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🧠 > OMSITE 2022 > Flashcards

OMSITE 2022 Flashcards

1
Q

innervation to:
tensor veli palatini
tensor tympani

A

V3 motor

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2
Q

Pfeiffer syndrome

A

midface hypoplasia, craniosynostosis, tracheal fusion or narrowing, syndactyly, broad thumb and great toe
may have CP

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3
Q

Sathre-Chotzen syndrome

A

TWIST gene
hypertelorism, +/- craniosynostosis, syndactyly
may have CP

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4
Q

Stickler syndrome

A

collagen type II and XI syndrome, AD

CP, mandibular hypoplasia (Pierre Robin sequence– CP)

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5
Q

Crouzon syndrome

A

craniosynostosis (most common syndromic type), midface hypoplasia, narrow palate +/- CP, NO HAND abnormalities

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6
Q

Apert syndrome

A

same as Crouzone + syndactyly (craniosynostosis, midface hypoplasia, narrow palate +/- CP)

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7
Q

ketamine effect on CV system

A

direct negative inotropic effect but has central sympathetic-stimulating activity

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8
Q

Purpose of direct pulp cap

A

prevent needing RCT or extraction when pulp is already exposed (maintain pulp vitality)

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9
Q

best solution for avulsed tooth

A

cow’s milk

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10
Q

man with 3 month eye issue and fatigue when chewing

A

myasthenia gravis

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11
Q

young pt with trigeminal neuralgia: what other condition should you test for

A

MS

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12
Q

Restorative space required for different implant-retained prostheses

A

Minimum amount of vertical space required for implant prostheses:
fixed screw-retained (implant level): 4-5 mm
fixed screw-retained (abutment level): 7.5 mm
fixed cement-retained: 7-8 mm
unsplinted overdenture: 7mm
bar overdenture: 11 mm
fixed screw-retained hybrid: 15mm.

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13
Q

how long does it take for toradol antiplatelet effects to wear off

A

1-2 days (5-6 half lives)

interferes with platelet aggregation

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14
Q

mechanism of respiratory depression from morphine

A

morphine-6-glucoronide

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15
Q

TCA mechanism

A

block the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine in presynaptic terminals, act as competitive antagonists on post-synaptic alpha cholinergic (alpha1 and alpha2), muscarinic, and histaminergic receptors (H1).

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16
Q

how does osseodensification work

A

counter clockwise drilling

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17
Q

brachial plexus

A
  1. C4-pec/deltoid
  2. C5-bicep
  3. C6-brachioradialis
  4. C7-tricep
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18
Q

PFTs in MG

A
  1. dec FEV1, increased RV:FRC ratio

2. muscular weakness causes RV to be higher

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19
Q

desmoplastic ameloblastoma histology

A

epithelial tumour islands surrounded by a zone of loose-structured connective tissue

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20
Q

plexiform ameloblastoma

A

basal cells arranged in anastomosing strands, inconspicuous stellate reticulum

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21
Q

follicular ameloblastoma

A

peripheral palisading and central reticulum stellate pattern

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22
Q

ameloblastoma classifications

A

1) solid/multicystic
- follicular: spindle cell, acanthomatous, granular, basal cell
- plexiform

2) extra-osseous/peripheral
- luminal
- mural

3) desmoplastic
4) unicystic

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23
Q

ameloblastoma histology

A

reverse polarization, peripheral palisading, and stellate reticulum-like cells

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24
Q

plasmacytoma

A

Monoclonal plasma cells, no associated clonal B cell population

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25
Q

mucoepidermoid carcinoma histology

A

Mucous cells embedded in epidermoid cell nests or lining cystic spaces
Intermediate cells found within epidermoid cell nests or forming separate nests
solid, cystic, or mixed growth patterns

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26
Q

schwannoma histology

A 
well-differentiated schwann cells
Encapsulated, well circumscribed
Most cases have a zonal pattern composed of cellular areas (Antoni A)
with nuclear palisading (Verocay bodies)
and a hypocellular component (Antoni B)
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27
Q

pyogenic granuloma

A

Highly vascularized proliferation of granulation tissue. Often demonstrates surface ulceration and a subacute inflammatory cell infiltrate comprised of neutrophils, lymphocytes and plasma cells.

