Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Random > OMM COMLEX > Flashcards

OMM COMLEX Flashcards

1
Q

AT 1 tender point location and treatment

A

episterna notch midline- or slightly lateral

treatment: flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

AT 2-6 tender point location and treatment

A

midline of the sternum at the level of the corresponding rib

treatment: flexion, with minimal fine tuning in side bending or rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

AT 7 tendering location and treatment

A

bilateral 1/4 distance from the Xiphoid tip to umbilicus

treatment: FSTRA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

AT 8 tender point location and treatment

A

location: 1/2 distance between the diploid process and umbilicus bilaterally

treatment: FSTRA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

AT 9 tenderpoint location and treamtent

A

3/4 distance from the xiphoid tip and umbilicus

treatment: FSTRA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

AT 10 tender point location and treament

A

1/4 distance from umbilicus to the pubic symphysis ( bilaterally)

treatment: flex sideband ankles towards and rotate torso away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

AT 11 tender point location and treatment

A

1/2 distance from umbilicus and pubic symphisis (biltaerally)

treatment: flex, sideband ankles towards, rotate torso away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

AT 12 tender point location and treatment

A

Apex of the iliac crest at mid axillary line (bilaterally)

treatment: flex, sideband ankles away rotate torso towards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

where is L1 located

A

medial to the ASIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where is AL1 located

A

medial to the ASIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

where is AL2 located

A

medial to the AIIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

where is AL3 located

A

lateral to the AIIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

where is AL4 located

A

inferior to the AIIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where is AL5 located

A

on the pubic ramps 1cm lateral to the pubic symphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the straight leg raise used for

A

to evaluare for lumbar nerve root compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Straight leg raise is also. known as?

A

lasegue test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the braggard test

A

a modification of the SLR that applies ankle dorsiflexion- conducted same as SLR but then dorsiflex ankle to reproduce symptoms

positive test is indicative of sciatica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

FABER test

A

aka Patrick test that is used to evaluate for a labral tear, hip impingement.

hip is flexed, ABducted, ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

lumbosacral spring test

A

tests pathology of the sacrum

pat is prone and the heel of the physicians hand is placed over the lumbosacral junction. The physician will place a gentle rapid downward force with the hand and if not spring is noted than it is positive and the sacral base is posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ober test

A

evaluates for a tight tensor fascia late and ITB

pt. lies on the side that is not affected and the physician will stand behind them and flexes the knee 90 degrees, abducts the hip as far as possible and then slightly extends the hip then you allow the thigh to fall to the table

if the hip remained in the abducted position it is positive and there is a tight ITB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

the trendelenburg test

A

evaluates weak gluten medius muscles

physician is behind patient and has them lift 1 leg off the floor

pelvis drops on the contralateral side there is weakness of the gluteus medius of the weight bearing leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how do you augment flow

A
  1. remove thoracic inlet somatic dysfunction: open the thoracic inlet which is formed by Gibson’s fascia
  2. rib raising or paraspinal inhibition
  3. redone the diaphragm
  4. apply lymphatic pump techniques
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

thoracic inlet drains what

A

left arm, left side of the thorax, the abdomen and both legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

