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5030: Foundational Concepts of Nursing > OLD_Exam 2 > Flashcards

OLD_Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Communication

A

Transfer of information

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2
Q

What is often cited as a key issue in patient safety?

A

Miscommunication between team members

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3
Q

Name the 6 components of the Shannon-Weaver Communication Model

A

Sender, encoder, channel, decoder, receiver and noise

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4
Q

What are the three components in Schramm’s model of communication?

A

Sender, receiver, message

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5
Q

ABX model is also called?

A

Theodore Newcomb’s model of communication

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6
Q

What are the components of the ABX / Newcomb model of communication?

A

Sender, receiver, topic

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7
Q

David K. Berlo’s Model of communication is called what?

A

S-M-C-R

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8
Q

What does S-M-C-R stand for?

A

sender, message, channel, receiver

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9
Q

Therapeutic communication

A

Techniques used to improve communication, such as active listening.

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10
Q

Auditory communication

A

What message the receiver hears.

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11
Q

Emotional communication

A

A form of communication that expresses feelings and emotions.

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12
Q

Energetic communication

A

The speaker’s presence or vibration that is expressed when communicating.

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13
Q

Empathy

A

Ability to understand the feelings of another.

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14
Q

Name the four modes / types of communication.

A

Verbal, written, nonverbal, electronic

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15
Q

Name 4 communication styles

A

Passive, assertive, aggressive, passive aggressive

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16
Q

Passive communication

A

Communication style that does not act or openly express discomfort.

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17
Q

Assertive communication

A

Communication style that displays confidence or self-assurance.

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18
Q

Aggressive communication

A

Hostile or forceful style of communication.

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19
Q

Passive aggressive communication

A

Communication style that finds indirect ways to protest or express unhappiness with a situation.

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20
Q

Dementia

A

A cognitive disorder that can impair communication ability due to language and memory changes.

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21
Q

Down syndrome

A

A developmental disorder that can cause physical, cognitive and communication deficits.

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22
Q

Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)

A

A developmental disorder that can cause barriers in social interaction and communication.

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23
Q

Nontherapeutic Communication

A

Techniques that hinder communication, such as stating the person is wrong.

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24
Q

What is Jean Watson’s Theory of Human Caring?

A

embodies the key components of therapeutic relationships (10 total)

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25
Q

Peplau’s Theory of Interpersonal Relationships categorizes nurse-client relationships into what 4 phases?

A

Orientation
Identification
Exploitation
Resolution/termination

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26
Q

Open-ended questions

A

Questions that require more than a yes or no answer.

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27
Q

Restating

A

A therapeutic communication technique where the receiver summarizes or paraphrase the message back to the sender to ensure understanding.

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28
Q

Reflection

A

A therapeutic communication technique where one person mirrors back the message of the speaker to encourage further sharing.

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29
Q

Motivational Interviewing (MI)

A

Communication strategy that empowers the receiver to make positive changes.

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30
Q

the mnemonic for motivational interviewing is ____ and it stands for ___, __, __, and ___

A

OARS: Open-ended questions, Affirmations, Reflective listening, Summarizing.

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31
Q

Affirmations

A

Positive comments that help build the receiver’s confidence.

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32
Q

Examples of nontherapeutic communication techniques include…

A

Not listening or rejecting what the client is saying

Being critical

Trying to reassure the client by dismissing concerns

Giving advice

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33
Q

Patient-centered care

A

A treatment technique that keeps the client involved in their own care.

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34
Q

Collaborative healthcare

A

A client-centered approach where different health care teams come together and work toward a common goal.

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35
Q

Interprofessional teams

A

A setting in which two or more professionals work together.

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36
Q

Consultation

A

The act of a provider formally proposing treatment with another provider, in a different specialty area, to determine best practices in client care.

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37
Q

Referral

A

The act of directing a client from a provider to a specialist provider with delegation of responsibilities for responsibility of care.

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38
Q

Interpersonal communication

A

Person-to person communication skills within personal and professional relationships.

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39
Q

Silos

A

Groups within an organization’s infrastructure (departments, professionals) that work with their own area of responsibility and create a division of labor.

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40
Q

What is the main goal of continuity of care?

A

quality care over time

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41
Q

The Joint Commission (TJC)

A

An independent, not-for-profit, unbiased accreditation and certification agency, for assessing quality client safety and care of health care organizations.

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42
Q

Closed-loop communication

A

Is the use of standardized terminology and procedures to ensure the message between sender and receiver is received, clarified and has been correctly interpreted.

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43
Q

I-SBAR

A

Standardized communication tool that delivers uniform information via the acronym I-SBAR-R, meaning introductions, situations, background assessment, recommendation and readback.

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44
Q

Handoff report

A

A communication technique where one provider hands-off care of a client to another provider by a detailed and structured reporting method.

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45
Q

Transcribing Medications

A

Upon receiving a provider’s prescription (order) for a client, verify or read back the information, and then document the information correctly in the client’s EHR.

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46
Q

Verbal Prescription

A

Provider verbally prescribing treatment, for a client, to another provider or nurse.

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47
Q

Care transitions

A

The transfer of care of a client to or between different health care providers or settings.

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48
Q

Comorbidities

A

The concomitant occurrence of two or more disease processes in the same client.

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49
Q

Incivility

A

Behaviors in the workplace that negatively affect others such as gossiping, spreading rumors, rudeness, or refusing to help a coworker. It can be peer to peer (see also: lateral violence), supervisor to employee (vertical), and includes behaviors meant to harm, humiliate or distress another.

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50
Q

Bullying

A

Recurring behavior of unwelcome action(s) intended to harm, humiliate, or distress another.

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51
Q

Lateral violence

A

Incivility that is peer-to-peer, also known as horizontal violence.

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52
Q

Vertical violence

A

Incivility from supervisor to employee, or vice versa.

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53
Q

Zero-tolerance policy

A

A policy adopted by many organizations to describe null, or an absolute, no tolerance for incivility, bullying, harassment, or other acts of intimidation or violence in the workplace.

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54
Q

Conflict management

A

A method to settle disagreements peacefully and respectfully, through compromise, and accommodation to each other s needs, sharing goals, and avoiding competition with the other party

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55
Q

Cognitive rehearsal

A

An intellectual therapeutic technique where one envisions or visualizes an overwhelming, or an anxiety-producing situation.

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56
Q

Accommodation

A

maintain peace and harmony by smoothing over differences.

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57
Q

______ provides a temporary solution and recognizes the importance of resolving the relationship

A

Compromise

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58
Q

_____ and ______ are both short term solutions

A

Avoidance and competition

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59
Q

Multifactorial qualities of emotional and social skills where the ability to recognize, understand, manage emotions and adapt to change are related to personal problem solving; efficiently coping with life s daily demands, difficulties and challenges professionally.

A

Emotional intelligence

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60
Q

In healthy people 2030, the 5 main domains of SDOH are…?

A

(1) economic stability
(2) education access and quality
(3) health care access and quality
(4) neighborhood and built environment
(5) social and community context

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61
Q

The process of enabling people to increase control over and improve their health.

A

Health promotion

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62
Q

Wellness

A

A positive state of health.

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63
Q

Prevention

A

Specific, population-based and individual-based interventions for primary and secondary (early detection) prevention, aiming to minimize the burden of diseases and associated risk factors.

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64
Q

Learning experiences that are designed to improve the health of an individual or community through increased knowledge or by influencing attitudes.

A

Health Education

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65
Q

The result of health promotion and disease prevention measures. Individuals are empowered to make healthier decisions to reduce the likelihood of developing disease and disability through health promotion and disease prevention programs.

A

Health outcomes

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66
Q

long hours, few breaks, stress, unpredictable and unhealthy eating and sleep patterns, and lack of exercise contribute to what?

A

work-health imbalance for nurses

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67
Q

Modifiable risk factors

A

Behaviors and actions that can affect a client’s risk for developing a disease.

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68
Q

What are the 3 common modifiable risk factors responsible for the majority of chronic diseases?

A

(1) unhealthy and excessive diet
(2) lack of physical exercise
(3) use of tobacco products

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69
Q

Nonmodifiable risk factors

A

Risk factors that cannot be changed.

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70
Q

ability to process and comprehend basic health information that is necessary for the client to make appropriate health care decisions

A

Health Literacy

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71
Q

The learned, shared, and transmitted values, beliefs, norms, and lifeways of a particular group that guides their thinking, decisions, and actions in patterned ways.

A

Culture

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72
Q

Family

A

group whose members are related biologically, legally, or emotionally

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73
Q

Prevention

A

The action of stopping something from happening.

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74
Q

Primary Prevention

A

The act of intervening before negative health effects occur.

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75
Q

Secondary Prevention

A

To reduce the impact of disease or injury, and limit disability.