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28
Q

local anesthetic maxes

A

prilocaine: 600 mg
lidocaine: 500 mg or 7 mg/kg
articaine: 500 mg
mepivacaine: 400 mg
marcaine: 90 mg

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29
Q

cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

unilateral periorbital edema, headache, photophobia, proptosis
CN 3, 4, V1, V2, 6

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30
Q

Wilkes Classification

A
  1. early reducing, painless clicking
  2. late reducing, pain and intermittent locking
  3. non reducing, limited opening, closed lock
  4. non reducing, chronic pain, bony changes
  5. non reducing, crepitation, less pain
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31
Q

Number of fascicles in lingual and IAN

A

lingual: 10-25 fascicles

IAN 12-18 fascicles

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32
Q

Nerve classifications / which last to come back

A

A alpha is last to come back (large myelinated)
Nerve Characteristic Function
A Alpha large/myelinated position/fine touch
A Beta small/myelinated proprioception
A Delta large/unmyelin. superficial (sharp) pain
C small/unmyelinated deep (dull) pain

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33
Q

pediatric airway differences

A

anterior/superior larynx, narrow cricoid, narrow/rigid trachea, larger tongue, smaller pharynx, larger/floppier epiglottis

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34
Q

pro-inflammatory mediators

A 
leukotriene B4
PGE2
TNF
NO
IL-1B
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35
Q

length of tooth splinting

A
  1. subluxation: 2 weeks
  2. extrusive luxation: 4 weeks
  3. intrusive luxation: 4-8 weeks
  4. avulsion: 2-4 weeks
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36
Q

tibial incision

A

gerdy’s tubercle (anterolateral approach)

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37
Q

myxoma

A
  1. more common in mandible, more aggressive in maxilla

2. anti-apoptotic protein: BCL-2

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38
Q

T2 tongue primary, no nodal involvement

A

ipsilateral neck dissection and resection

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39
Q

adenosine dosing (PALS)

A

0.1 mg/kg, max 6 mg

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40
Q

distraction implant time

A

4 weeks

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41
Q

melanoma under finger nail

A

acral lentiginous

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42
Q

shark fin EtCO2 slope

A

COPD

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43
Q

sick sinus syndrome EKG

A

paced (treated with pacemaker)

44
Q

wide complex tachycardia (peds)

A

synchronized cardioversion (0.5-1 J/kg followed by 2 J/kg)

45
Q

rate of malignancy transformation lichen planus

A

0-6%

46
Q

ACLS SVT treatment

A

adenosine 6 mg (followed by 12 if ineffective)

47
Q

virus responsible for mononucleosis

A

EBV (DNA virus)

48
Q

amount of lagophthalmos that can be tolerated

A

2 mm

49
Q

rate of paresthesia after nerve lateralization

A

5%

50
Q

retinal detachment

A

monocular diplopia

51
Q

isoproteronol

A

Isoproterenol is a beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonist
used for bradycardia or torsades

52
Q

scopolamine / atropine vs. glycopyrrolate (robinul)

A

scopolamine and atropine: central antimuscarinic

robinul: peripheral antimuscarinic

53
Q

probabilities for cleft

  1. 1 parent OR child-
  2. 2 children
  3. 1 parent AND 1 child
A
  1. 4%
  2. 9%
  3. 17%
54
Q

formation of primary palate

A

fusion of lateral and medial nasal process and maxillary process

55
Q

Lemierre’s syndrome

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum, typically occurs in healthy teenagers and young adults. The infection originates in the throat and spreads via a septic thrombophlebitis of the tonsillar vein and internal jugular vein.

56
Q

Frey’s syndrome

A

gustatory sweating and facial flushing

post-ganglionic (otic ganglion) after injury to auriculotemporal nerve during parotid dissection

57
Q

tx of recurrent cutaneous melanoma

A

VEGF infusion

58
Q

children have lower MAC, why?

A

higher alveolar ventilation rate, lower FRC

59
Q

thickness of schneiderian membrane

A

0.3-0.8 mm

60
Q

modiolus- 5 muscles

A

buccinator, levator and depressor anguli oris, zygomaticus, risorius

61
Q

what happens when you orthodontically extrude a tooth?

A

MG junction stays same, crestal gingiva migrates

62
Q

how long after radiation should you wait for implants?

