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B38M Type Rating - Non-Tech > OMB Notes > Flashcards

OMB Notes Flashcards

1
Q

Is the RNP AR APCH approved?

A

Only for NG, not MAX.

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2
Q

What is the minimum TO RVR?

A

125m

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3
Q

When are operations on contaminated runways prohibited? (2)

A
  • RWY CC 0
  • Braking action less than poor
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4
Q

Maximum runway slope?

A

2%

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5
Q

What is the minimum runway width?

A

30m. Snow covered runways if less on commanders discretion.

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6
Q

What is the turbulent air penetration speed?

A

280kts/0.76M during climb and descent.

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7
Q

When is a slippery runway considered?

A

RWY CC under 5.

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8
Q

How much is crosswind limit reduced on wet/contaminated runways if asymmetric thrust only?

A

Reduced by 5 knots.

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9
Q

Above what crosswind speed should you limit thrust on taxi?

A

43 knots.

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10
Q

Crosswind limits on dry runway?

A

T/O - 33kts
Landing - 40 knots

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11
Q

Crosswind limits wet runway?

A
  • T/O 25/*33 knots
  • Landing 40 knots
  • increased when CC 5+, Flaps 5+, MACTOW 25% or less and minimum width 45m.
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12
Q

When are the crosswind limits on a wet runway increased from 25 to 33 knots? (4)

A
  • RWY CC 5+
  • Flaps 5+
  • MACTOW under 25%
  • Runway width minimum 45m
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13
Q

What is the maximum PF/PM altimeter difference during RVSM?

A

200ft

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14
Q

What is the maximum altimeter difference when on ground?

A

50ft

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15
Q

What is the maximum altimeter difference to field elevation?

A

75 feet.

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16
Q

What is the maximum cabin differential?

A

9.1PSI

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17
Q

When should you not use PACKs in HIGH flow?

A

Takeoff, approach and landing.

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18
Q

What is minimum AP engagement altitude?

A

400ft

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19
Q

Can you use aileron trim with AP engaged?

A

No, prohibited.

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20
Q

What is the minimum use height of AP during SINGLE CH approach?

A

111ft.

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21
Q

Below what altitude is the use of LVL CHG prohibited?

A

1000ft AFE.

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22
Q

What are the autoland minimum and maximum glide slope angles?

A

3.25 to 2.5 degrees.

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23
Q

When should engine ignition be turned on? (4)

A
  • Takeoff
  • Landing
  • Heavy rain
  • Anti-ice operation
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24
Q

When can you not use R-TO method with regards to system failures?

A

Anti-skid INOP.

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25
Q

How long do you run APU before using as bleed source?

A

2 mins

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26
Q

What is the maximum flap altitude?

A

20,000ft

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27
Q

Can you use flaps during a hold in icing conditions?

A

No

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28
Q

Below what altitude is speed brake use prohibited?

A

1000FT RA

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29
Q

At what flap setting is speed brake extended operations prohibited?

A

Flaps 40, can only arm speed brake.

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30
Q

When can you land with flaps 15?

A

When instructed by NNC.

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31
Q

How long do you leave alternate flaps between extensions?

A

5 minutes.

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32
Q

Can you reset fuel pump CB inflight?

A

No

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33
Q

Maximum fuel tank temperature?

A

49 degrees

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34
Q

Minimum fuel tank temperature?

A

-43 degrees or 3 degrees above freezing point of fuel.

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35
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance?

A

453kg

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36
Q

Above what fuel value in the centre tank must both main tanks be full first?

A

453kg

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37
Q

When should EGPWS RW OVERRUN be inhibited with regards to temperature?

A

Below -40, and above 50 degrees. Or landing overweight.

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38
Q

What should you refer to if you get a warning or caution after engine start on the ground?

A

NNC, or MEL still available on ground.

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39
Q

When should you set STD when cleared to a FL on ground?

A

After thrust reduction altitude. 800FT normally.

