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Ops Manuals > OMB > Flashcards

OMB Flashcards

1
Q

Bank angle limitation in normal flight

A

30 degrees

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2
Q

What surface conditions is a T/O or LDG NOT permitted? (3)

A

Wet Ice
Water on top of compacted snow
Dry snow or wet snow over Ice

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3
Q

Are you allowed to take off on RWYCC0?

A

NOT permitted

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4
Q

Partial snow removal, minimum cleared width
I) 45m
2) >45m

A

1) 30m cleared

2) 45m cleared

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5
Q

Taxi speed on contaminated runways?

A

10kt

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6
Q

At speeds below 20kt what deactivates?

A

Anti skid

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7
Q

When is a OETD prohibited?
3 operational reasons
4 technical reasons

A

Taxi surface is slippery
LVP
Main gear power push

HYD Y pump serviceable
ELEC gen 1 serviceable
PACK 1 serviceable
No steering/braking capability

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8
Q

FO handling limits

A 
Max 20kt xwind inc gusts
No planned tailwind ldg *** FO
No Flap 3 *** FO
T/O min RVR 400m
Minima:
 -Cat 1 ILS
- minima for NPA
- 5000m for circling 
45m wide runway
No contaminated or slippery runway conditions (Declared by airport)
No reported windshear
No autoland normal ops
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9
Q

Latest point to take Flaps 2

A

2000ft TDZE OR 6nm

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10
Q

2 regulated calcs to do

A

RTOW

Dispatch RLDW

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11
Q

What do you do if parking brake chocks are not in place on walk around?

A

Ensure parking brake is set

Sufficient accumulator pressure

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12
Q

Battery voltage check - above what?

Charging cycle procedure:

A

Above 25.5V (charge above 50%)

Bat auto
Ext power on
After 20min
Batt off
Above 25.5V??
Auto
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13
Q

Apu fire test - what happens?

A

ECAM
CRC
MASTER WARNING

APU FIRE LIGHT RED
Squib and disch light on

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14
Q

How many sec do you wait before pushing APU Start pb sw?

A

3 sec

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15
Q

When must you NOT use APU bleed air?

A

When a LP or HP ground air unit is connected to the aircraft

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16
Q

Zone temp range

A

24 +- 6 C

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17
Q

ECAM recap button - how long press for and why?

A

3 sec

Recalls all warnings cleared or cancelled during last flight

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18
Q

HYD RES fluid level

Why can it sometimes vary?

A

Varies with OAT

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19
Q

CEO eng oil Q

A

9.5 + 0.5 qt/hr

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20
Q

NEO oil Q

A

Highest of:
10.6
Or
8.9 + estimated consumption 0.45 qt/hr

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21
Q

How to check relevant OEBs

A

BNTC section of tech log

Standard aircraft spec

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22
Q

Emergency equipment FLT deck

10 items

A

Life jacket (correct no, stowed correctly)

Axe (stowed correctly)

Smoke hood (stowed correctly)

Portable fire ext (stowed correctly, safety catch in pos, red disc ind present, pressure in green arc)

Ox mask stowed

Torch (correct no, stowed correctly)

Escape rope (stowed)

Protective gloves (correct no stowed correctly)

ELT (ARMED) stowed correctly

FAK (stowed and sealed)

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23
Q

Purpose of walk around

3

A

No impact damage to structure

No evidence of fuel, oil or HYD leak

All ground chess doors are closed

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24
Q

Complete IRS alignment following cases

4

A

First flight of the day

Crew change

GPS not avail, nav aid coverage poor on expected route

GPS not avail flight > 3hr

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25
Q

Fast alignment

A

When complete alignment not necessary.

IRS FMGC difference >5nm

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26
Q

ELEC Battery check

A

Off then ON (Initiates charging cycle of the battery)

10sec later

Check ELEC SD page for

Below 60A and DECREASING

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27
Q

Batt test - what if one batt not below 60A

A

Wait until end of charging cycle and do the test again

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28
Q

When is navaid deselection not required?

A

When you have GPS primary

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29
Q

FMS R2 asks for ground temp during route entry - why is this?

