duodenum

activated to chymotrypsin by trypsin

cleaves bonds of the C-terminal of basic amino acids lysine, and arginine

776
Q

Absence seizures tx

A

Ethosuximide

blocks T-type calcium channels

777
Q

Amylase

A

enzyme involved in digestion of carbohydrates in small intestine

produced by salivary glands and pancreas

elevated in acute pancreatitis

778
Q

Diabetic nephropathy tx for pt with HTN?

A

ACE or ARBs

reduce angiotensinogen II production and decreasing intraglomerular pressure by preferentially dilating the efferent arteriole

779
Q

Cytarabine

A

inhibition of DNA polymerase

incorporation of pyrimidine analog into DNA - decreased DNA synthesis

tx: leukemias and lymphomas

Adverse effects: Myelosuppression, Megaloblastic anemia

780
Q

5-fluorouracil

A

Capecitabine - prodrug of 5-FU

activation of 5-FU to 5-FdUMP
complex formation with thymidylate synthase and folic acid - inhibition of thymidylate synthase - decreased dTMP production - decreased DNA production - decreased DNA synthesis
incorporation of pyrimidine analog into DNA and RNA - decreased DNA and RNA synthesis
Leucovorin enhances the antineoplastic efficacy of 5-FU

Adverse: myelosuppression, Palmar-Plantar erythrodysestesia (hand foot syndrome)

781
Q

Bleomycin

A

induces formation of free radicals - breakage of DNA strand - cell cycle arrest at G2 and M phase

uses: testicular cancer and hodgkin lymphoma

Adverse Effects: Lung injury (pulmonary fibrosis, Bronchiolitis Obliterans, Acute Pneumonitis, ARDs), hyperpigmentation of the skin, minimal myelosuppression

782
Q

Hydroxyurea

A

ribonucleotide reducatase inhibitor - decreased DNA replication in S phase - massive cytoreduction
uses: CML, polycythemia vera, essential thrombocytopenia

increases production of HbF
used for sickle cell crisis and prophylaxis

Adverse: myelosuppression, megaloblastic anemia

783
Q

Meigs syndrome

A

abd fullness, ovarian mass, ascites, pleural effusion (hydrothorax)

associated wth benign ovarian fibroma

CLASSIC HISTOLOGIC FINDING OF OVARIAN FIBROMA IS COLLAGEN-RICH, MONOMORPHIC SPINDLE CELLS

784
Q

CSF findings in meningitis

A

Bacterial - increased opening pressure, increased polymorphonuclear neutrophils, increased protein, decreased glucose

Fungal/TB - increased opening pressure, increased lymphocytes, increased protein, decreased glucose

Viral - increased or normal opening pressure, increased lymphocytes, increased or normal protein, normal glucose

785
Q

Bacterial Meningitis tx

A

third generation cephalosporin
usually ceftriaxone with vancomycin

inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

add ampicillin if Listeria is suspected

786
Q

Cause of meningitis in newborn (0-6months)

A

Group B Streptococcus, E. coli, Listeria

incidence of group B strep in neonates has decreased due to screening and antibiotic prophylaxis in pregnancy

787
Q

Cause of meningitis in children (6months - 6 years)

A

S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, H influenzae type b, Group B strep, Enteroviruses

incidence of H influenzae has decreased due to conjugate vaccinations (usually seen in unimmunized children

788
Q

Cause of meningitis in 6-60y/o

A

S pneumoniae, N meningitidis, Enteroviruses, HSV

789
Q

Cause of meningitis in 60+ y/o

A

S penumoniae, N meningitidis, H influenzae type b, Group B Streptococcus, Listeria

790
Q

Zero order drug elimination

A

PEA
Phenytoin
Ethanol
Aspirin - high dose

791
Q

Most common cause of Mitral Stenosis in immigrant

A

Rheumatic heart disease resulting from antibody corss-reactivity between bacterial antigen and the mitral valve (molecular mimicry)

developing country put her at risk of rheumatic fever as a child

792
Q

Signaling pathways of Endocrine hormones

A

Intracellular receptors - Progesterone, estrogen, tetosterone, cortisol, aldosterone, t3/t4, vitamin D

cAMP - ACTH, FSH, LH, TSH, ADH, PTH, GLUCAGON!!!, histamine

cGMP - BNP, ANP, EDRF, NO

IP3 - oxytocin, TRH, GnRH

Receptor Tyrosine Kinase - EGF, VEGF, FGF, RET, Insulin

Nonreceptor tyrosine kinase - erythropoietin, thrombopoietin, G-CSF, prolactin, cytokines

793
Q

Cholecystokinin

A

promotes gallbladder contraction (increased pain in pt with gallstones)

794
Q

Acute Mountain Sickness cause and tx

A

results from abrupt arrival at high altitude with resultant hypoxemia
low partial pressure of oxygen at higher altitudes

to adapt to high altitude RBCs increase production of 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate which shifts the oxygen hemoglobin curve to the right and releases more oxygen into the tissues

795
Q

Lipofuscin

A

brown pigment deposited in tissues from normal again process

composed of perioxidized and polymerized membrane lipids formed from autophosphagocytosed organelles

combination of atrophic heart and lipofuscin is referred to as brown atrophy

796
Q

factor V leiden

A

DNA point mutation substitutes guanine for adenine - GLutamine made instead of arginine near polypeptide cleavage site of factor V

result is that factor V avoids cleavage by APC and stays active - activates prothrombin - increase in thrombotic events

cerebral vein thrombosis and recurrent pregnancy loss

797
Q

riedel thyroiditis

A

rare form of autoimmune thyroiditis

histology: inflammatory infiltration and fibrosclerotic changes to thyroid tissue

painless fixed hard (stone like) goiter that may COMPRESS SURROUNDING TISSUES

798
Q

Tissue factor

A

cofactor used to begin extrinsic pathway of coagulation cascade

activated through endothelial injury

activates FVII to FVIIa and makes FVIIa complex which activates factors X and IX which activates factor II (prothrombin) to Factor IIa (thrombin) which creates fibrin molecules that interlink platelets in a clot

799
Q

GLP-1 analogs

A

exenatide and liraglutide

increase glucose dependent insulin release and decrease glucagon secretion
delays gastric emptying providing pt with a full feeling effect

800
Q

sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors

A

canagliflozin and dapagliflozin

block reabsorption of glucose in renal tubules

801
Q

Thiazolidinediones

A

pioglitazone and rosiglitazone

activate peroxisome proliferator activated receptors to increase target cell response to insulin

Adverse Effects: FLUID RETENTION and weight gain, increase risk of heart failure,

rosiglitazone - increased risk of cardiac failure
can use in pt with CKD

802
Q

Calcium/Phosphate/ALP values with Osteoporosis, Primary and 2ndary hyperparathyroidism, Paget’s disease, and metastatic bone cancer