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40
Q

When should ISFD be set to QNH inflight?

A

Before TOD.

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41
Q

Below what altitude are there no FMA call-outs?

A

400ft RA

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42
Q

On a go-around, when are FMA call outs started,

A

After gear up, or 400ft RA.

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43
Q

What are the thrust reduction and acceleration heights for a NADP1 departure?

A

Reduction 1500ft, acceleration at 3000ft

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44
Q

Where will you find if it’s NADP1?

A

LIDO CCI

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45
Q

How long do AC XFR buses need power before stall warning test?

A

4 minutes

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46
Q

When may LE flap droop and cause asymmetric warning?

A

Hydraulics off.

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47
Q

What is the minimum fuel in the centre tank for it to feed the APU?

A

453kg

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48
Q

When must flight deck not be left unattended with fuel pumps on?

A

Centre tank pump on.

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49
Q

How long must window heat switches be on before departure?

A

10 minutes

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50
Q

Which ignition for first flight of day?

A

R

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51
Q

What do you set minimums to on departure?

A

EOAA

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52
Q

What is the minimum hydraulic pressure?

A

2800PSI

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53
Q

What engine should be started first if no APU bleed air?

A

Number 1, then crossbleed to 2.

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54
Q

How long should each start attempt be (maximum)?

A

3 minutes. 10 seconds between attempts.

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55
Q

What is started usage limited to for extended engine motoring?

A

5 minutes.

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56
Q

What is the minimum motoring N2 for start lever IDLE DETENT?

A

20%N2. Max motoring when less than 1% increase in 5 seconds.

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57
Q

At what N2 should starter move to OFF on start?

A

63%

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58
Q

When is engine stable at idle during start? (EGT)

A

EGT start limit disappears

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59
Q

Minimum engine oil temperature for takeoff?

A

31 degrees

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60
Q

How long should engines be run after start?

A

3 minutes, 5 minutes if shutdown for more than 4 hours.

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61
Q

On a flaps 25 takeoff, when do you retract to F15?

A

At V2+15 bug, then as bug speeds.

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62
Q

When do you retract to F5 on a F10/15 takeoff?

A

At V2+15, then as bug speed.

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63
Q

Flap 5 takeoff, when do you retract to F1?

A

V2+15, then as bug speed.

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64
Q

If no OPTICLIMB, what speed do you use above FL100?

A

300kts/0.78M

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65
Q

What is the maximum difference between load sheet and OFP to still use OPTICLIMB?

A

2000kg

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66
Q

During climb, when should you turn 1 centre tank pump off?

A

When LP light illuminates. Other off when tank empty.

67
Q

At what point will PM PA to cabin to prepare for arrival?

A

30 minutes to landing

68
Q

When should descent procedure be complete by?

A

10,000ft

69
Q

When should approach procedure be started?

A

Started before 10,000ft, TL or when altitude first set on MCP.

70
Q

When should approach procedure be complete by?

A

Complete before IAF, radar vectors for final approach course or start of visual approach.

71
Q

On what approaches does raw data not need to be monitored?

A

RNP approaches.

72
Q

What should you add to VREF when planning to disconnect autothrottle on approach?

A

1/2 of steady HW component and full gust increment above steady wind.

Maximum is VREF+15. Or flap placard speed minus 5kts.

Nothing for TW.

73
Q

What should bank be limited to if speed in Amber bracket?

A

15 degree bank

74
Q

What is the minimum acceleration height on a go-around (all engines)?

A

1000FT AAL

75
Q

What should you call when auto brake released?

A

‘Autobrake disarm’ when advisory illuminates.

76
Q

How long should engines run after runway vacated?

A

3 minutes. Add 1 minute for every time thrust above 40%N1.

77
Q

When does AT disengage after touchdown on autoland?

A

2 seconds after touchdown.

78
Q

At what pitch attitude will you tail strike on rotation?

A

11 degrees.