head and neck viscera somatic

A

T1-T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
heart viscerosomatics
T1-T5 on the left
24
respiratory system viscerosomatics
T2-T7
25
esophagus viscerosomatics
T2-T8
26
upper GI viscerosomatics
T5-T9
27
Middle GI tract viscerosomatics (SMA)
T10-T11
28
Lower GI tract viscerosomatics
T12-L2
29
appendix/cecum viscerosomatics
T10-T12
30
arms viscerosomatics
T2-T8
31
kidney viscerosomatics
T10-T11
32
Upper ureters viscerosomatics
T10-T11
33
lower ureters viscerosomatics
T12-L1
34
bladder viscerosomatics
T11-L2
35
gonads viscerosomatics
T10-T11
36
uterus/cervic viscerosomatics
T10-L2
37
erectile tissue viscerosomatics
T11-L2
38
prostate viscerosomaitics
T12-L2
39
legs viscerosomatics
T11-L2
40
what makes up the upper GI tract
stomach, liver, gallbladder, spleen, portions of pancreas, duodenum (Celiac)
41
what makes up the middle GI tract
portions of pancreas, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, ascending colon, proximal 2/3 transverse colon
42
lower GI tract contents
distal 1/3 transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum
43
parasympathetic to ovaries and testes?
vagus the rest of the parasympathetics are normal above diagram vagus below diaphragm: pelvic splanchinuc
44
what are the three types of soft tissue techniques
longitudinal: long axis stretching (axial traction) perpendicular: kneeding (rhythmic perpendicular stretching ) direct inhibition: sustained pressure
45
in a scoliotic curve the vertebra deviating farthest from the midline is known as
apical vertebra (curve apex)
46
the _ barrier is engaged in direct techniques
restrictive
47
during exhalation the sacrum moves
nutation ( flexion)
48
during inhalation the sacrum moves
counternutation ( extension) this decreases the lordotic curve
49
respiratory motion of the sacrum occurs around
the superior transverse axis at level S2
50
most common dysfunction of the sacrum in post parts patients is
bilateral sacral flexion
51
articulatory techniques are
low velocity with moderate to high amplitude carried through its full ROM to increase mobility primarily direct but can be modified to be indirect
52
articulatory techniques are contraindicated in?
acute strains or sprains
53
gall bladder chapman point
6th intercostal space at the mid clavicular line on the right
54
steps of direct myofascial release
Palpate down to the layer of the fascia. Position the fascia to the restrictive barrier. Hold the tissue at the restrictive barrier for 30 seconds until a release or fascial "creep" is felt. Recheck to determine if tissue compliance and quality have improved.
55
treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome
mfr of the transverse carpal ligament
56
standing flexion test is used for
innominate dysfunctions
57
seated flexion test is used for
sacrum dysfunctions
58
yergason test
specialty test for biceps tendinopathy or instability physician holds compression against the tendon of the long head of the biceps brachia in the bicipital groove and asks patient to supinate their forearm and flex there elbow against resistance (positive is if there is a snap_
59
long head the biceps tenderpoint location and treatment
over the biceps tendon patient is supine, supinate the arm and flex the arm to 90 at the shoulder and flex the alone
60
tenderpoint of the acromioclavicular joint and the treatment
behind the anterior surface of the distal clavicle treat: patient is prone and adduct the arm across the back with applied traction
61
tenderpoint for the supraspinatus location and treatment
location: supraspinatus fossa treatment: pt is supine and the patients arm is flexed and abducted to 120 degrees then the humerus is externally rotated
62
latissimus dorsi tenderpoint location and treatment
location: deep in the axilla on the medial surface of the humerus treatment: patient is supine and holding the arm posteriorly over the side of the table towards the ground with internal rotation and traction
63
tenderpoint for the subscapularis location and treatment
location: on the anterior surface of the scapula treatment: patient is supine, hold the arm and pull it toward the ground and internally rotate
64
asending colon chapman point
right lateral thigh (middle 3/5)
65
HVLA on the cervical spine presents concerns for damage to the _ system
vertebrobasilar ssytem
66
when treating the cervical spine with HVLA you should avoid what positions
hyperextension and excessive rotation
67
AC1 mandible tenderpoint location and treatment
posterior aspect of the ascending ramps of the mandible at the earlobe level
68
AC1 mandible tenderpoint location and treatment
posterior aspect of the ascending ramus of the mandible at the earlobe level
69
AC1 mandible tenderpoint location and treatment