A

Osteoporosis - normal on all
loss of trabecular and cortical bone mass and is commonly from increased bone reabsorption

Primary hyperPTH - elevated calcium, low phosphate, mildly elevated ALP
high PTH causes increase in calcium and compensation bone turnover slightly increases ALP

2ndary hyper PTH - low calcium, high phosphate and ALP
usually due to CKD which leads to high phosphate and low calcium, high PTH leading to high bone turnover which gives high ALP

Paget’s - normal calcium and phosphate with elevated ALP
due to high osteoclast activity triggering high osteoblast activity

Metastatic Bone Cancer - high calcium, low phosphate, high ALP common in metastatic bone cancer

803
Q

Alport syndrome

A

usually presents in childhood with combination of ocular defects, deafness, and hematuria

804
Q

Leprosy

A

Caused by Mycobacterium leprae - obligate intracellular acid fast bacillus that can’t be cultured and thrives in cold temperatures

Lepromatous leprosy
increased Th2 response with reciprocal inhibition of Th1 response - inadequate cell-mediated immune response - many lepra bacilli
Nerve lesions are result of M. leprae invasion
Clinical features:
Cutaneous - multiple symmetrical macules/plaques/nodules, generalized involvement, facial nodules may coalesce (leonine facies)
Nerve involvement - acral/distal/symmetrical asthesias, usually begins with stocking glove pattern and spreads proximally

Tuberculoid leprosy
increased Th1 response - strong cell mediated immune response - granuloma with epithelioid cells and lymphocytes but few or no leprae bacillus
Clinical Features:
Cutaneous - few/maybe 1-3 lesions, lesions are dry/scaly/anhidrotic, HAIR LOSS, HYPERESTHESIA OF SKIN LESION IS COMMON and occurs early

hypopigmented skin lesions, nerve thickening, peripheral nerve palsies

Dx: skin scraping, punch biopsy, Lepromin test

Tx: Dapsone and rifampin for both add Clofazimine for lepromatous

805
Q

HLA B-27 diseases

A

ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, reactive arthritis, arthritis associated with IBD

806
Q

Renal Papillary Necrosis causes

A

NSAIDs, sickle cell

hematuria with no casts, flank pain, no stones on CT, no hydronephrosis

807
Q

Ganciclovir, Valganciclovir

A

guanosine analogue

incorporation of phosphorylated drug into the replicating viral DNA strand - inhibition of DNA polymerase - termination of viral DNA synthesis

Systemic tx of choice for CMV retinitis (fluffy yellow/white lesions of the retina with small areas of hemorrhage and CD4+ count of 35) in immunocompromised pts
CMV prophylaxis in transplant recipients

Adverse effects: myelotoxicity - pancytopenia, nephrotoxicity

808
Q

Neuraminidase inhibitors

A

Oseltamivir, Zanamivir

prevent release of viral progeny

used for both tx and prophylaxis of influenza A and B

809
Q

Macrolides***

A

***can potentiate the myopathy effects of statins

810
Q

Gabapentin and Pregabalin

A

anticonvulsant used to treat neuropathy in pts with DM

gamma-aminobutyric acid analog but doesn’t bind to gamma-aminobutyric sites

inhibits pre-synaptic calcium channels preventing release of excitatory glutamate and thereby providing analgesia

811
Q

Terbinafine

A

antifungal

inhibits squalene epoxidase and prevents sterol synthesis

812
Q

Cushingoid effects

A

hypertension, acne, hirsutism, striae, hypertrichosis, weight gain, mood swings (depression, agitation), type 2 DM, immunosuppression, osteoporosis

long term corticosteroid use

813
Q

MAO inhibitors

A

Selegiline, Tranylcypromine, Phenelzine, Isocarboxazid

nonselective inhibition of monoamine oxidase - decreased breakdown of epinephrine, NE, serotonin, and dopamine - increased levels of those hormones

***Selegiline - Selective MAO-B inhibitor - mainly decreases breakdown of Dopamine

Uses: Major depressive disorder (3rd or 4th line therapy), Selegiline for parkinson disease, Anxiety

Adverse effects: HTN CRISIS WITH INGESTION OF FOODS CONTAINING TYRAMINE, CNS Stimulation

814
Q

nitrofurantoin

A

1st line tx for asymptomatic UTI in pregnant women

damages bacterial DNA and ribosomal proteins after intracellular reduction into reactive molecules

815
Q

Tardive dys

A
816
Q

Cocaine

A

blocks reuptake of NE, dopamine, and serotonin by presynaptic transporter pumps in central and peripheral system

Clinical Features: Sympathetic system overactivation, psychomotor agititation, HTN, tachycardia, headache, MYDRIASIS, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage or infarction, cardiac arrhythmias, respiratory failure, rhabodomylysis

817
Q

Phencyclidine

A

blocks NMDA receptors

CLinical Features: aggressive or reckless behavior, nystagmus, seizures, hallucinations, tachycardia, HTN

818
Q

Botulinum Toxin

A

prevents vesicular fusion by cleaving a component of the soluble N-ethylmaleimide sensitive factor attachment protein receptor complex

inhibits release of ACh at the presynpatic terminus of cholinergic motor and sensory neurons

Clinical Features: descending flaccid paralysis

819
Q

Prazosin

A

selective A1 antagonists

Uses: HTN and BPH

Adverse Effects: may produce first dose orthostatic hypotension, syncope, headache

820
Q

methylphenidate

A

increased release and decreased reuptake of NE and dopamine

Clinical features: improved concentration and cognition

Adverse Effects: decreased appetite, weight loss, HTN, tachycardia, insomnia

821
Q

Cilistatin coadministration purpose?