79
Q

Above what crosswinds are zero crab landings prohibited?

A

15 knots.

80
Q

How many lights required for CATIIIA?

A

3 consecutive lights.

81
Q

What autoland is anti skid required for?

A

CATIIIB

82
Q

When do FD’s disappear on autoland?

A

50 feet, when FLARE annunciates. Only passive.

83
Q

Is an automatic go around with OEI available for fail passive aircraft?

A

No.

84
Q

When should F15+gear lowered on OEI ILS?

A

One dot deviation. Don’t change thrust.

85
Q

When is fuel LOW illuminated?

A

Under 907kg in related main tank.

86
Q

How long does full motion of outflow valve take?

A

20 seconds

87
Q

What should be done to the PACKs when using conditioned air?

A

OFF

88
Q

When should you reset field elevation when diverting?

A

TOD for the alternate.

89
Q

What is the maximum landing altitude?

A

8400ft

90
Q

When should you turn bleeds ON during a no bleed takeoff?

A

1500ft or OCH(A) in case of engine failure.

91
Q

Which engine bleed on first when using no bleed takeoff?

A

Engine number 2.

92
Q

When should you initially uplink winds inflight?

A

TOC.

93
Q

How long between battery on and then APU start?

A

30 seconds.

94
Q

After APU/GND POWER off, how long until battery can be switched off?

A

5 minutes.

95
Q

Can you do a battery start on the MAX?

A

No, prohibited.

96
Q

DC Voltmeter reading?

A

24V +/- 4

97
Q

What is the minimum bleed duct pressure for crossbleed start?

A

30PSI, may need to advance thrust after start.

98
Q

When should ALIGN light extinguish after alignment complete?

A

30 seconds.

99
Q

Can you transfer fuel between tanks with passengers onboard?

A

Only if tank in which fuel being taken from is maintained above 900kg.

100
Q

In normal operations, when should ORW be turned off?

A

Touch and goes

101
Q

What takeoff procedure is prohibited on contaminated runways?

A

Assumed temperature method

102
Q

When should flaps full travel be checked before departure?

A

During icing conditions

103
Q

What is the ice shedding procedure?

A

Increased engine vibration, increase thrust to 50%N1 for a minimum of 5 seconds.

Every 60 minutes, or before takeoff.

104
Q

When may ice shedding procedure be required? (3)

A
  • EAI required
  • OAT below 3 degrees
  • increased engine vibrations
105
Q

How long should you wait to turn engine bleeds on after de-icing?

A

1 minute, ensure fluid drained away from engines. May cause smoke, same as APU.

106
Q

Below what temperature is EAI not required in flight for CLB and CRZ?

A

-40 SAT

107
Q

Above what altitude may use of WAI cause bleed trip off?

A

FL350

108
Q

What flap setting should flaps be retracted to after landing if operating in prolonged icing conditions?

A

F15

109
Q

When should EAI be on on the ground?

A

At all times on ground in icing conditions.

110
Q

What should STAB TRIM be set to during de-icing?

A

5.0 units, prevents ice running into control areas.

111
Q

What AP mode should be selected in severe turbulence?

A

CWS

112
Q

What flap setting used when OEI landing?

A

F15

113
Q

When is reduced engine thrust takeoff prohibited? (4)

A
  • contaminated runway
  • ALTN EEC mode
  • One or more Anti-skid channels INOP
  • Potential wind shear exists
114
Q

When should you not use improved climb takeoffs? (3)

A
  • Contaminated runway
  • Required by OMC
  • Required by MEL
115
Q

What should you limit turns to if OEI?

A

15 degrees until flaps retracted, then 25 degree AOB.

116
Q

Operational landing distance factors?

A

15% margin on LDR.

1500’/7 second flare time from 50 feet.

Normal configuration

117
Q

What is the minimum climb gradient for LVO’s?

A

2.5%

118
Q

What is the OEI speed?