A

Optimise climb

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30
Q

RLDW

A

Use preliminary WX
MEL/CDL items
Verify against planned LDW

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31
Q

Baro max differences

A

20ft between PFD
100ft between ISIS

Check PFD alt indic vs airport elevation less than 75ft

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32
Q

A319 loading policy

A

Up to 150 bags in REAR HOLD
Max 50 in CP5, MAXIMISE USE CP4

Overspill in CP1

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33
Q

A320 loading policy

A

Load CP1 (approx 85 bags)
Remaining in CP4
Then use CP3

CP5 non normal situations

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34
Q

Engine Idle parameters

A

CEO 2/6/4/3 19.5%/58.5%/390c/275kg/h

NEO 2/7/5/3 19%/68%/520c/290kg/h

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35
Q

OETD considerations

A

Ramp and slope
Thrust/ jet blast effect
Workload
Direction taxi routing

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36
Q

Icing conditions definition

A

OAT (ground) TAT (flight) below 10C

Visible moisture of any form
Clouds, fog <1600m vis, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals

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37
Q

CEO Ice shedding

Procedure

Conditions

What about in freezing precipitation

A

Ground ops OAT +3C or less for more than 30min

70% N1 for 30sec not greater than 30min Intervals

Perform just before T/O - ensure normal eng parameters

FZ RA, DZ, FG, +SN ice shedding maybe be enhanced: not exceed 10min, 70% N1 momentarily (no hold time)

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38
Q

NEO ice shedding proc

A

50% N1 5 sec

interval not greater than 60min

120min in ground icing conditions - MAINTENANCE action

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39
Q

Why do you wait for start pressure before starting eng no 2?

A

Ensure bleed system valves are no longer in transit

Prevent eng 1 stall

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40
Q

TREF values

A

A319 ISA +30

A320 CEO/NEO ISA +29

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41
Q

WX RADAR RDR400 mode during taxi out?

A

ALL WX

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42
Q

ENG MOD sel on T/O

3

A

Runway is standing water

+RA is falling

+RA or severe turbulence is expected after T/O

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43
Q

Tailwind or crosswind >20kt technique

A

Full forward sidestick

Rapidly increase thrust from 50-70 % N1

Progressively increase thrust to T/O setting by 40kt GS

Sidestick neutral by 100kt

44
Q

MAX REC FL - what buffet?

A

At least 0.3G buffet margin

45
Q

When is a nav accuracy check required?

Give 4 answers

A

GPS PRIMARY lost

IRS only Nav

PROG page says accuracy low

NAV ACC DOWNGRADE on MCDU

46
Q

How do you manually check nav accuracy

A

Compare FMS pos with radio pos

Ie TO waypoint vs DME distance

<3nm reliable
>3nm not reliable

Massive difference - disengage managed NAV - USE RAW DATA

47
Q

How often should you check RVSM in flight?

A

Intervals of approximately 1hr

48
Q

In flight landing perf requirements

A

Factored landing distance is less than LDA for the selected conditions.

If it exceeds parameters - re computation with different input parameters will be required

49
Q

Max addition to VAPP in gusty conditions

A

VLS +15

50
Q

Stable criteria

A

Landing Config

Correct lateral vertical flight path (g/s, FMS, pApi)

+10/-5 speed

Bank angle max 15 deg

51
Q

MUST go around at 1000ft RA if?

A

Not in landing config

> Vapp + 30

52
Q

Go around at 500ft RA

A

Not stable

Landing checklist not complete

53
Q

Circling stability differences

A

400ft

Bank angle max 15 within +/- 30 deg of track

54
Q

Discontinued approach procedure

A

Cancel approach

Disarm approach mode (ILS or final app)

Lateral mode as required

Vertical mode as required (v/s or level off)

Adjust speed

55
Q

FINAL APP - TOO STEEP PATH after FDP

What do you do?

A

Do not use FINAL APP guidance for app - USE NAV FPA or TRK FPA

56
Q

Acceptable difference between MCDU and chart for VERTICAL PATH

A

0.1 deg

57
Q

Final app approach when can you press APP pb?

A

FDP is to waypoint

Aircraft is cleared for the approach

58
Q

Management of degraded Nav

VOR/NDB approach

A

Revert to appropriate raw data

NAV FPA
Or
TRK FPA

59
Q

Management of the degraded navigation

When can you continue with other system?