posterior aspect of the ascending ramus of the mandible at the earlobe level rotate away
70
AC1 transverse process tenderpont location and treatment
lateral aspect of C1 transverse process hallway between mastoid process and ramus of manidble rotate away
71
AC2-AC6 tenderpoint locations and treatments
anterior lateral aspect of tubercles of corresponding vertebrae transverse process flex to the level of segment and side bend and rotate away (FSARA)
72
AC7 tenderpoint location and treatment
posterosuperior surface of the clavicleat clavicular attachment of the SCM Flex STRA
73
AC8 tenderpoint location and treatment
superior medical end of the clavicle at sternal attachment of SCM FSARA
74
CV4
compression of the 4th ventricle is decompressed it is used to enhance the CRI in depressed people technique: resistance to eh flexion phase and encouragement of the extension phase until cessation of the CSF is palpated at the still point
75
contraindications to the CV4 technique
acute intracranial hemorrhage, increased ICP, acute skull fracture, seizures
76
petrissage
soft tissue technique that involves kneading and skin rolling to compress the underlying musculature
77
v spread technique
release peripheral suture
78
venous sinus technique
retires optimal intracranial blood flow used for sinus headaches
79
pancreas chapman point posterior and anterior
anterior: 7th intercostal space on the right posterior: T7 on the right (epigastric pain that is relieved by bending forward, N/V, ecchymotic discoloration of the flank)
80
Posterior Sacrum 1 tenderpoint location
at each sacral sulcus
81
posterior sacrum 2-4 tenderpoint location
midline on the sacrum at the corresponding level
82
posterior sacrum 5 tenderpoint location
medial and superior to the inferior lateral angle on each side
83
high ilium flare out tenderpoint location
lateral aspect of ILA
84
high ilium sacroiliac tenderpoint location
on the ilium 2-3 cm lateral from the PSIS
85
lower pole L5 tenderpoint
immediately inferior to the PSIS
86
upper pole L5 tenderpoint location
superior medial surface of the PSIS
87
during the flexion phase of the primary respiratory mechanism there is _ of the midline cranial bones, _ rotation of the paired cranial bones, the sacral base moves _ and there is a _ anterior posterior diameter of the cranium
flexion external rotation posteriorly decreased
88
when you have a linked rib and thoracic SD it is best to direct your first treatment toward the?
thoracic segment
89
AT1 tenderpoint location and treatment
suprasternal notch and treat with flexion and slight side bending/rotation
90
AT 2 tenderpoint location
angle of Louis (manubriosternal junction)
91
posterior rib 1 tenderpoint location and treatment
posterior superior aspect of rib 1 lateral to the costotransverse articulation pt seated, sideband away, rotate towards and slightly extend
92
posterior rib 2-10 location and treatment
posterior superior angle of corresponding rib pt seated side bend and rotate away and flex (FSARA)
93
counterstain for anterior rib 1 tenderpoint
patient is supine you flex sideband toward and rotate away
94
counterstain for anterior ribs 3-10
pt seated flex side bend toward and rotate away
95
HVLA contraindications
osteomyelitis, metastasis, severe osteoporosis, infection, joint replacement, down syndrome, veterbrobasilar insufficiency
96
chapman point for the larynx
second rib (same as larynx and tongue)
97
treatment for the high ilium flare out
extend and adduct
98
posterior lumbar 3 or 4 counterstain treatment
extend, abduct and IR
99
upper pole L5 counterstain treatment
adducted hip and externally rotate
100
lower pole L5 counterstain treatment
hip flexed, adducted and internally rotated
101
Primary respiratory motion is comprised of what 5 things
1. fluctuation of CSF 2. Inherent motion of the brain and spinal cord 3. articular mobility of the cranial bones 4. tension of the dura 5. motion of the sacrum between the ill
102
attachments of dura
C2,C3, foramen magnum, sacrum (s2)
103
midline cranial bones
SOVE sphenoid, occiput, vomer, ethmoid
104
flexion of the cranial SBS: sacrum: paired bones: AP diameter:
SBS goes cephalad sacrum: counternutates inhalation paired bones ER AP diameter shortens
105
physiologic cranial sacral motion
F/E torsions Sidebending rotation
106
nonphysiological cranial motions
vertical strain lateral strain compression
107
torsions
1 AP axis greater wing of sphenoid sphenoid and occiput rotate oppositely
108
sidebending/rotation
2 vertical axis 1 AP axis named for the convexity of side bending same in AP opposite in vertical axis
109
vertical strain
2 transverse axis base of sphenoid same direction

Random (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions