OMB Notes Flashcards
1
Q
Is the RNP AR APCH approved?
A
Only for NG, not MAX.
2
Q
What is the minimum TO RVR?
A
125m
3
Q
When are operations on contaminated runways prohibited? (2)
A
- RWY CC 0
- Braking action less than poor
4
Q
Maximum runway slope?
A
2%
5
Q
What is the minimum runway width?
A
30m. Snow covered runways if less on commanders discretion.
6
Q
What is the turbulent air penetration speed?
A
280kts/0.76M during climb and descent.
7
Q
When is a slippery runway considered?
A
RWY CC under 5.
8
Q
How much is crosswind limit reduced on wet/contaminated runways if asymmetric thrust only?
A
Reduced by 5 knots.
9
Q
Above what crosswind speed should you limit thrust on taxi?
A
43 knots.
10
Q
Crosswind limits on dry runway?
A
T/O - 33kts
Landing - 40 knots
11
Q
Crosswind limits wet runway?
A
- T/O 25/*33 knots
- Landing 40 knots
- increased when CC 5+, Flaps 5+, MACTOW 25% or less and minimum width 45m.
12
Q
When are the crosswind limits on a wet runway increased from 25 to 33 knots? (4)
A
- RWY CC 5+
- Flaps 5+
- MACTOW under 25%
- Runway width minimum 45m
13
Q
What is the maximum PF/PM altimeter difference during RVSM?
A
200ft
14
Q
What is the maximum altimeter difference when on ground?
A
50ft
15
Q
What is the maximum altimeter difference to field elevation?
A
75 feet.
16
Q
What is the maximum cabin differential?
A
9.1PSI
17
Q
When should you not use PACKs in HIGH flow?
A
Takeoff, approach and landing.
18
Q
What is minimum AP engagement altitude?
A
400ft
19
Q
Can you use aileron trim with AP engaged?
A
No, prohibited.
20
Q
What is the minimum use height of AP during SINGLE CH approach?
A
111ft.
21
Q
Below what altitude is the use of LVL CHG prohibited?
A
1000ft AFE.
22
Q
What are the autoland minimum and maximum glide slope angles?
A
3.25 to 2.5 degrees.
23
Q
When should engine ignition be turned on? (4)
A
- Takeoff
- Landing
- Heavy rain
- Anti-ice operation
24
Q
When can you not use R-TO method with regards to system failures?
A
Anti-skid INOP.
25
How long do you run APU before using as bleed source?
2 mins
26
What is the maximum flap altitude?
20,000ft
27
Can you use flaps during a hold in icing conditions?
No
28
Below what altitude is speed brake use prohibited?
1000FT RA
29
At what flap setting is speed brake extended operations prohibited?
Flaps 40, can only arm speed brake.
30
When can you land with flaps 15?
When instructed by NNC.
31
How long do you leave alternate flaps between extensions?
5 minutes.
32
Can you reset fuel pump CB inflight?
No
33
Maximum fuel tank temperature?
49 degrees
34
Minimum fuel tank temperature?
-43 degrees or 3 degrees above freezing point of fuel.
35
What is the maximum fuel imbalance?
453kg
36
Above what fuel value in the centre tank must both main tanks be full first?
453kg
37
When should EGPWS RW OVERRUN be inhibited with regards to temperature?
Below -40, and above 50 degrees. Or landing overweight.
38
What should you refer to if you get a warning or caution after engine start on the ground?
NNC, or MEL still available on ground.
39
When should you set STD when cleared to a FL on ground?
After thrust reduction altitude. 800FT normally.
40
When should ISFD be set to QNH inflight?
Before TOD.
41
Below what altitude are there no FMA call-outs?
400ft RA
42
On a go-around, when are FMA call outs started,
After gear up, or 400ft RA.
43
What are the thrust reduction and acceleration heights for a NADP1 departure?
Reduction 1500ft, acceleration at 3000ft
44
Where will you find if it’s NADP1?
LIDO CCI
45
How long do AC XFR buses need power before stall warning test?
4 minutes
46
When may LE flap droop and cause asymmetric warning?
Hydraulics off.
47
What is the minimum fuel in the centre tank for it to feed the APU?
453kg
48
When must flight deck not be left unattended with fuel pumps on?
Centre tank pump on.
49
How long must window heat switches be on before departure?
10 minutes
50
Which ignition for first flight of day?
R
51
What do you set minimums to on departure?
EOAA
52
What is the minimum hydraulic pressure?
2800PSI
53
What engine should be started first if no APU bleed air?
Number 1, then crossbleed to 2.
54
How long should each start attempt be (maximum)?
3 minutes. 10 seconds between attempts.
55
What is started usage limited to for extended engine motoring?
5 minutes.
56
What is the minimum motoring N2 for start lever IDLE DETENT?
20%N2. Max motoring when less than 1% increase in 5 seconds.
57
At what N2 should starter move to OFF on start?
63%
58
When is engine stable at idle during start? (EGT)
EGT start limit disappears
59
Minimum engine oil temperature for takeoff?
31 degrees
60
How long should engines be run after start?
3 minutes, 5 minutes if shutdown for more than 4 hours.
61
On a flaps 25 takeoff, when do you retract to F15?
At V2+15 bug, then as bug speeds.
62
When do you retract to F5 on a F10/15 takeoff?
At V2+15, then as bug speed.
63
Flap 5 takeoff, when do you retract to F1?
V2+15, then as bug speed.
64
If no OPTICLIMB, what speed do you use above FL100?
300kts/0.78M
65
What is the maximum difference between load sheet and OFP to still use OPTICLIMB?
2000kg
66
During climb, when should you turn 1 centre tank pump off?
When LP light illuminates. Other off when tank empty.
67
At what point will PM PA to cabin to prepare for arrival?
30 minutes to landing
68
When should descent procedure be complete by?
10,000ft
69
When should approach procedure be started?
Started before 10,000ft, TL or when altitude first set on MCP.
70
When should approach procedure be complete by?
Complete before IAF, radar vectors for final approach course or start of visual approach.
71
On what approaches does raw data not need to be monitored?
RNP approaches.
72
What should you add to VREF when planning to disconnect autothrottle on approach?
1/2 of steady HW component and full gust increment above steady wind.
Maximum is VREF+15. Or flap placard speed minus 5kts.
Nothing for TW.
73
What should bank be limited to if speed in Amber bracket?
15 degree bank
74
What is the minimum acceleration height on a go-around (all engines)?
1000FT AAL
75
What should you call when auto brake released?
‘Autobrake disarm’ when advisory illuminates.
76
How long should engines run after runway vacated?
3 minutes. Add 1 minute for every time thrust above 40%N1.
77
When does AT disengage after touchdown on autoland?
2 seconds after touchdown.
78
At what pitch attitude will you tail strike on rotation?
11 degrees.
79
Above what crosswinds are zero crab landings prohibited?
15 knots.
80
How many lights required for CATIIIA?
3 consecutive lights.
81
What autoland is anti skid required for?
CATIIIB
82
When do FD’s disappear on autoland?
50 feet, when FLARE annunciates. Only passive.
83
Is an automatic go around with OEI available for fail passive aircraft?
No.
84
When should F15+gear lowered on OEI ILS?
One dot deviation. Don’t change thrust.
85
When is fuel LOW illuminated?
Under 907kg in related main tank.
86
How long does full motion of outflow valve take?
20 seconds
87
What should be done to the PACKs when using conditioned air?
OFF
88
When should you reset field elevation when diverting?
TOD for the alternate.
89
What is the maximum landing altitude?
8400ft
90
When should you turn bleeds ON during a no bleed takeoff?
1500ft or OCH(A) in case of engine failure.
91
Which engine bleed on first when using no bleed takeoff?
Engine number 2.
92
When should you initially uplink winds inflight?
TOC.
93
How long between battery on and then APU start?
30 seconds.
94
After APU/GND POWER off, how long until battery can be switched off?
5 minutes.
95
Can you do a battery start on the MAX?
No, prohibited.
96
DC Voltmeter reading?
24V +/- 4
97
What is the minimum bleed duct pressure for crossbleed start?
30PSI, may need to advance thrust after start.
98
When should ALIGN light extinguish after alignment complete?
30 seconds.
99
Can you transfer fuel between tanks with passengers onboard?
Only if tank in which fuel being taken from is maintained above 900kg.
100
In normal operations, when should ORW be turned off?
Touch and goes
101
What takeoff procedure is prohibited on contaminated runways?
Assumed temperature method
102
When should flaps full travel be checked before departure?
During icing conditions
103
What is the ice shedding procedure?
Increased engine vibration, increase thrust to 50%N1 for a minimum of 5 seconds.
Every 60 minutes, or before takeoff.
104
When may ice shedding procedure be required? (3)
- EAI required
- OAT below 3 degrees
- increased engine vibrations
105
How long should you wait to turn engine bleeds on after de-icing?
1 minute, ensure fluid drained away from engines. May cause smoke, same as APU.
106
Below what temperature is EAI not required in flight for CLB and CRZ?
-40 SAT
107
Above what altitude may use of WAI cause bleed trip off?
FL350
108
What flap setting should flaps be retracted to after landing if operating in prolonged icing conditions?
F15
109
When should EAI be on on the ground?
At all times on ground in icing conditions.
110
What should STAB TRIM be set to during de-icing?
5.0 units, prevents ice running into control areas.
111
What AP mode should be selected in severe turbulence?
CWS
112
What flap setting used when OEI landing?
F15
113
When is reduced engine thrust takeoff prohibited? (4)
- contaminated runway
- ALTN EEC mode
- One or more Anti-skid channels INOP
- Potential wind shear exists
114
When should you not use improved climb takeoffs? (3)
- Contaminated runway
- Required by OMC
- Required by MEL
115
What should you limit turns to if OEI?
15 degrees until flaps retracted, then 25 degree AOB.
116
Operational landing distance factors?
15% margin on LDR.
1500’/7 second flare time from 50 feet.
Normal configuration
117
What is the minimum climb gradient for LVO’s?
2.5%
118
What is the OEI speed?
400kts
119
Standard taxi fuel?
200kg
120
Minimum OFP landing fuel?
1800kg
121
Maximum arrival fuel?
5400kg
122
What quantity in main tanks may you get CSFF?
As little as 2000kg in each tank.
123
Minimum RFFS?
7
124
Maximum last minute change?
500kg, whether off or onloaded, or relocated.
125
Are animals allowed?
Yes. Only in front hold.
126
How long does passenger oxygen supply last?
12 minutes
127
What do flap manoeuvre speeds allow?
Ensure full manoeuvre ability of atleast 40 degree AOB or 1.3G, to stick shaker.
128
Does Amber band vary with G load?
No, just the barber pole that moves.
129
What is VREF ICE?
VREF15 + 10 knots
130
What does white bug illuminate on takeoff?
V2+15
131
What is white bug on landing?
VREF + 20
132
Can you adjust rudder trim with autopilot on?
Yes, readjusts control column neutral point.
133
What is the preferred method of climbing less than 1000ft?
V/S
134
What can you do if AFDS is not allowing you to select modes?
Recycle FD’s can fix this
135
What speed for turns greater than 30 degrees on ground?
10 knots
136
When do you need target N1 set by?
60 knots
137
In what conditions may THR HOLD not set AT TO thrust in time?
20+ knot headwind
138
When using what are VMCG MCA not factors?
Using ATM, not a TO operating limit like derated takeoffs.
139
Maximum bank angle at V2+15 with TO flaps?
30 degrees AOB.
140
When does LNAV guidance activate on TO?
50 feet
141
When does VNAV engage on departure?
400ft
142
When would you not start after TO flap retraction at V2+15?
When using a F1 departure
143
OEI Rotation?
Slightly lower pitch and slower rate than all engines
144
ECON speed schedule above FL100?
280/0.78M
145
How many refuelling after a blend of fuel can you then assume the refuelled fuel temperatures?
3 consecutive
146
How quickly does fuel cool?
3 degrees per hour
147
Cruise fuel penalty if 2000ft above/below OFP altitude?
1-2% increase
148
What thrust do you set in FMC if OEI?
CON
149
How long to slow 280 to 250 knots with no speed brakes?
30 seconds and 2.5nm
150
Speed brake roughly improves descent by 10%
Yes
151
Above what flap setting should speed brakes be retracted?
F15 or greater
152
When should you reduce to holding speed?
3 mins before fix
153
Max holding speed below 14,000ft?
230knots
154
What is fail passive?
In event of a failure, causes no significant deviation of path/attitude, DA(H) used.
155
Are autolands allowed on contaminated runways?
Yes. Maintain keen eye on directional control
156
When will LAND2/3 illuminate?
1500ft AAL
157
On Autoland, when must both autopilots be engaged by?
800FT
158
Is go-around available once reverse selected?
No
159
What flap setting should you use in F15 OEI approach go around?
F1
160
Stable approach criteria? (4)
- on speed
- landing configuration
- centreline
- approach path
By 1000ft AAL
161
What is FUP speed in relation to VREF?
VREF+70 knots
162
What is barber pole above FL200?
Low speed buffet
Below 20,000ft is stick shaker.
163
When will current flap setting bug speed be shown on takeoff?
Only for F1 takeoff