A

inhibits renal metabolism of drugs specifically in proxmal renal tubule enzyme dehydropeptidase-1

use less with pt in renal failure as the Cilastatin will accumulate and caused nephrotoxicity

822
Q

Shingles Virus and tx

A

Reactivation of Herpes Zoster virus

Tx: Vavcyclovir - prodrug of nucleoside analog that must be activated by viral thymidine kinase
converted to acyclovir in liver - when activated forms a guanosine analog that results in chain termination when read by DNA polymerase

823
Q

Miosis vs Mydiasis

A

Miosis - constriction
Alpha 1 antagonists - no effects on ciliary muscle = no blurry vision (normal accomodation)
M3 agonists - ciliary muscle contracts “accomodates” for near vision but can’t relax = blurred far vision

Mydriasis - dilation of pupil
Alpha 1 agonists - no effect on ciliary muscle = no blurred vision
M3 antagonists - ciliary muscle relaxes to “accomodate” for far vision but can’t contract = blurred near vision

824
Q

Acetominophen

A

Tylenol aka N-acetyl-p-aminophenol

reversibly inhibits COX (mainly in CNS)

Adverse effects: Hepatotoxicity

Antidote: NAC or N-acetylcysteine

Toxic product accumulation with OD is N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone

825
Q

SNRIs

A

Venlafaxine, Duloxetine, Desvenlafaxine, Levomilnacipran, Milnacipran

inhibition of serotonin and Neroepinephrine reuptake in synaptic cleft

Uses: Major depressive disorder, generalized anxiety, neurpathic pain (DM)

Adverse effects: similar to SSRIs, stimulant effect, HTN, insomnia, nausea

Risk of serotonin syndrome
Venlafaxine used for unipolar depressive disorder but don’t mistake bipolar otherwise provoke mania state

826
Q

TCAs

A

inhibition of serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake in synaptic cleft

Secondary amines - Nortryptyline, Desipramine, Protriptyline, Amoxapine
Tertiary amines - Amitriptyline, Clomimipramine, Doxepin, Imipramine, Trimipramine

Adverse Effects: orthostatic hypotension, Prolonged QT SYNDROME, ANTICHOLINERGIC EFFECTS

827
Q

Mirtazapine

A

atypical antidepressant

selective a2 adrenergic antagonist - increased serotonin and norepinephrine release
5HT-2 and 5HT3 receptor antagonists - increased effect of serotonin on free 5HT receptors
H1 antagonists

Uses: Major Depressive disorder - especially pts that are underweight and/or have insomnia

Adverse effects: increased appetite and weight gain, SEDATION, increased triglycerides and cholesterol,

828
Q

Pre-term Delivery given glucocorticoid. Why?

A

promotes surfactant production

829
Q

Heat Exhaustion phsiology. Body is diaphoretic and flushed, including palms and soles. Why?

A

exposure to high temperature while doing extrenuous activity

thermoregulation of palms and soles is mediated through decreased sympathetic activity which causes reduced vasoconstriction, incerased blood flow, and increased heat dispersion

830
Q

Secretin

A

released by S cells in duodenum

increase secretion of bile, pancreatic secretion of bicarbonate
decrease secretion of gastric acid

stimulated by postprandial fatty acids/glucose/amino acids entering small intestine

831
Q

Nerve Fibers (A fibers, C fibers, Meissner corpuscles, Pacinian corpuscles, Merkel discs, Ruffini corpuscles)

A

A Fibers - light touch, proprioception, immediate pain response
A-alpha - sensory, heavily myelinated, large diameter, innervate propriocepters and mechanoreceptors
A-Beta - sensory, heavily myelinated, medium diameter, innervate propriocepters
A-Delta - sensory, heavily myelinated, small diameter, innervate mechanorecptors/nocireceptors/thermoreceptors (RESPONSIBLE FOR WITHDRAWAL REFLEX WHEN TOUCHING HOT SURFACE)
A-Gamma - sensory, heavily myelinated, small diameter, innervate muscle spindle and respond to stretch

C Fibers - itch, temperature, delayed pain
Unmyelinated and contduct slower than A and B fibers

Meissner Corpuscles - fine touch

Pacinian corpuscles - pressure and vibration

Merkel Discs - static touch and position

Ruffini corpuscles - sense joint angle change, pressure, slippage of objects along surface of skin

832
Q

Respiratory stimulations (COPD exacerbation)

A

Low arteriolar partial pressure of Oxygen

Most pts the high partial pressure of CO2 is what promotes the respiratory drive but with chronic hypercapnia (chronic COPD) it’s different as the respiratory center has become tolerant of the high CO2 partial pressure

Drive is also influenced by pH, pain, and fever*

833
Q

Kwashiorkor disease

A

sever malnutrition marked by muscle atrophy, peripheral pitting edema, abdomen distention, hepatomegaly

834
Q

Ear Anatomy for hearing loss and vertigo

A

Cranial nerve VIII compression - unilateral hearing loss and vertigo

Utricle and Saccule degeneration - vertigo

Cochlear nuclei trauma - unilateral hearing loss

Organ of Corti hairs:
Proximal hair damage - high pitched hearing
Distal hair damage - low pitched hearing

***Prebycusis is loss of hair cells in proximal region of organ of Corti resulting in bilateral high pitched hearing loss (

835
Q

Neurophysin I and II

A

Neurophysins transport proteins from hypothalamus to posterior pituitary storage

Neurophysin I transports Oxytocin

Neurophysin II transports ADH (vasopressin)

836
Q

von Willbrand disease

A

normal platelets
increased bleeding time
normal PT
normal or increased PTT

functions for platelet adhesion and a protein carrier for factor VIII

837
Q

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

A

decreased platelets
increased bleeding time
normal PT
normal PTT

838
Q

Serum vs Plasma

A

Serum - product of centrifugation AFTER COAGULATION

Plasma - product of centrifugation of anticoagulated whole blood
contains clotting factors and fibrinogen

RBCs, WBCs, and platelets are seperated from both during centrifugation
Albumin and immunoglobulins are present in both after centrifugation

839
Q

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

A

N. meningitidis causing meningitis can lead to adrenal hemorrhage

Sx: Hypotension, Hypoglycemia, Hyponatremia, Hyperkalemia, positive Brudzinski sign (neck flexion = hip/knee flexion),

840
Q

Leptin

A

endogenous endocrine hormone

high BMI, food intake, glucose and insulin have positive effects on levels of leptin

responsible for appetite suppression

Ghrelin is opposite

841
Q

Congenital hypothyroidism

A

iodine diet deficiency

cognitive and growth delay, umbilical hernia, goiter, short limbs, reduced bone age, coarse facial features, macroglossia

842
Q

Vagal Stimulation

A

Carotid massage

stimulate parasympathetic nervous system, which communicates with the SA node of the heart through the vagus nerve to slow the rate of conduction

843
Q

Mittelschmerz

A

unilateral, dull, achy pain (seldom severe) initiated after rupture of mature follicle during ovulation in the middle of menstrual cycle

rupture may cause bleeding and release of prostaglandins that in turn irritate peritoneum which brings the dull/achy pain

844
Q

Incretin

A

hormone produced in the gut in response to food

promotes insulin release

845
Q

Purkinje Cells

A

send axonal projections transmitting cerebellar cortical activity to deep cerebellar nuclei

inhibitory cells

primarily release GABA (inhibitory neurotransmitter) onto the nephrons of deep cerebellar nuclei

846
Q

PR interval > 0.20sec and taking over the counter constipation medication?

A

MAGNESIUM ISSUE

probably hypermagnesemia due to exogenous magnesium intake worsened in pt with ESRD due to inability to get rid of Mg through ascending loop of henle

847
Q

Where is Serotonin made?

A

Raphe Nucleus

848
Q

Dude surgery!?!

A

PE rule fucking out PE!

849
Q

Neuropeptide Y

A

stimulates appetite

decreases in fed state

850
Q

Menopause acronym

A

HAVOCS -

Hot flashes
Atrophy of
Vagina,
Osteoporosis
Coronary artery disease
Sleep distubances

851
Q

Heart fluttering after diet pills?

A

Thyroxine containing diet pills can cause A-FIB

852
Q

1L 5% dextrose IV to healthy pt, renal changes

A

because pt is healthy the glucose will be immediately metabolized
essentially giving free water

this will decrease plasma osmolality
decrease ADH secreted by posterior pituitary
decrease urea reabsorption from collecting duct

853
Q

Hypomagnesemia effect on potassium

A

causes renal wasting of potassium
hypokalemia

854
Q

Fetal HR and uterine contractions?

A

As peak contraction happens there is pressure put on fetal head and the HR decreases

early decelerations begin and end with contractions

855
Q

Which part of GI tract absorbs Iron/vitamin B12/fat soluble vitamins/folate/fatty acids/proteins/carbs

A

Iron - Duodenum

Vitamin B12 - Ileum

Folate - Jejunum

Fatty acids/Proteins/Carbs/Fat soluble Vitamins - Jejunum and Ileum

856
Q

Methanol poisoning

A

metabolic acidosis with high anion gap

formic acid found in serum

857
Q

taut-hemoglobin

A

deoxyhemoglobin
T-hemoglobin

more offloading of oxygen

right shift in oxygen dissociation curve

more 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate promotes T-hemoglobin

858
Q

autosomal recessive prolonged QT syndrome

A

Clinical features: sensorineural deafness, family hx of sudden death, Prolonged QT on ECG,

caused by mutated voltage-gated K+ channels

859
Q

baroreceptor reflex

A

dysfunction leads to orthostatic hypotension

decreased BP - decreased baroreceptor activation - decreased signal to brain stem - decreased parasympathetic stimulation and increased sympathetic stimulation - vasoconstriction - increased HR/SV/BP

860
Q

Oocytes stages of meiosis

A

arrested in prophase I until ovulation
arrested in metaphase II until fertilization

861
Q

Sella Turcica

A

holds pituitary gland

862
Q

Pulsus Paradoxus

A

fall in BP with inspiration due to pericardial effusion

increased right ventricular filling, decreased left ventricular filling, decreased stroke volume during inspiration

863
Q

Budd-Chiari syndrome

A

occurs when there is obstruction of blood flow to hepatic veins or the IVC by an acute clot or malignant compression

associated with hypercoaguable state

common causes: pregnancy, oral contraceptives, myeloproliferative disorders, clots

864
Q

Virchow Node

A

left supravclavicular lymph node metastasis

Gastric metastasis source

865
Q

Placenta previa/abruptio/accreta, vasa previa, uterine rupture

A

Abruptio placenta
3rd trimester painful bleeding, premature seperation of placenta from uterus prior to fetal delivery, ABRUPT AND PAINFUL bleeding risk factors include smoking and cocaine usecomplications can lead to DIC

Placenta previa
attachment of placenta over internal cervix os, PAINLESS VAGINAL BLEEDING in 3rd trimester

Placenta Accreta spectrum
formerly called morbidly adherent placenta, abnormal invasion of trophoblastic tissue into uterine wall
accreta - attaches to myometrium without invading
increta - partially invades myometrium
percreta - completely invades or “Per”forates the myometrium and serosa
firm uterus, common after multiple Caesarean sections

Vasa previa
fetal vessels run over or are <2cm from running over cervical os
**painless bleeding during pregnancy that also results in fetal heart rate changes, can result in fetal death from exsanguination

866
Q

Cytotrophoblasts vs syncytiotrophoblasts

A

Cytotrophoblasts
inner layer responsible for making cells

Syncytiotrophoblasts
outer later responsible for synthesizing and secreting hormones (hCG to keep corpus luteum to secrete progesterone in 1st trimester
***lacks mhc I to prevent attack from maternal immune system

867
Q

Glomelular histology for minimal change disease, post strep, IgA nephropathy, SLE, mempranoproliferative glomerulonephritis type II, Membranous Nephropathy, Alport Syndrome, RPGN, DM, amyloidosis,

***membranoproliferative GN, lupus nephritis,

path and clin dx#3 pq #4ish

A

Minimal Change disease
effacement of podocytes, absence of immunoglobulins

Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
subepithelial humps

IgA nephropathy
mesangial deposits of IgA

SLE
SubENDOthelial deposits

Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis Type II (hepatitis C) , and Alport syndrome (will also have visual distubances and sensorineural hearing loss)
dense deposits within the basement membrane, splitting and alternating thickening and thinning of GBM on light microscopy

Goodpasture Syndrome (anti-GBM antibody)

Membranous nephropathy
“Spike” and “Dome” appearance of subepithelial deposits

RPGN
glomelular crescent moon shape

DM
hyaline arteriolosclerosis in glomeruli, non enzymatic protein glycation

Amyloidosis
deposition of beta-sheet fibrils within the mesangial matrix AND glomeruli

868
Q

Hidradentis suppurativa

A

chronic inflammatry condition associated with smoking and obesity

tender inflammatory nodules, sinus tracts, draining fistulae and scars in the axilla/inframmatory folds/perianal region

869
Q

Fundoscopic pathology findings

A

arteriovenous nicking - uncontrolled chronic hypertension

cupping - open angle glaucoma, progressive peripheral to central vision loss, associated with increased ocular pressure

increased lens opacity - cataracts

detatched or floating retina - retinal detachment

cherry-red spot at fovea and sometimes cotton wool spots - ischemia/possible thrombosis, acute onset unilateral vision loss

870
Q

Actinic keratosis

A

PRECURSOR TO SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA

scaly pink macules and papules

871
Q

immigrant with severe illness in childhood, now has a heart condition?

A

RHEUMATIC HEART DISEASE!

mitral stenosis

consequence of rheumatic fever in childhood from group A strep

Aschoff bodies (T cells, plasma cells, Anitschkow cells)

872
Q

fibromyalgia

A

more common in females

difficulty sleeping, chronic fatigue, chronic widespread musculoskeletal pain

873
Q

polymyositis

A

bilateral proximal muscle weakness and increased ESR and creatinine phosphokinase

inflammation of endomysium

874
Q

Pyruvate Kinase deficiency

A

evident when burr cells are on blood smear

pyruvate kinase used in glycolysis to make ATP and the ATP helps keep erythrocyte structure intact

875
Q

Personality disorders Cluster A (Paranoid, Schizoid, Schizotypal)

A

Paranoid
pervasive distrust, accusatory, suspiciousness, hypervigilance, profoundly cynical view of the world

Schizoid
prefers social withdrawal, solitary activities, limited emotional expression, indifferent to others opinions and beliefs

Schizotypal
eccentric appearance, odd beliefs, magical thinking, interpersonal awkwardness,

876
Q

Personality disorders Cluster B (Antisocial, Borderline, Histrionic, Narcissistic)

A

Anti-social
persistent disregard for other people’s rights, exploits others without guilt, poor interpersonal relationships, dont obey the law

borderline
unstable mood and interpersonal relationships, fear of abandonment, impulsivity, self-mutilation, suicidality, sense of emotional emptiness, splitting is major defense mechanism

Narcissistic
grandiosity, sense of entitlement, lacks empathy and requires excessive admiration, often demands the “best” and reacts to criticism with rage or defensivness, fragile self esteem

877
Q

Personality disorders CLuster C (avoidant, Obsessive-Compulsive, Dependent)

A

avoidant
social inhibition with oversensitivity to critism/fear/being disliked, self consciousness, feelings of inadequacy

Obsessive-Compulsive
preoccupation with order, perfectionism, and control, egosyntonic, behavior consistent with one’s own beliefs and attitudes

Dependent
excessive need for support, submissive, low self-confidence, often stuck in abusive relationships

878
Q

Dubin Johnson Syndrome

A

defective MRP2 (multi drug resistance-associated protein 2)

impaired excretion of conjugated bilirubin from the hepatocytes to the bile canaliculi

Dx: hyperbilirubinemia
Liver Biopsy: dark granular pigmentation

879
Q

Hematophagocytic Lymphohistiocytosis

A

HLH

life threatening hematologic disorder involving pancytopenia and severe inflammation due to INCREASED ACTIVITY OF T CELLS AND MACROPHAGES

clinical features: fever, hepatosplenomegaly
Lab findings: pancytopenia, increased serum ferritin
bone marrow biopsy: phagocytosis of hematopoietic cells

880
Q

Meniere Disease vs BPPV, vs vestibular neuritis vs acoustic neuroma

A

Meniere Disease:
impaired endolymph resorption that results in endolymph hydrops (accumulation of fluid in the endolymphatic sac)
recurrent episodes of acute, unilateral symptoms that last from minutes to hours
TRIAD: PERIPHERAL VERTIGO, TINNITUS, SYMMETRIC FLUCTUATING SENSORINEURAL HEARING LOSS

BPPV:
most common peripheral vestibular vertigo
dilodged free floating otoconia (endolymphatic debris)
abnormal stimulation of vestibulocochlear nerve after movement of head or positioning, SEVERE ATTACKS THAT LAST SEVERAL SECONDS
Sudden dizziness lasting less than 1 minute, associated with nystagmus
CONSIDER SOMETHING ELSE IF hearing loss, longer than 1 minute dizziness, neurological symptoms

Vestibular neuritis:
inflammation of vestibular nerve with sx of vestibular hypofunction (vertigo nausea, vomiting, gait instability)
Clinical features: sudden onset vertigo, nausea, vomiting, gait instability, increased risk of falling to affected side, nystagmus
LABRYNTHITIS - viral infection traveled to ear via oval/round window. Similar sx with hearing loss added

Acoustic neuroma:
benign tumors arising from Schwann Cells
more commonly unilateral *bilateral think Neurofibromatosis type II
most common tumor in cerebellopontine angle
Tumor putting pressure on vestibulocochlear nerve (unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, dizziness), later may put pressure on trigeminal and facial nerve (unilateral face pain and weakness)
Biopsy: Schwann cell tumor, spindle cells in palisades(antoni A) alternating with mixoidhypocellular areas (antoni B)

881
Q

Contraction Band post MI cause?

A

excessive calcium influx and result in hypercontraction of sarcomeres
calcium release from membrane degradation after reactive oxygen species release, and after phospholipases are activated

882
Q

Tuning fork tests

A

Weber test:
tests for lateralization (sound heard louder in one ear than the other)
normally heard equally in both ears
Lateralization = asymmetric hearing loss
No lateralization = no hearing loss or bilateral hearing loss
Exam: place base of tuning fork at base of forehead, ask pt if louder in one ear

Rinne test:
Tests for air conduction vs bone conduction in the examined ear
Unable to hear tuning for; conductive hearing loss (bone > air) in the examined ear (Rinne test is negative)
Still able to hear the tuning fork over the outer ear; no conductive hearing loss (Rinne test positive); possible sensorineural hearing loss (air conduction > bone) if diminished hearing in the examined ear
Exam: place base of tuning fork on mastoid process, wait until pt can no longer hear the tuning fork then move it to outside the ear and ask if they can hear it (normally pt should still be able to hear it)

Tympanic membrane rupture causes conductive hearing loss on affected side (lateralization to affected side and bone>air conduction on affected side

883
Q

Ewing Sarcoma

A

highly malignant bone tumor arising from neuroectodermal
translocation of ESWR1 gene on Chr22
peaks from 10-20y/o
primary tumor primarily in diaphysis of long bones (legs and humerus)
X-ray: lytic bone lesion with onion skin appearance of the periosteum
Biopsy: anaplastic small blue round cell malignancy, cells resemble lymphocytes,

884
Q

PBC (primary biliary cholangitis/chirrhosis)

A

B=Bitches
autoimmune
inflammation and destruction of the small and medium sized intrahepatic bile ducts (progressive ductopenia) - defective bile duct regeneration - choleangitis

clinical features: fatigue, marked PRURITIS, jaundice, pale stool, dark urine, hepatomegaly, RUQ discomfort, hyperpigmentation, xanthomas

Dx: increased ALP and GGT and direct bilirubin, hypercholesterolemia, ANTIMITOCHONDRIAL ANTIBODIES, increased IgM

only INTRAhepatic ducts

Tx: UDCA (ursodiol) ursodeoxycholic acid

885
Q

PSC (primary sclerosing cholangitis/cirrhosis)

A

S=son
associated with IBD (90% of pt with PSC have IBD)

clinical features: jaundice, scleral icterus, pruritus, pale stool, dark urine, fatigue, late stages: cirrhosis/hepatosplenomegaly/portal HTN, IBD sx

intra and extrahepatic ducts*

Dx: P-ANCA positive
Imaging: multifocal intra and extra hepatic strictures (beading)
Liver biopsy: concentric periductal onion skin fibrosis

886
Q

Eosinophils vs Basophils

A

Eosinophils - primary fight against parasites

Basophils - primary allergic response

887
Q

Postpartum Blue vs Postpartum unipolar major depression

A

Blues - milder sx, start 2-3 days after delivery/peak over next few days/diminished in 2 weeks

Unipolar major depression - occuring within 4 weeks of having baby, increased duration and severity compared to blues

888
Q

Krukenberg Tumor

A

bilateral “mucin secreting” “signet ring” cells in the ovaries
stomach adenocarcinoma metastasis

classic sign of metastatic gastric cancer is left supraclavicular lymphadenopathy involving the VIRCHOWS LYMPH NODE

889
Q

Ethylene glycol poisoning

A

metabolic acidosis
elevated serum osmolality
high anion gap
confusion, hematuria, crystalluria

890
Q

CLL

A

CLL
Chronic Lymphocytic leukemia
age > 60
most common adult leukemia
!!!CD20/23/5+ B cell neoplasm!!!!