A

400kts

119
Q

Standard taxi fuel?

A

200kg

120
Q

Minimum OFP landing fuel?

A

1800kg

121
Q

Maximum arrival fuel?

A

5400kg

122
Q

What quantity in main tanks may you get CSFF?

A

As little as 2000kg in each tank.

123
Q

Minimum RFFS?

A

7

124
Q

Maximum last minute change?

A

500kg, whether off or onloaded, or relocated.

125
Q

Are animals allowed?

A

Yes. Only in front hold.

126
Q

How long does passenger oxygen supply last?

A

12 minutes

127
Q

What do flap manoeuvre speeds allow?

A

Ensure full manoeuvre ability of atleast 40 degree AOB or 1.3G, to stick shaker.

128
Q

Does Amber band vary with G load?

A

No, just the barber pole that moves.

129
Q

What is VREF ICE?

A

VREF15 + 10 knots

130
Q

What does white bug illuminate on takeoff?

A

V2+15

131
Q

What is white bug on landing?

A

VREF + 20

132
Q

Can you adjust rudder trim with autopilot on?

A

Yes, readjusts control column neutral point.

133
Q

What is the preferred method of climbing less than 1000ft?

A

V/S

134
Q

What can you do if AFDS is not allowing you to select modes?

A

Recycle FD’s can fix this

135
Q

What speed for turns greater than 30 degrees on ground?

A

10 knots

136
Q

When do you need target N1 set by?

A

60 knots

137
Q

In what conditions may THR HOLD not set AT TO thrust in time?

A

20+ knot headwind

138
Q

When using what are VMCG MCA not factors?

A

Using ATM, not a TO operating limit like derated takeoffs.

139
Q

Maximum bank angle at V2+15 with TO flaps?

A

30 degrees AOB.

140
Q

When does LNAV guidance activate on TO?

A

50 feet

141
Q

When does VNAV engage on departure?

A

400ft

142
Q

When would you not start after TO flap retraction at V2+15?

A

When using a F1 departure

143
Q

OEI Rotation?

A

Slightly lower pitch and slower rate than all engines

144
Q

ECON speed schedule above FL100?

A

280/0.78M

145
Q

How many refuelling after a blend of fuel can you then assume the refuelled fuel temperatures?

A

3 consecutive

146
Q

How quickly does fuel cool?

A

3 degrees per hour

147
Q

Cruise fuel penalty if 2000ft above/below OFP altitude?

A

1-2% increase

148
Q

What thrust do you set in FMC if OEI?

A

CON

149
Q

How long to slow 280 to 250 knots with no speed brakes?

A

30 seconds and 2.5nm

150
Q

Speed brake roughly improves descent by 10%

A

Yes

151
Q

Above what flap setting should speed brakes be retracted?

A

F15 or greater

152
Q

When should you reduce to holding speed?

A

3 mins before fix

153
Q

Max holding speed below 14,000ft?

A

230knots

154
Q

What is fail passive?

A

In event of a failure, causes no significant deviation of path/attitude, DA(H) used.

155
Q

Are autolands allowed on contaminated runways?

A

Yes. Maintain keen eye on directional control

156
Q

When will LAND2/3 illuminate?

A

1500ft AAL

157
Q

On Autoland, when must both autopilots be engaged by?

A

800FT

158
Q

Is go-around available once reverse selected?

A

No

159
Q

What flap setting should you use in F15 OEI approach go around?

A

F1

160
Q

Stable approach criteria? (4)

A
  • on speed
  • landing configuration
  • centreline
  • approach path

By 1000ft AAL

161
Q

What is FUP speed in relation to VREF?

A

VREF+70 knots

162
Q

What is barber pole above FL200?

A

Low speed buffet

Below 20,000ft is stick shaker.

163
Q

When will current flap setting bug speed be shown on takeoff?

A

Only for F1 takeoff

B38M Type Rating - Non-Tech (2 decks)

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