OMA / OMB Flashcards

Question 1

Q

When do we not need a destination alternate

Answer

A

o Flight < 6 hours
o Vis 5 km +
o Ceiling 2,000 feet or Circling + 500 feet if greater.
o Two Separate Runways

Question 2

Q

When can we consider runways to be separated?

Answer

A

o Separate Approach Procedures based on Separate Approach Aids
o If they cross a blockage on one does not prevent the planned operation on the other.

Question 3

Q

When do we require two destination alternates?

Answer

A

o If destination weather is unavailable.
o If destination weather is below planning minima for ETA ±1 hour
o Landing not assured at destination as Landing depends on Specific Wind Component / runway state.

Question 4

Q

When planning for an alternate, the TAF indicates in a prob/tempo that the weather will be below limits.
Can this alternate be used?

Answer

A

SAM EDIT: I’M NOT SURE THIS IS SO SIMPLE.
OMA TABLE 8.1.6.1 shows the applicability criteria.

For me it means:
Tempo / Prob which shows improvement AT DEST ALT should be disregard
If deterioration and transient / showery / short-lived then mean wind and dust exceeding limits may be disregard

If it is a persistent (haze, mist, fog) then mean wind should be within required limits.

. o Yes
o Prob/tempo can be disregarded

Question 5

Q

What is the planning minima for a Take-off alternate?

Answer

A

o At or above the minima for the expected instrument approach.
o Any limitation related to one engine inop or dispatch under MEL shall be taken into consideration.

Question 6

Q

Within what distance must a Take-off alternate be?

Answer

A

o 1 hour still air flight time at 1 eng inop cruise speed

o 320 nm

Question 7

Q

Within what distance must a cruise alternate be?

Answer

A

o A319 - 380 nm

o A320 - 400 nm

Question 8

Q

What is the planning minima for a destination alternate if only a non-precision approach is available?

Answer

A

o MDA + 200 feet

o RVR + 1,000 m

Question 9

Q

How long is a tempo forecast expected to last?

Answer

A

o Individually less than one hour each episode

o In aggregate less than half of the period specified.

Question 10

Q

How much extra fuel should be carried for LVPs?

Answer

A

o Half an hour

o About 1,000 kg

Question 11

Q

What is the final reserve?

Answer

A

o 30 minutes holding fuel
o 1,500 feet above Destination Alternate Aerodrome
o ISA Conditions
o Expected weight overhead the Destination Alternate Aerodrome.

Question 12

Q

If planning to tanker maximum fuel, what are the maximum landing weight considerations to base your tanker figure around?

Answer

A

o MLW – (1% of MLW)
o A320 LW = MLW – 660 kg = 65,340 kg
o A319 LW = MLW – 610 kg = 60,390 kg

Question 13

Q

When can you not tanker fuel?

Answer

A

o When you expect to land on a contaminated or slippery runway.
o When expecting to land on a performance limited runway.

Question 14

Q

For fuel planning, what is the associated fuel usage associated with –
 Engine Anti Ice

Answer

A

o 1 kg/min or 2kg/min in the hold

Question 15

Q

For fuel planning, what is the associated fuel usage associated with –
 Engine + Wing Anti Ice

Answer

A

o 2 kg/min or 3 kg/min in the hold

Question 16

Q

For fuel planning, what is the associated fuel usage associated with –
 Taxi Fuel

Answer

A

o Single Engine: 7 kg/min

o Two Engines: 10 kg/min.

Question 17

Q

For fuel planning, what is the associated fuel usage associated with –
 APU Fuel

Answer

A

o 2 kg/min (120 kg/hour)

Question 18

Q

For fuel planning, what is the associated fuel usage associated with –
 Trip fuel adjustment for increased track mileage, or reduced track mileage

Answer

A

o Reduction of mileage: 4 kg / nm

o Increase in mileage: 5 kg / nm

Question 19

Q

What is contingency fuel?

Answer

A

o 5% of trip fuel, or

o 5 minutes holding at 1,500 feet above destination aerodrome, ISA conditions

Question 20

Q

What is contingency fuel carried for?

Answer

A

o Unforeseen adverse circumstances:
o Unfavourable Flight Level
o Unfavourable Track
o Unfavourable Unforecast Wind

Question 21

Q

What is the minimum RFF category for departure, destination and alternates?

Answer

A

o Departure/Destination: 4 (temporary downgrade <72 hours)
o Alternates: Non UK: 4
UK: 5

Question 22

Q

When can we continue to fly to destination knowing we will get there below CNR?

Answer

A

o Landing at destination assured

o EAT or Maximum Delay Known

Question 23

Q

What is the fuel for landing for Normal, Caution and Emergency phases? And what would your actions be?

Answer

A

o Normal: CNR
o Caution: May be below CNR at destination.
 Re-plan with a closer alternate
 Decrease speed (Cost Index Minimum)
 Obtain direct routes
 Fly optimum Flight Level
 Land & refuel.
o Emergency: Below Final Reserve Fuel at destination.
o May land with less than final reserve fuel: “PAN” call reporting fuel remaining in minutes
o WILL land with less than final reserve fuel: “MAYDAY” call reporting fuel remaining in minutes.

Question 24

Q

What are the limitations of LMC’s?

Eg max changes, when should a new load sheet be required, new perf calculations be done?

Answer

A

o New load sheet required if +10 or -20 Pax
o New Performance calculation if;
 Positive LMC & TOGA Take-off planned
 Positive LMC > 250 kg
 MACTOW changed by more than 2%

Question 25

Q

What is the minimum oil quantity?

Answer

A

o 9.5 quarts + 0.5 quart per hour of expected flight.

Question 26

Q

What are the RVSM requirements?

Answer

A

o 2 ADRs
o 2 PFDs (Primary Altimeters must agree within 200 feet prior to & during RVSM flight.)
o 1 AP
o 1 FCU
o 1 FWC
o 1 Transponder with Mode S

Question 27

Q

When does positioning count as a sector?

Answer

A

o If positioning within an FDP containing a split duty.

o Unless it is at the end of the FDP then it doesn’t count as a sector.

Question 28

Q

When can we extend an FDP as part of a split duty?

Answer

A

o Two or more sectors separated by a period of time less than a minimum rest period
o < 3hours rest: max. extension is NIL
o 3 to 10 hours rest: max extension is half of the consecutive hours of rest taken.

Question 29

Q

What are the absolute limits on flying hours?

Answer

A

o 28 consecutive days: 100 hours

o 1 Year: 900 hours

Question 30

Q

What are the maximum duty hours?

Answer

A

o 7 consecutive days: 55 hours (can be extended to 60 due to unforeseen delays.)
o 14 consecutive days: 95 hours
o 28 consecutive days: 190 hours

Question 31

Q

How many hours can go into discretion to extend an FDP?

Answer

A

3 hours except in cases of emergency

Question 32

Q

When must a discretion report be filed?

Answer

A

o Discretion > 2 hours
o Reduced Rest > 1 hour
o Exceedance of cumulative limits on flying.

Question 33

Q

By how much can you reduce a rest period?

Answer

A

o Home base: maximum of 1 hour, but not less than 12 hours Flight Deck / 11 hours Cabin Crew.
o Away from Base: minimum requirement is that allocated room must be available for minimum of 10 hours.

Question 34

Q

State a number of responsibilities of the commander?

Answer

A

o Safe operation of the aircraft & for the safety of its occupants & cargo
o May offload any pax or cargo that in his opinion will represent a potential hazard to safety of the aircraft
o Will not allow any pax to be drunk to the extent that the safety of the aircraft or occupants is compromised
o In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision or action, take any action he deems necessary & in such an event he may deviate from the rules, operational procedures & methods in the interests of safety.

Question 35

Q

What are the First Officer handling limits?

Answer

A

o Cross Wind: 20 knots
o No planned tailwind for *** FO
o No Flaps 3 landings for *** FO (unless required by an emergency procedure.)
o No FO takeoff if VIS < 400 m
o No Contaminated Runway
o No Windshear
o Minimum Runway width 45 m
o Minimum VIS for Circling 5,000 m

Question 36

Q

What is the procedure for reporting a bird strike?

Answer

A

o Inform ATC at the time of incident.

o Extra field to be completed on the SafetyNet on-line form.

Question 37

Q

When may flex not be used for takeoff?

Answer

A

CORRECTION: (reference: OMB 4.5.6)

o Contaminated Runway
o Dispatch planned with landing gear extended

NOT CORRECT:
o Windshear reported

Or is it? FCOM PER TOF THR FLX 40

Question 38

Q

What are the minimum take off climb gradients?

Answer

A

o Second Segment: 2.4% Gross
o Final Segment: 1.2% Gross
Ref OMB 4.4.2

Question 39

Q

How would you calculate a landing and approach climb gradient?
Approach Climb: One engine inoperative, gear up & approach configuration.
Landing Climb: All engines operating, gear down & approach configuration.

Answer

A

 Approach climb 2.1% gross (LPC LDG Perf. gives this, hence Single Engine Case considered by the LPC.)
 LOW VIS climb 2.5% gross (More stringent version of approach climb applied if DH

Question 40

Q

What are the low visibility wind limits?

Answer

A

 Headwind - 30 knots
 Crosswind - 20 knots
 Tailwind - 10 knots

Question 41

Q

What is the minimum RVR for takeoff? What if you’re not LVO qualified? What visual segment is required?

Answer

A

 125 metres
 150 metres if not LVO qualified.
 90 metre visual segment, this is an aircraft design requirement, A320 family compliant.

Question 42

Q

Is the third segment RVR required for takeoff or landing?

Answer

A

 Only if relevant, ie
o Less than 60 knots expected after an RTO at V1 in the Take-off case (ADS < ⅔ TODR to be certain.)
o Less than 60 knots during the landing roll. (LDR Vs LDA should give you an indication of this.)

Question 43

Q

Do you need RVR’s for takeoff in LVP’s or is met visibility OK?

Answer

A

 Yes.

 RVR required as conversion from Met VIS only allowed for landing & if RVR required is > 800m.

Question 44

Q

Do you need RVR’s for takeoff in LVP’s or is met visibility OK?

Answer

A

 Yes.

 RVR required as conversion from Met VIS only allowed for landing & if RVR required is > 800m.

Question 45

Q

When do LVP’s come in force?

Answer

A

 RVR < 600 m

 Ceiling < 200 feet

Question 46

Q

How many infants may be carried on board?

Answer

A

 2 per accompanying adult. (8 life jackets on 319, 10 on 320, 8 life cots)

Question 47

Q

Circling approach, when must you disconnect the autopilot?

Answer

A

 100 feet below the MDA.

Question 48

Q

The dispatcher informs you human remains are being carried. Can you carry them? What about ashes?

Answer

A

 No
 Unless Ashes:
o Suitable container
o Death Certificate
o Cremation Certificate
o Hand Baggage Only.

Question 49

Q

Tell me about the carriage of musical instruments, specifically cellos?

Answer

A

 Small instruments to fit into overhead locker.
 Where not practical to combine instrument with another item of hand luggage, one small extra item allowed
 Larger instruments eg Cellos:
o Seat to be purchased
o Window seat
o Not a restricted seat
o Centre of mass < 30 cm above the top of seat cushion
o Standard weight 10 kg (subject to local assessment) [GHM]

Question 50

Q

A passenger arrives on a stretcher, can we carry him?

Question 51

Q

Which seats on the airbus are restricted?

Answer

A

 Row 1, A B C D
 Overwing Rows
 Last Row, C D

Question 52

Q

Who may not sit in restricted seats?

Answer

A

 C - Children < 16 years
 H - Hearing, Sight or other disability
 I - Infants on Laps
 P - Pregnant, Prisoners
 P - Physical Size
 E - Elderly if frail
 D - Deportees

Question 53

Q

Where would you find a list of dangerous goods, and which can we carry?

Answer

A

 OMA 9.1.3
 Exceptions are:
o Items for airworthiness or operating reasons
o To provide, during flight, medical aid to a patient.

Question 54

Q

What if someone turned up on board carrying dangerous goods, what would you do if: a) on the ground, b) in flight?

Answer

A

 Response in both cases would depend very much on the nature of the dangerous goods in question.

Question 55

Q

What does the REC MAX altitude mean?

Answer

A

 Displayed on the MCDU PROG PAGE
 Provides a 0.3g Buffet Margin
 Aircraft will climb at 300 fpm at Max CLB Thrust
 Aircraft will cruise in level flight at Max CRZ Thrust
 Aircraft will maintain a speed above green dot & below VMO/MMO
 A higher FL can be selected up to a point where a 0.2g buffet margin is reached.
 Maximum FL selectable is FL398

Question 56

Q

What does the OPT ALT mean and how is it calculated?

Answer

A

 Based on Cost Index, Weight and FMGC Wind Data
 Compromise between Time and Fuel Saving
 Requires a 15 minute CRZ time

Question 57

Q

What is the minimum number of cabin crew?

Question 58

Q

Can you operate with three cabin crew? What if the senior goes sick down route? What are the considerations/actions?

Answer

A

 Yes
 Uprank next most senior crew member (1 year experience, 20 sectors on type)
 Duty Pilot Authorisation Required
 150 Pax maximum
 Consider the number of *** crew
 Cannot leave or transit a Crew Base.

Question 59

Q

Can you board the aircraft with only 3 cabin crew? What are the considerations?

Answer

A

 Yes
 SCCM must be present
 No refuelling
 1 pilot must be present & on the flight deck
 150 pax maximum

Question 60

Q

What levels of bomb warnings are there?

Answer

A

 RED - Specific & credible – Requires immediate action ie diversion/disembarkation.
 AMBER (Ground Only) doubtful credibility - Discuss with Network Duty Manager course of action.
 GREEN - Not specific, not credible – No action required.

Question 61

Q

You receive a RED bomb warning. What would you do?

On Stand

Answer

A

o Disembark Pax & Crew
o Hand Baggage to be taken off with them.
o Give a ‘Security Problem’ as the reason.
o Pax to be taken to location separate from other passengers
o Advise ground crews to vacate the area
o Remove aircraft to a remote location & search if time exists.
o After Police give “All Clear”
 Full search of aircraft including catering, etc.
 All Passengers, cabin & hold baggage to be screened again
 Pax to be reconciled with their luggage
 All of this before re-embarkation is permitted.

Question 62

Q

You receive a RED bomb warning. What would you do?

During taxi

Answer

A

o Advise ATC & passengers of a “Security Problem.”
o Request details of remote parking requirements
o Request immediate availability of steps to the aircraft
o Advise ATC of a need to locate passengers 200 m upwind of the aircraft as quickly as possible.
o Disembark Pax & Crew
o Hand Baggage to be taken with them
o Only use slides if steps are not available (normal evac procedures now apply)

Question 63

Q

You receive a RED bomb warning. What would you do?

In Flight

Answer

A

o Declare an emergency
o Divert to nearest suitable airfield
o Fly as normally as possible, in accordance with checklist, etc. (turbulence penetration speed good compromise)
o Brief Cabin Crew to conduct a discrete search of toilets & galleys for suspicious articles.
o Do not raise cabin altitude, maintain or reduce if possible, Level off & descend to FL100 when possible.
o PA: Should state that threat is against the airline & although most likely a hoax, must be treated seriously.
o On landing same as for threat on taxi.

Question 64

Q

What is the difference between a precautionary and emergency landing?

Answer

A

 A precautionary landing is one in which under normal circumstances there will be no requirement to evacuate.

Answer 63

A

 Unplanned: “ATTENTION CREW, BRACE BRACE.”
 Planned: 2,000 feet “CABIN CREW TAKE UP LANDING POSITIONS.”
500 feet “BRACE, BRACE.”

Answer 64

A

 Obvious, Immediate & life threatening situation, ie catastrophic, any crew member may initiate the evacuation.

Answer 65

A

 Serious Structural Damage (hole in the fuselage)
 Death or injury of the occupants.
 Examples:
 Ditching
 Uncontrolled cabin fire / smoke
 Severe structural damage, eg hole in the fuselage, abnormal attitude severe scraping sound as aircraft came to a stop.

Answer 66

A

Full Length Intersection
Heavy 2 mins 3 mins
A380 3 mins 4 mins

Answer 67

A

Upper Medium (B757) 4 miles
Heavy 5 miles
A380 7 miles

Answer 68

A

 FL290
 1,000 feet vertically
 QRH SI-70

Answer 69

A

 3mm of frost allowed on lower wing surfaces in area cold soaked by fuel.
 Thin hoarfrost is acceptable, provided surface features can still be seen, on the:
 Fuselage
 Radome
 Engine Cowl

Answer 70

A

 By mechanical methods only, ie a brush.

Answer 71

A

 OAT ≤ 10⁰C and visible moisture present

 If you plan to use anti-ice before one engine out acceleration altitude, ie cloud ceiling ≤ 1 engine out accel’n alt.

Answer 72

A

 72 knots

Answer 73

A

 ≈ 4⁰ Nose Up

Answer 74

A

 Crosswind > 20 knots
o Sidestick Fully Forward
o Set Thrust to 50% N1, allow it to stabilise.
o Rapidly set 70% N1
o Then smoothly increase power to T/o Power detent (FLEX or TOGA as appropriate) by 40 knots GS.
o At 80 knots slowly release the Sidestick to be neutral by 100 knots.

Answer 75

A

 130 knots

Answer 76

A

 100 feet aal

Answer 77

A

 10 nm

Answer 78

A

 1,000 feet clearance for obstacles up to 5,000 feet

 2,000 feet clearance for obstacles above 5,000 feet.

Answer 79

A

 Yes

 Using the tables provided in OMA 8.1.1.3 & QRH SI-20

Answer 80

A

 Cat C

Answer 81

A

 Cat B
 Cat B Restricted
 By signing the OFP.

Answer 82

A

 If severe ice accretion expected or if any indication of icing on the airframe.
 If switched on whilst on the ground, it runs a 30 second test sequence then closes for as long as the aircraft is on the ground.

Answer 83

A

 SAT: Static Air Temperature which is the ambient temperature of the air.
 TAT: Total Air Temperature which is the temperature measured in the pitot tube.
This is higher than SAT due to friction & adiabatic increase due to air compression, called ‘Ram Rise.’

Answer 84

A

 Normally yes, but it depends on the nature of the failure that put you onto the Alternate Braking System.
Anti-skid may be either deactivated:
o Electrically: A/SKID NW STRG sw off, Power Supply Failure or BSCU Failure
o Hydraulically: G+Y LO PR, or brakes supplied by accumulator pressure only.

Answer 85

A

 Above 20 knots ground speed, it is deactivated below this speed.

Answer 86

A

 Normal Brakes
 Alternate Brakes with Anti-skid
 Alternate Brakes without Anti-skid
 Park Brake

Answer 87

A

 If it’s available it is not downgraded. The BSCU still operates it, albeit via different valves.

Answer 88

A

 If this is a temporary state due to passing Wx, possibly hold until conditions improve.
 Check Landing performance in the LPC.
 Consider crosswind by checking QRH-IFL
 Perhaps consider a diversion to a more suitable airfield if safest option.

Answer 89

A

 ENG MODE SEL - IGN
 THRUST LEVERS - IDLE
 SPEED - 300 knots (Optimum Relight Speed)
 PITCH - 3⁰ Nose Down is a good initial starting point
 LANDING STRATEGY Determine (Choose an airfield set up approach & extend cerntreline)

 At 300 knots, the aircraft can fly 2 nm per 1,000 feet (no wind)
 During final approach 6⁰ Glideslope is realistic.
 Don’t worry if you need to bust Flap Speeds to configure
 Yellow electric pump may help to lower the gear if Yellow Hydraulics Available (Check HYD Page)

Answer 90

A

 OPEN CLB mode disregards all altitude constraints up to the FCU selected altitude.
 CLB mode meets all constraints defined in the FMGC (will not adjust speed to meet a missed constraint though)

Answer 91

A

 Aircraft is on GROUND, and
 Either: Park Brake is set, or NWS is in the Towing Position, and
 One Engine Master is ON and the other is OFF
 Also, it will not run within 40 seconds of Cargo Door operation.

Answer 92

A

Flight controls (below priority valve)

Answer 93

A

 Above FL320 - M0.76
 FL200 – FL320 - 275 knots
 Below FL200 - 250 knots
 No Difference between A319 & A320.

Answer 94

A

 SIGNS - ON
 AP - KEEP ON
 A/THR - OFF (if thrust changes become excessive)
 DESCENT - CONSIDER
 Brief CC - NITS style brief
 N - Flight Conditions & expected severity
 I - Whether crew should be seated/acceptable level of service
 T - Expected duration of turbulence
 S - Any other relevant information.

Answer 95

A

 You select the new FL on the FCU
 Vertical Mode reverts to V/S
 Lateral Mode remains unchanged.

Answer 96

A

 V/S guidance has priority over the speed guidance.

 So the FMGC may decelerate to achieve the selected V/S, potentially causing a Low Speed Event.

Answer 97

A

 Yes

 Being held at the holding point is one of the unforeseen events that contingency fuel is loaded to protect against.

Answer 98

A

 VHF1 - Both Pilots to monitor at all times
 VHF2 - If using VHF2, continue to monitor VHF1 to ensure continued SA
During CRZ both pilots monitor VHF2 at an audible volume.
 DCL - Preferred method of obtaining clearance.
Both pilots to verify the printed clearance & confirmation
 R/T Clearance - Both pilots must hear, understand & verify the clearance.
Headsets must be worn.

Answer 99

A

 Yes,
 In case of strong or gusty crosswind greater than 20 knots, VAPP should be at least VLS + 5 knots.
 The 5 knot increment above VLS may be increased up to 15 knots at the flight crew’s discretion.

Answer 100

A

 No, unless as a last resort Captain considers it necessary to do so for the safe continuation of the flight.
 Only one re-engagement should be attempted.

Answer 101

A

 Fuel Pumps of any tank.

Answer 102

A

 Take-Off:
 Standing Water
 Heavy Rain
 Heavy Rain or severe turbulence expected after Take-off
 Descent:
 Heavy Precipitation encountered or expected
 Standing water on Landing Runway

Answer 103

A

RNAV 1 - P-RNAV Terminal Air including below MFA 1.0 nm
RNAV 5 - B-RNAV Enroute and airspace above MFA5.0 nm
RNP APCH RNAV (GNSS) or (GPS) Approach
RNAV final approach with straight segments only
0.3 nm
RNP AR APCH: special authorisation required (specified in OMC & ABS) due to complexity of procedure.
OMA 8.3.2.6

Answer 104

A

 200 feet

Answer 105

A

 OMA, just states:

o “When encountering turbulence, pilots are urgently requested to report such conditions to ATC ASAP.”

Answer 106

A

 No check required if GPS PRIMARY is available.
 Otherwise:
o IRS only navigation
o PROG PAGE: LOW ACCURACY
o NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD on MCDU
OMB 2.3.15

Answer 107

A

 Error 3 nm, FM Position not reliable

Answer 108

A

 OMA 8.1.3.11

Answer 109

A

 Yes, but you may not continue below 1,000 feet above TDZE unless RVR > applicable minima.

Answer 110

A

 Issued in the UK, complies with the new EASA rules & will be revalidated as an EASA licence once it expires. Has to be revalidated every 5 years.
 Contains a valid Type Rating which is valid for 1 year. I’m required to pass a proficiency check each year to keep this current (LPC) & this also satisfies the requirements for a valid IR.
The check can be carried out within the 3 month period preceding the expiry of the rating.
 A valid Class 1 medical is required in order to exercise the privileges of the license, the medical is also renewable every year.

Answer 111

A

 38 knots including gusts
 Narrow Runway:
 DRY: 38 knots
 WET: 33 knots
 Contaminated 10 knot

Answer 112

A

No

OMB 4.8

Answer 113

A

 Yes, as this is not considered to be a Narrow Runway, see flowchart in QRH CW-30

Answer 114

A

 Passenger Doors - 65 knots
 Cargo Doors - 40 knots
Increasing to 50 knots if aircraft into wind or Cargo Door on Leeward Side.
 Cargo Doors must be closed before wind reaches 65 knots.

Answer 115

A

 1 deflated tire, on 1 or more gear, limit 3 - 7 knots when turning
 2 deflated tires, on same gear - 3 knots 30⁰
 Damaged tires - Do Not Taxi

Answer 116

A

 Non precision approach - MDA
 Cat 1 ILS - 160 feet
 Cat 2 ILS - 80 feet
 Circling approach - MDA – 100 feet

Answer 117

A

 Brake Fans Off - 300⁰C

 Brake Fans On - 150⁰C

Answer 118

A

 FCOM LIM-35

Answer 119

A

 3 starter motor cycles
 Wait 60 minutes
 Attempt 3 more

Answer 120

A

 4 consecutive cycles (max 2 minutes each)
 Pause between start attempts 20 seconds
 15 minute cooling period after 4 starts attempts
 No running engagement of the starter when N2 above 20%

Answer 121

A

 FLAPS - 20,000 feet

 GEAR - 25,000 feet

Answer 122

A

 Extended - 280 knots
 Extend - 250 knots
 Retract - 220 knots

Answer 123

A

 FLAPS 1 - 230 knots
 FLAPS 1+F - 215 knots
 FLAPS 2 - 200 knots
 FLAPS 3 - 185 knots
 FLAPS FULL - 177 knots

Answer 124

A

 Local Anaesthetic - 24 hours
 General Anaesthetic - 48 hours
 Alcohol - 10 hours minimum (less than 5 units in 14 hours preceding the 10 hr ban)
 Deep sea diving (>10m) - 48 hours
 Blood donation - 24 hours

Answer 125

A

 Met Vis can be converted to RVR using the table at OMA 8.1.3.10
Provided:
o Only used for landing
o Only used to calculate a required RVR > 800m
o Not used if RVR is reported

Answer 126

A

 In the Cabin under certain circumstances;
o UK Police & Protection Officers if escorting a protected person
o Italian & Spanish Domestic Flights – Police Officers
o Certain requirements apply. OMA 9.2.
 In the hold:
o Sporting Firearms & ammunition
o Ammunition not loose & maximum 5 kg.
OMA 9.2 ref

Answer 127

A

 Position error of the IRS position

 OMB 2.3.25.2 Shutdown

Answer 128

A

 Rapid Align - residual ground speed > 5 knots
 Failed if - residual ground speed > 15 knots after 2 consecutive flights
 Failed if - residual ground speed > 21 knots
 Full Align if:
 First Flight of the Day
 GPS not available & long flights in poor nav aid coverage airspace expected

(not sure if this is still true, table in part b 2.3.22 shutdown)

Answer 129

A

 PFDs within 20 feet of each other
 PFDs within 25 feet of airfield elevation
 PFDs within 100 feet of ISIS

Answer 130

A

 To ensure auto-thrust SPEED mode

 To avoid possible confusion between FD bar orders & TCAS aural & VSI orders

Answer 131

A

 Surface temperature is -10⁰C or below.

Answer 132

A

 Continue if, by 1,000 feet:
 ECAM (check-list items) complete
 RVR at least equal to that required for downgrade
 Briefing updated to include new procedure & DH ref. the downgrade
 Decision to downgrade is completed by 1,000 feet above TDZE.

Answer 133

A

 ALPHA FLOOR activation.
 Cavalry Charge – Loss of AP
 Triple Click – Downgrade of Capability
 Single Chime – Amber Caution
 Engine failure

Answer 134

A

EDITED: THE AGE IS 13 NOT 14!!!!!
OMA 8.2.2.5

 Yes
 Must be accompanied by a passenger of age 16 years or above.
 Max ten under 13 year olds to each passenger of over 16 years.

Answer 135

A

 Load Factor Limitation - Similar to that in Normal Law
 Low Speed Stability - Gentle nose down signal from 5 to 10 knots above VSW, replaces
α protection.
 High Speed Stability - Nose Up demand introduced above VMO/MMO

Answer 136

A

 This is the only way to introduce a simplified Flare Mode.

 Instead of the nose down demand below 50 feet, you just get the Direct stick-to-elevator relationship

Answer 137

A

 800 feet - Landing Inhibit
 700 feet - FMGC Data Lock (ILS CRS, FREQ & Performance Data)
 500 feet - “Stable/check” or “Not Stable Go-Around / Go-Around Flaps”
 400 feet - LAND on FMA (Displayed if LOC & GS modes active & at least one RA available.)
PF Checks Inbound Course
 350 feet - If no LAND seen on FCU, Go-Around
 200 feet - Autoland Light becomes Active, Go-Around if it comes on.
 100 feet - ALERT HEIGHT, based on Fail Operational Auto-land System
Below Alert height continue for single failures unless Autoland Light Comes ON.
 40 feet - FLARE on FCU, if not seen Go-Around unless visual refs allow manual landing.
 30 feet - THRUST IDLE
 10 feet - “Retard”
 Touchdown - ROLLOUT on FMA

Answer 138

A

 3 outboard slats (3, 4 & 5)

Answer 139

A

 On a Cold Aircraft
 Turnarounds in the UK
 Turnarounds in Amman
 Turnarounds in Moscow
 Prior to departure to Amman or Tel Aviv

Answer 140

A

 First Officers:
o 100 flying hours & 50 sectors within consolidation period of 120 days from FLC.
 Captains:
o 100 flying hours & 50 sectors within consolidation period of 120 days from FLC.
o Successful completion of the first recurrent Simulator Check.

Answer 141

A

 A Tail Scrape will occur:
o A319: - 15.5⁰ (13.9⁰ LDG Gear Compressed)
o A320: - 13.5⁰ (11.7⁰ LDG Gear Compressed)
 “PITCH” should be called at 10⁰ nose up.

Answer 142

A

o When calculating the IFLD on the LPC as it defaults to MAX reverse for both WET & DRY runways

Is this still true?

Answer 143

A

o None if using the QRH.

o Apply as many as required using the LPC.

Answer 144

A

 Take-off: DRY
 Landing (Dispatch) WET
 Landing (In-Flight) GOOD

Answer 145

A

 Take-off: ICY
 Landing (Dispatch) STANDING WATER
 Landing (In-Flight) MEDIUM

Answer 146

A

 Normal Operations - VAPP
 Gusty Winds - VAPP + 5 to VAPP + 15 knots
 Ice Accretion - VAPP + 5 knots in CONF FULL
 Ice Accretions - VAPP + 10 knots in CONF 3

Answer 147

A

 During Daylight VMC conditions with terrain & obstacles clearly in sight, alert may be considered cautionary.

Answer 148

A

 FL250

Answer 149

A

 VIS: 5 km

 Ceiling: 2,500 feet

Answer 150

A

 Manually ACTIVATE APPR
 Select FDs to OFF
 Select the BIRD
 From abeam threshold time 45 seconds ± wind for a 1,500 foot circuit
 Turn Base max bank 30⁰
 Descend FLAPS 2, ‘S’ Speed
 Configure & turn final as normal.

Answer 151

A

 > 260 knots

 Safety Valve automatically cuts off hydraulic supply to the landing gear system.

Answer 152

A

 < 4 hours: FDP based on time band of original report time, FDP & DP begin at actual report time.
 ≥ 4 hours: Max FDP based on most limiting time band & FDP & DP start 4 hours after original report
time.

Answer 153

A

 20 nm

 5,000 feet minimum but avoid if possible.

Answer 154

A

 Male 93 kg
 Female 75 kg
 Child 35 kg
 Infant nil

Answer 155

A

 Domestic 11 kg
 European 13 kg
 Intercontinental 15 kg

Answer 156

A

 2 (unless significant improvement in Wx, or a state of emergency exists)
 3 if go-around flown for non-weather related reasons provided landing assured.

Answer 157

A

 See LIM-28
 1,500 kg is a good guide figure, albeit for Take-off
 some of the newer aircraft are more restrictive (500 kg)
Lim - 28

Answer 158

A

 4.2 nm

Answer 159

A

 Abort the start by switching OFF the master switch, then perform a 30 second dry crank. OMB 2.3.8.1

Answer 160

A

 Company Manuals A, B, C, etc.
 FCOM
 FCTM

Answer 161

A

 OFP (Company NOTAMs, Crew Alerts)

 NTC

Answer 162

A

 OEBS.

Answer 163

A

 Every 6 months.

Answer 164

A

 To resist the nature urge to turn towards the runway when visual & to keep the drift on that he has.
 I may also review the cross wind landing technique.

Answer 165

A

 Extra FMA calls
 Task sharing
 Items that may constitute a go-around (Auto-land light, etc.)
 Possible downgrades & how we would action them.

Answer 166

A

 Windshear actions
 Go-around actions
 Ask him if he is comfortable flying the approach (unless WS possible then I’d be flying it – see FO limitations)

Answer 167

A

 Predictive may be considered cautionary if positive verification made that no hazard exists.
 You must always react to a reactionary Windshear Warning.

Answer 168

A

 The FAC generates the Windshear warning whenever the predicted energy level for the aircraft falls below a predetermined threshold.
 FAC uses data from; ADIRS amongst other sources.
 Predictive Windshear is a function of the Weather Radar (operates below 2,300 feet)
o Requires: Wx Radar set to AUTO & Transponder set to ON or AUTO.

Answer 169

A

1.1 Before V1
 Abort takeo for signicant airspeed variations if sucient runway re-
mains.
1.2 On ground, above V1
 Thrust levers . . TOGA
 Call \Windshear TOGA"
 Reaching VR . . . Rotate
 SRS orders .  .Follow
 Conguration. . .Maintain
1.3 Airborne
 Thrust levers .  TOGA
 Call \Windshear TOGA"
 AP (if engaged) . . Keep
 SRS orders .  .Follow
 Conguration. . .Maintain
Note:
1. AP will disengage if req > prot.
2. If FDs are not available, initial pitch attitude is 171/2
This should then be adjusted to minimise height loss. Full backstick can be used.

Answer 170

A

2.1 Warning
\Windshear ahead" or
\Go around, windshear ahead"
2.1.1 During takeo run
 Abort takeo
2.1.2 Initial climb
 Thrust levers .  . TOGA
 Call \Windshear TOGA"
 AP (if engaged) . . Keep
 SRS orders .  .Follow
 Cong may be changed if not in windshear
 AP will disengage if req > prot.
2.1.3 During approach
 Thrust levers . . TOGA
 Call \Go around, 
aps"
 Carry out normal go-around
 If positive verification is made that no hazard exists, the warning may
be downgraded to a caution
2.2 Caution
\Monitor radar display"
2.2.1 During approach
 Consider Conf 3 landing
 Consider VAPP=VLS+10

Answer 171

A

 Oxygen masks . .On
 Communications . . . Establish
 PF:
{ Call \Emergency descent"
{ Alt selector . . . . . . . . Set lower altitude, pull
{ Hdg selector . . . . Pull, consider turning
{ Spd selector. .  . .Pull, consider VMO
{ If A/THR nor engaged: Thrust . . Idle
{ Once speed has increased:
 Speed brake . . . Full
 PNF:
{ Signs . .. . On
{ Eng mode sel . .  . .Ign
{ Transponder . . . 7700
{ ATC . . . .  . Notify
{ If cabin altitude >14000ft:
 Pax oxy masks . . . . . . . .Man On

Answer 172

A

4.1 TA
\Trac, trac”
Call \TCAS, I have control.”
Attempt to see reported traffic
4.2 RA
\Climb”,\Descend” etc.
AP(if engaged) . . . . . . Off
Call \TCAS, I have control. Flight directors o”
FDs . . .Both o
ATC. . . Notify \TCAS RA”
Adjust V/S to maintain the green area on the V/S scale
If \Climb” or \Increase climb” is triggered on final approach, a go around must be flown.
Stall, EGPWS or windshear warnings should be respected.
When clear of conflict: ATC . . . Notify \Clear of con
ict, returning to . . . “

Answer 173

A

5.1 Warning
\Pull up"" or
\Terrain, terrain pull up" or
\Terrain ahead, pull up" or
\Obstacle ahead, pull up"
 AP. . . .. . . . .Off
 Pitch .  . . . Pull up - use full backstick
 Thrust levers . . . . TOGA
 Call \Pull up, TOGA"
 Speedbrake . .. . Check retracted
 Bank angle .. Wings level or adjust
Note:
1. For \Terrain ahead" a turning maneuver may be initiated if it deemed
the safest course of action.
2. If daylight VMC with all obstacles clearly in sight, the warning may be
downgraded to a caution.
5.2 Caution
 Correct 
flight path and/or configuration to silence caution.

Answer 174

A

 AP/FD . . . . Off
 A/Thr . . .  . . . Off
 Pitch/Thrust:
Below Thrust Red Alt 15/TOGA
Below FL100 10/CLB
Above FL100 5/CLB
 Flaps . .  . . . Maintain current cong
 Speedbrake . .  . . Retract
 Landing gear . .. . . Up
When at or above MSA, level o for trouble shooting

Answer 175

A

 Nose Down Pitch Control. .. .Apply
 Bank. . . .Wings Level
 When out of stall:
{ Thrust . .Increase smoothly
{ Speedbrakes . . . Check retracted
{ Flight Path. . ..Recover Smoothly
{ If in clean conguration and below 20,000ft:
 Flap 1. . . Select

Answer 176

A

Thrust . . . TOGA
Pitch Atitude . . . 15
Bank. . .Wings Level

Answer 177

A

 Call \Loss of braking"
 If autobrake selected:
{ Brake pedals . . Press
 If no braking available:
{ Rev . . . .Max
{ Brake pedals . . . Release
{ Anti skid/NWS . .. . Off
{ Brake pedals . . Maintain 1000psi
 If still no braking:
{ Parking brake . . . . Short applications

Answer 178

A

Call \I have control”
Priority button . . . . As required
Cabin crew . . . Contact

Answer 179

A

Is a god.

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OMA / OMB Flashcards

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