Lethargy, frequent infection, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, high wbc with lymphocyte prodominance (small smudge appearing)

common !!!B cell disorder!!! in elderly

Warm (IgG) and less commonly cold (IgM) AUTOIMMUNE HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA are known complications of CLL occuring from the production of mature or malignant lymphocytes

891
Q

Young healthy pt murmur sign that it isn’t a bad pathology?

A

diminishes when standing

892
Q

murmur that decreases with maximum handgrip?

A

aortic stenosis

893
Q

murmur increases when pt in lateral decubitus position?

A

mitral regurg

increases blood flow through incompetent valve

894
Q

murmur increases with expiration?

A

mitral regurg

895
Q

murmur peaks in late systole?

A

mitral regurg

896
Q

murmur radiates to neck?

A

aortic stenosis

897
Q

Delusional disorder

A

1 or more delusions lasting longer than 1 month
no mood disorder or hallucinations
nonbizzare persistance/fixed/false beliefs that are focused around a particular topic

898
Q

Post meningitis newborn with bulging fontanelles and increased head
circumference?

A

meningeal scarring causing obstruction to CSF reabsorption by arachnoid villi
hydrocephalus

899
Q

normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

type of communicating hydrocephalus
impaired CSF reabsorption
TRIAD: URINARY INCONTINENCE, GAIT INSTABILITY, COGNITIVE DECLINE
wet, wobbly, wacky

900
Q

sclerotic lesions on pelvis and femur of geriatric pt?

A

think metastasis
common cancers that metastasize are from breast/prostate/lung/thyroid/testes/kidney

901
Q

young boy with calcification mass in third ventricle and upward gaze palsy

A

pineal tumor

***craniopharyngioma and pituitary adenoma cause bitemporal hemianopsia

902
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

2/3 pts have had upper resp or GI infection up to 6 weeks prior
Campylobacter enteritis, CMV, HIV

postinfectious autoimmune reaction that generates cross reactive antibodies (molecular mimicry)
infection triggers humoral response - formation of autoantibodies against gangliosides (GM1, GD1a) or other unknown antigens of peripheral Schwann cells - immune-mediated segmental demyelination - axonal degeneration of motor and sensory fibers in peripheral and cranial nerves CNIII-CNXII

Clinical features: bilateral and ascending flaccid paralysis ascending from lower limbs, paresthesia (stocking glove distribution), HYPOREFLEXIA, NOCICEPTIVE AND NEUROPATHIC PAIN, cardiac arrhythmias, may lead to resp failure, facial diplegia

Tx: Iv immunoglobulin

pathogenesis: lymphocytic infiltrate of the endoneurium

903
Q

ALS or Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

A

upper and lower neuron degeneration

Clinical Features:
General - both upper (UP - tone reflexes toes during Babinski) and lower motor neuron (LOW - mass tone power reflexes) signs are present
Early - Asymmetric limb weakness, dysarthria, dysphagia, tongue atrophy, fasiculations, cramps, muscle stiffness
Late - cognitive impairment, autonomic sx (constipation, bladder dysfunction), Respiratory failure, dysphagia

904
Q

Toxin exposure from work (Beryllium, Asbestos, Silica, . . . )

A

Beryllium - aerospace work

Asbestos - shipbuilding, roofing, plumbing

Silica - Glass manufactoring

Alfatoxin B1 - contaminant in cereals, nuts, spices (associated with hepatocellular carcinoma

905
Q

Major depressive disorder vs persistent depressive disorder vs adjustment disorder vs PTSD vs acute stress disorder also SIGECAPS*

A

SIGECAPS - Sleep (insomnia or hypersomnia), Interest loss (anhedonia), Guilt, low Energy or fatigue, poor Concentration, decreased or increased Appetite, Psychomotor agitation, Suicidality

Major Depressive disorder - sx > 2weeks with at least 5 SIGECAPS sx and one must be depressed mood or anhedonia (lack of pleasure)

Persistent depressive disorder - sx >2 years, at least 2 SIGECAPS present most of the day for majority of days

Adjustment disorder - depressive sx occur in the setting of a significant stressor and last for less than 6 months

PTSD -

acute stress disorder - x < 1 month of sx

906
Q

Somatic sx diroder vs conversion disorder

A

Somatic symptom disorder - excessive thoughts/feelings/beliefs related to physical sx that may or may not be related to a medical condition

Conversion disorder - voluntary motor or sensory sx cannot be explained by a neurologic or other medical condition

907
Q

Schizophrenia vs Schizoaffective vs Schizophreniform vs brief psychotic disorder

A

Schizophrenia - sx lasting longer than 6 months

Schizoaffective - sx along with mania or depression

Schizophreniform - positive and negative sx lasting 1-6 months

Brief Psychotic Disorder - sx lasting less than 1 month

908
Q

Complete moles vs partial mole

A

Complete:
46XX or 46XY all paternal derived
uterine size larger than expected for the stage of pregnancy, highly elevated beta-hCG
enucleated ovum is fertilized by sperm and duplicates
US: distended uterus with a heterogeneously echogenic mass, multiple hypoechoic foci “bag of grapes” and no fetal parts

Partial:
69xxy/69xxx/69xyy extra paternal set
2 sperm and 1 egg
has partial fetal parts
P57 postitive
elevated beta hCG but not as much as complete

909
Q

factor V leiden vs increased prothrombin

A

both cause hypercoagulable states

FACTOR V LEIDEN IS MOST COMMON INHERITED THROMBOPHILIA

caused by defect in factor V not allowing it to be broken down by protein C

910
Q

Cryptorchidism

A

condition in which both testis don’t descend properly

increased risk of testicular germ cancers and infertility

911
Q

HPV skin lesion

A

flat warts
primarily HPV 3 and 10
Verruca plana

912
Q

hand, foot, mouth disease

A

cocksackie A virus

fever, oral ulcers

maculopapular and somehwat vesicular rashes on hands and feet and occasionally buttocks