A

GPS PRIM lost on 1 ND

Nav acc downgrade on FMGS

60
Q

5 reasons to discontinue an RNP approach

A

GPS PRIM lost on both NDs

XTK>0.3nm

NAV FM POS DISAGREE ECAM

NAV ACC DOWNGRADE both FMGS

75ft below vertical path

61
Q

Circling approach

A

Circling minima 100 above level off

45 deg turn, 30sec wings level

Turn downwind, act sec

Abeam threshold start timer

3sec 100ft AAL

62
Q

“Speed”

A

+10 -5

63
Q

“Sink rate”

A

V/s > 1000fpm

64
Q

“Bank”

A

Greater than 7 deg

65
Q

“Pitch”

A

Below -2.5 deg

Above 10 deg (A320/A319)

66
Q

“LOC” or “GLIDE”

A

Half dot

67
Q

“Cross track”

A

0.1nm deviation final app mode

68
Q

“V DEV”

A

Half dot

69
Q

“Course”

A

1/2 dot VOR

5 deg ADF

70
Q

“PITCH PITCH”

A

+10 deg a319/a320 during landing

71
Q

“PITCH” during G/A

A

Greater than 20 up

Less than 10 up

72
Q

“SINK RATE” during G/A

A

If there is no climb rate

73
Q

What is a steeper angle approach?

A

3.5-4.5 degrees

74
Q

What approach angle is the A320 certified to fly to?

A

4.5 deg

75
Q

When is a stabilised approach required?

A

> 3.5deg

76
Q

An unplanned emergency landing in Imminent

A

Attention crew brace brace

77
Q

Cabin crew take up landing pos

A

Passing 2000ft in Des for a planned emergency landing

78
Q

Brace brace

A

500ft Des for a planned emergency landing

79
Q

Climb gradient requirement
Second segment
Final segment

A

Second 2.4% gross

Final 1.2% gross

80
Q

Obstacle clearance take off path

A

35ft above the end of the take off distance

81
Q

Net take off path must clear all obstacles by

A

35ft vertically

90m +0.125*D

82
Q

When is an engine considered secure?

A

Engine master off

Fire or damage fire switch is pushed and first agent discharged (or second agent if light still illum)

83
Q

V2 may be increased (by efb calc) when and why?

A

Excess take off distance available

Improve second segment climb

84
Q

Flex - why do you have longer stop distances than efb says

A

1) lower TAS at ambient temp than assumed flex temp

2) thrust delivered by eng is sig higher at ambient temp than assumed flex temp (higher air density)

85
Q

2 reasons flex take off is not allowed

A

Contaminated runway

Dispatch with landing gear extended

86
Q

Fluid contaminants

Types

Depth

Threats

A

Dry snow
Wet snow
Standing water
Slush

Depth of more than 3mm

Precipitation drag

Hydro planing

87
Q

Hard contaminant

A

Compacted snow
Ice
Wet ice

ONLY reduce friction force

88
Q

Take off perf on a contaminated runway is based on:

A

TYPE and DEPTH as reported in RCR

89
Q

contaminated runway screen height

A

15ft instead of 35

90
Q

Contamination equivalences

A

Up to 3mm of dry snow, wet snow, standing water, slush = WET

FROST = WET

Snow scenarios see OMB

91
Q

When can you NOT DISPATCH off a narrow runway?

A

NWS inop

One or more brakes inop

92
Q

When is a rolling take off not permitted?

A

TOGA due to a perf lim (RWY/OBS)

93
Q

Calculation reduce ASD for a flex T/O

A

3% for every 10C temp between flex and OAT

Eg. Flex 50, OAT 10
Difference is 40 = 4 lots of 10

0.03*4=0.12 REDUCE 12% ASD

94
Q

Purpose of a dispatch landing calc

A

Determine max allowable landing weight

Anticipated wx and surface conditions

95
Q

In flight landing per purpose

A

Determine factored landing distance to assess actual margins on LDA

Actual conditions

Allow crew to select appropriate flap, rev, autobrake

96
Q

When must an RCR be supplied?

A

When a runway is not DRY

97
Q

Take off and dispatch planning, crew shall use

A

Type of Contam and DEPTH

98
Q

In flight landing perf crew shall use?

A

RCR actual conditions

99
Q

When can you NOT do a FLAP 3

A

Tailwind greater than 10kt

Technical defect affecting landing perf

No runway contamination

100
Q

If brake mode MANUAL is used to ensure FLD < LDA

You MUST:

A

Select MED autobrake

Max reverse

PF over ride and brake manually at nose wheel touchdown

101
Q

Taxi fuel burn

A

10kg/min

7kg/min OETD

102
Q

Approach fuel burn

A

17kg/min

103
Q

Holding fuel burn

1500ft

A

40kg/min

104
Q

Adequate aerodrome distance

A

A319 380nm

A320 400nm

105
Q

Take off alternate

A

OEI still air

320nm

Ops Manuals (6 decks)

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