A

6 months

63
Q

thickness of staple implant

A

12 mm

64
Q

obesity ventilation

A
  1. PaO2 is decreased representing a ventilation/perfusion mismatch
  2. PaCO2 remains normal
65
Q

demineralized freeze-dried bone graft

A

osteoinductive

66
Q

maxillary canine eruption

A
  1. 22mm
  2. 80% palatal
  3. vertical then buccal
67
Q

what increases APAP toxicity

A

phenytoin

68
Q

pediatric IAN compared to adult?

A

more inferior, lateral, and posterior

69
Q

increased risk of ankylosis in intracapsular fracture in the…

A

contralateral ramus

70
Q

stahl’s ear

A

extra crease, pointed ear

71
Q

peridex reduces nosocomial PNA by?

A

52%

72
Q

ossifying fibroma resection margins

A

5 mm

73
Q

massive blood transfusion effects

A

dilutional coagulopathy, metabolic alkalosis, hypocalcemic hypothermia, hyperkalemia, cardiogenic pulmonary edema

74
Q

staining for chondrosarcoma?

A

CKD4

75
Q

mechanism of cetuximab

A

binds to EGF to inhibit tyrosine kinase

76
Q

connective tissue graft

A
  1. red colored side to recipient bed

2. white BM side to abutment

77
Q

rate of bone loss around an implant

A

0.2 mm / year, should not exceed 1.5 mm in 12-18 months

78
Q

thick STSG 0.01-0.025 in (0.3-0.45 mm)

A
  1. 0-48: imbibition
  2. 48-72: inoculation
  3. 3-5 days: neovascularization
  4. 7 days: adequate blood supply
79
Q

posterior hip neurovasculature

A
  1. superior and gluteal a
  2. superior cluneal nerve L1-3
  3. middle cluneal nerve S1-3
80
Q

AICBG

A
  1. subcostal T12-L1
  2. iliohypogastric L1-L2
  3. femoral cutaneous L2-L3
81
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma

A
  1. endemic form 2x more freq in maxilla, EBV
  2. “starry sky”
  3. chemo gives 90% remission
82
Q

stage I/II tongue SCC

A
  1. 1-1.5cm margin

2. elective neck disseciton unless <2mm invasion

83
Q

FOM SCC

A
  1. 50% met

2. <2mm 7.5% nodal, >2mm 38% nodal

84
Q

treatment of rhabdomyosarcoma

A

surgical excision followed by chemo

85
Q

eye symptom in SLE

A

keratoconjunctivitis

86
Q

what is argon laser absorbed by?

A

Hgb

87
Q

autonomic innervation of eye muscles

A

levator palpebrae oris: parasympathetic

superior tarsal muscle (Mueller’s): sympathetic

88
Q

what is remifentanil metabolized by?

A

plasma esterase

89
Q

direct thrombin inhibitors

A

dabigatran, argatroban, hirudin, bivalirudin

90
Q

best skin match for nose

A

posterior auricular skin

91
Q

dantrolene MOA

A

inhibits Ca release

92
Q

what is verapamil used to treat?

A

vasospastic angina

93
Q

ballistics

A

penetration and size are most important factor

94
Q

which nerve is most commonly injured during local anesthesia administration?

A

lingual nerve

95
Q

osteomyelitis

A

increased intramedullary pressure

can spread hematogenously in peds

96
Q

mitral regurg intraop management

A

blowing holosystolic apex…

normal to increased heart rate, increase preload, decrease afterload

97
Q

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy intraop management

A

preload normal or increase (expand volume)
afterload increase (avoid vasodilation),
minimize sympathetic stimulation
treat hypotension with phenylephrine

98
Q

obese pt lung volumes

A

normal FEV1
decr FRC
restrictive defect
V-Q mismatch

99
Q

absolute contraindication in MAO-i use

A

ephedrine

100
Q

what can’t you use in mitral valve prolapse with regurg

A

ketamine

101
Q

most important part of coronectomy

A

remove enamel

102
Q

contraindicated in MG

A

non-depolarizing muscle relaxants

103
Q

erythromycin + versed increases versed concentration via what mechanism

A

inhibits P450 3A4 system

104
Q

where is ADH released

A

posterior pituitary

105
Q

max amount of time prior to re-implantation of avulsed tooth can survive

A

120 min

106
Q

how long should subluxed permanent teeth be treated with a flexible splint?

A

7-10 days

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