913
Q

Rubella

A

Rubella virus (RNA, SS, +, enveloped)
asymptomatic in 50% of cases

Prodromal phase:
post-auricular, and suboccipital lymphadenopathy
fever, aching joints
Forchheimer sign (exanthem of soft palate)

Exanthem phase:
fine, NONCONFLUENT, pink maculopapular rash (begins at head behind ears and moves peripherally but not to soles and palms and can be itchy in adults)
polyarthritis

prevent with live attenuated vaccine (measles, mumps, rubella)

914
Q

Rubeola

A

RNA virus
causes measles

Prodromal stage:
coryza, cough, conjunctivitis, fever, KOPLIK SPOTS (pathognomonic maculopapular exanthem of the buccal mucosa, several tiny white or blue spots on an irregular erythematous background, manifest 1-2 days after exanthem stage), rash is PARTIALLY CONFLUENT

Exanthem stage:
about 48 hours after prodromal stage and lasts 4-7 days
erythematous maculopapular rash that is initially blanching and can be confluent behind ears, disseminates from head to rest of body, generalized lymphadenopathy

VITAMIN A CAN HELP

CAN CAUSE SUBACUTE SCLEROSING PANENCEPHALITIS - LETHAL GENERALIZED DEMYELINATING INFLAMMATION OF BRAIN CAUSED BY PERSISTENT MEASLES VIRUS, DEATH WITHIN 1-3 YEARS OF DX

915
Q

Achalasia

A

loss of nerves in myenteric (auerbach) plexus in esophagus
progressive dysphagia

lack of peristalsis in distal 2/3 of esophagus

“BIRD’S BEAK” barium study image

916
Q

Sezary syndrome

A

subtype of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma
leukemic and skin malignant T-cell involvement

Clinical features: lymphadenopathy, erythroderma, pruritis

Dx: CD4+ > 1000
T-cell receptor clonal rearangement in skin and blood lymphocytes

ERYTHRODERMA INVOLVING x > 80% of body is required

917
Q

Sudan III staining

A

evaluation of steatorrhea

918
Q

Boerhaave syndrome

A

rupture of distal esophagus

919
Q

esophageal adenocarinoma histology

A

friable mass in distal esophagus

920
Q

necrotizing enterocolitis

A
921
Q

jejunal atresia

A
922
Q

intestinal malrotation

A
923
Q

Hypertrophic pyloric sphincter

A
924
Q

histology of celiac disease vs an intestinal overgrowth of bacteria?

A

Celiac disease - type 4 hypersensitivity, flat mucosa with loss of villi and increased intraepithelial lymphocytes

Intestinal overgrowth - examples are E. coli and C. difficile, shortened, blunted villi and elongated crypts with WBCs infiltrating the lamina propria

925
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis

A
926
Q

Diabetic neuropathy

A

dyesthesia, and loss of sensation

osmotically mediated schwann cell damage due to chronic hyperglycemia

927
Q

multiple sclerosis

A

oligoclonal bands in csf

leads to destruction of cerebral white matter and demyelination

928
Q

Leriche syndrome

A

peripheral artery disease at area of aortic bifurcation or bilateral iliac artery occlusioin
triad of thigh/hip claudication, ED, absent/diminished femoral pulses

929
Q

Anterior cord syndrome

A

bilateral motor paralysis
loss of pain and temperature sensation
autonomic dysfunction

930
Q

Brown-Sequard syndrome

A

hemisection of spinal cord
ipsilateral loss of sensation, proprioception, fine touch, vibration sense
contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation
ipsilateral loss of motor function

931
Q

Central cord syndrome

A

bilateral paresis
syringomyelia

932
Q

Posterior cord syndrome

A

ipsilateral loss of proprioception, vibration, and touch sensation

933
Q

Spinal epidural hematoma

A

acute spinal cord compression
back pain
LE weakness and numbness
normally after a puncture of dura mater

934
Q

Hemangioblastoma

A
935
Q

Astrocytoma

A
936
Q

Schwannoma

A
937
Q

Meningioma

A
938
Q

Oligodendroglioma

A
939
Q

neuron specific enolase in CSF

A
940
Q

Creutzfeld-Jakob disease

A

rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus and ataxia
fatal
caused by prions (PrPc to PrPsc, beta pleated sheet resistant to proteases
14-3-3 protein increased in CSF

941
Q

Alzheimer’s disease

A

most common cause of dementia in older pts
widespread cortical atrophy
senile plaques in gray matter
neurofibrillary tangles
hyperphosphorylated tau protein

decreased beta amyloid 1-42 in CSF

942
Q

Poliomyelitis

A
943
Q

Upper motor neuron injury vs lower motor neuron injury

A
944
Q

Frontotemporal Dementia

A

formerly called pick disease
early changes in personality and behavior or aphasia
may have associated movement disorders
frontal or temporal lobe atrophy
inclusion of hyperphosphorylated tau

945
Q

Parkinson’s Disease vs Lewy body dementia

A

Lewy body dementia
visual hallucinations dementia with fluctuating cognition/alertness
parkinsonism, REM sleep behavior disorder
intracellular LEWY bodies primarily in cortex
***CALLED LEWY BODY DEMENTIA IF COGNITIVE AND MOTOR SX OCCUR < 1 YEAR APART otherwise dementia 2nd to parkinson disease

Parkinson disease
mainly effects movement (bradykinesia, narrow-based shuffling gait, tremor, rigidity
loss of dopaminergic neurons (substania nigra pars compacta

946
Q

HAD or HIV associated dementia

A

memory lapses
poorly controlled antiviral therapy in HIV positive pt
pt usually withdrawn, poor attention and concentration
diffuse or patchy symmetrical hyperintensities on MRI
cerebral atrophy hyperintensities on deep white matter sparring subcortical white matter

947
Q

Radial Nerve injury

A
948
Q

Median Nerve palsy

A
949
Q

Ulnar nerve palsy

A
950
Q

Musculocutaneous nerve palsy

A
951
Q

Cholinergic crisis

A

organophosphate poisoning

952
Q

Transtheoretical model of Behavior Change

A

pre-contemplation

contemplation

preparation

action

maintenence

relapse

953
Q

Fantasy defense mechanism

A
954
Q

Bipolar disorder

A
955
Q

reaction defense mechanism

A
956
Q

Intermittent explosive disorder

A
957
Q

sublimation defense mechanism

A
958
Q

displacement defense mechanism

A
959
Q

splitting defense mechanism

A
960
Q

Oppositional Disoder

A
961
Q

controlling defense mechanism

A
962
Q

Conduct disorder vs Antisocial personality disorder

A
963
Q

Phenytoin

A
964
Q

Proteus mirabilis

A
965
Q

Staphylococcus epidermitidis

A
966
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A
967
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

A
968
Q

Clozapine, Clonidine, Clopidogrel (stop fucking these up)

A
969
Q

Ethosuximide

A
970
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae

A
971
Q

Escherichia coli

A
972
Q

Enterrococcus faecalis

A
973
Q

Vitelline duct

A
974
Q

Urinary incontinence (reflex, urge, stress, overflow, total)**

A

Reflex - detrusor/sphincter dyssynergia

Urge - detrusor overactivity

Stress - urethral hypermobility

Overflow - impaired detrusor contractility

Total - loss of sphincter control

975
Q

Turner syndrome

A
976
Q

Endometrial carcinoma

A
977
Q

Urachus

A
978
Q

Chronic Bronchitis

A
979
Q

patent processus vaginalis

A

higher chance at hydrocele

980
Q

dilation of panpiniform plexus

A

varicocele

981
Q

Pulmonary Fibrosis

A
982
Q

ADPKD

A
983
Q

Polycystic Ovary Syndrome

A
984
Q

endometriosis

A
985
Q

Bronchiectasis

A
986
Q

spermatocele

A

sperm collection in epididymal duct

987
Q

testicular torsion

A

lack of testicular fixation

988
Q

direct vs indirect hernia

A

Direct - inguinal canal floor weakness, weakens with age

Indirect -

989
Q

Type I vs Type II pneumocytes

A
990
Q

CF vs Kartagener pt

A

CF will have steatorrhea, and absence of vas deferens

Kartagener will have situs inversus

991
Q

Emphysema

A
992
Q

Omalizumab

A
993
Q

Theophylline

A
994
Q

relative risk equation 2x2 table

A

((A / (A+B)) / (C / (C+D))

995
Q

absolute risk reduction equation 2x2 table

A

[c/(c + d)) – (a/(a + b)]

996
Q

Odds ratio equation 2x2 table

A

(AD)/(CB)

997
Q

relative risk reduction equation

A

1-relative risk
1-((A / (A+B)) / (C / (C+D))

998
Q

PPV and NPV

A

PPV = A/(A+B)

NPV = D/(C+D)

999
Q

case-control study

A

researchers select pts with and without disease/outcome of interest
used to determine odds ratio

1000
Q

Cross-sectional study

A

analyze data from a representative subset of a population at a specific point in time to determine the prevalance or risk factors of a disease

1001
Q

Validity vs precision vs accuracy

A

Validity - how well the results of the test reflect what is was developed to do

Precision - how well an outcome can be reproduced

Accuracy -

1002
Q

statistical power

A

power = 1-beta

decrease beta and type II error increases power

1003
Q

Case series

A

series of reports on similar cases of a disease or exposure

1004
Q

retrospective cohort study

A

individuals selected base on exposure and then it is observed if these individuals developed a specific disease

1005
Q

p-value

A

x>0.05 is not significant
X<0.05= significant

probability that the results of the test will be at least as extreme as the result actually observed

1006
Q

randomized control trial

A

pts are prospectively selected and randomly assigned a control or treatment group

1007
Q

Selection bias

A

population does not match/reflect the target population

1008
Q

Type I vs Type II error

A

Type II error - null hypothesis is accepted when its actually false
probability of type II error is denoted by beta

Type I error - null hypothesis is rejected when its actually true
probability of type I error is denoted by alpha

1009
Q

effect modification

A

when the effect between an outcome and exposure is changed by the presence and absence of a third variable

1010
Q

Observer bias

A

measurement is influenced by the observers knowledge or expectation

1011
Q

stratification

A

used when a group is seperated into subgroups to see if the outcome that was true for the entire group remains true in the subgroups

1012
Q

Shaken Baby Syndrome

A

subdural hematoma is most common

most likely to have torso bruising as well, retinal hemorrhages, lethargy

1013
Q

best screening for renal complications in pt with DMtype2

A

urine albumin:creatinine ratio

1014
Q

myopia vs hyperopia vs presbyopia

A

myopia - nearsightedness, can see near, light focused in front of retina

Hyperopia - farsightedness, can see far, light focused behind retina

presbyopia - old age, unable to accomidate

1015
Q

Bacterial Choleangitis

A

Charcot triad: jaundice, fever, upper right abd pain

no elevation of liver enzymes but increase in direct bilirubin

1016
Q

chlaymia vs gonorrhea vs HSV neonatal eye issues

A

Gonococcal conjunctivitis - first 5 days of birth

Chlamydial conjunctivitis - day 5 to 14 after birth

HSV keratoconjunctivitis - approximately 2 weeks after birth

1017
Q

aldolase B deficiency vs fructokinase deficiency

A

hereditary fructose intolerance
child weaning off breast feeding and given fruits
vomiting, poor feeding, HYPOGLYCEMIA, jaundice, hepatomegaly

Fructokinase deficiency
“essential fructosuria”
asymptomatic accumulation of fructose leading to excretion in urine

1018
Q

galactokinase deficiency vs galactose 1 phosphate uridyltransferase deficiency

A

Galactokinase deficiency
galactitol accumulation in lenses
cataracts in early infancy
develops in infancy during breastfeeding

galactose 1 phosphate uridyltransferase deficiency
immediate rejection to breastfeeding and formula after birth
“classic galactosemia”
hepatomegaly, jaundice, poor feeding, vomiting, hypoglycemia

1019
Q

increasing resp rate effect on cerebral edema?

A

lowers cerebral edema via vasoconstriction
cerebral perfusion regulated by pCO2
pt mechanically ventilated can be managed with therapeutic hyperventilation
reduction of pCO2 results in vasoconstriction limiting cerebral blood flow

1020
Q

autsomal dominant vs recessive kidney disease

A

Dominant - onset in pt >30y/o
hematuria, HTN, recurrent UTIs, flank pain, berry aneurysms
PKD1 and PKD2
US: enlarged kidneys, multiple parenchymal anechoeic masses

Recessive - normally onset during infancy, ESRD by teenage years, and a reduced lifespan

1021
Q

Trousseau syndrome

A

superficial thrombophlebitis
recurring thrombophlebitis in changing locations, red tender extremities

hypercoagulability in pancreatic cancer

1022
Q

trazodone

A

blocks postsynaptic type 2 serotonin receptors (5-HT2)
weak inhibition of serotonin reuptake
antagonist of H1 and a1 adrenergic receptors

used for insomnia and high dose fr Major depressive disorder (high doses)
Adverse effect: PRIAPRISM, sedation, orthostatic hypertension

1023
Q

AIRE gene dysfunction

A

chronic fungal infections

autoimmune regulator gene

1024
Q

Lesch-Nyhan

A

HGPRT deficiency
X linked recessive
upregulation of de novo purine synthesis

1025
Q
A