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76
Q

Tertiary Prevention

A

controlling the chronic effects of a health issue that has already occurred and on restoring the individual to optimal functioning

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77
Q

Self-Care

A

An inclusive group of activities nurses can utilize to promote one’s mental health and overall well-being.

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78
Q

Quaternary Prevention

A

protecting clients from the excessive use of medical interventions that can cause more harm than good

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79
Q

An ongoing, goal-driven, interactive process that provides clients with new information.

A

Client Education

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80
Q

x

A

x

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81
Q

Cognitive Domain

A

The thinking domain; here, a client must think through the information presented to them and be able to comprehend the information.

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82
Q

Affective Domain

A

One of three domains of learning involves the client’s feelings, precisely their values, attitudes, and beliefs.

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83
Q

Psychomotor Domain

A

​​​​​​​Involves the use of hands-on fine and gross motor skills.

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84
Q

What are Knowles’s fundamental principles of learning?

A

(1) Relevance
(2) Self-directed
(3) Life-experience
(4) Readiness
(5) Task-centered
(6) Motivation

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85
Q

Barriers to learning

A

Something that hinders learning.

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86
Q

What factors can impair learning?

A

(1) impaired cognition
(2) language barriers
(3) visual and hearing impairments
(4) emotional concerns
(5) cultural differences.

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87
Q

Fine motor skills

A

The use of small muscles, such as fingers.

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88
Q

Gross motor skills

A

The use of large muscle groups to perform whole body movements.

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89
Q

A ____ is an optimal learning environment that reduces distraction and provides good ventilation, adequate lighting, and a comfortable temperature.

A

Low-stimulus environment

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90
Q

Repetition

A

continuing to provide the same education more than once to reinforce the information conveyed

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91
Q

Response to a message, positive or negative.

A

Feedback

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92
Q

Group instruction

A

Involves two or more clients who are obtaining the same learning material simultaneously.

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93
Q

Individual instruction

A

Occurs when the educational session engages only the learner and the teacher

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94
Q

Teach-back

A

A technique to determine the client’s level of understanding by having the client explain back to the nurse the information that was taught.

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95
Q

Occurs within and among cultural groups and includes a multitude of factors impacting diversity such as age, sexual orientation, culture, ethnicity, and socioeconomic status.

A

Cultural diversity

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96
Q

Self-bias

A

Personal perception or stereotype regarding situations, people, or actions.

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97
Q

Evidence-based practice

A

providing holistic, quality care based on the most up-to-date research and knowledge rather than traditional methods, advice from colleagues, or personal beliefs

98
Q

Spirit of Inquiry

A

A desire to understand the knowledge and skills required to provide the best possible care for clients and families.

99
Q

PICOT

A

An acronym that stands for Population, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome, and Time.

100
Q

A tool used to organize and display evidence findings from multiple articles regarding an interest.

A

Table of Evidence

101
Q

Theory-Practice Gap

A

The gap between the obtainment of theoretical knowledge from research into its practical application in nursing.

102
Q

A mechanism for storing and maintaining electronic content, similar to how a library or museum stores physical content.

A

Digital Repository

103
Q

The process of creating evidence focused on advancing solutions to health care problems

A

Nursing Research

104
Q

A framework that guides nurses in delivering client-focused care that takes the entire person into consideration.

A

Nursing Process

105
Q

Quantitative Research

A

Research that uses numerical data to evaluate the outcome of interventions.

106
Q

Qualitative Research

A

Research which seeks to explain value-laden experiences through narratives collected from participants.

107
Q

Combines qualitative studies that explore experiences and quantitative designs, which enumerate findings that are generalizable due to their larger sample sizes and multiple variables.

A

Mixed Methods Research

108
Q

The science of determining the most effective methods to implement EBP across populations and settings.

A

Translational Research

109
Q

An ordered, searchable assortment of articles and research studies that have been published in professional or peer-reviewed journals.

A

Scholarly Database

110
Q

A brief summary of the paper which includes the purpose of the study, the basic study design, the findings and researcher s conclusions.

A

Abstract

111
Q

Publication which contains articles that have been reviewed by other professionals with similar licensure, education and expertise to ensure quality and promote client safety.

A

Peer Reviewed Journals

112
Q

Critical Appraisal

A

The process of reviewing a research study to determine validity, reliability and applicability to the investigators search for evidence.

113
Q

Hierarchy of Evidence

A

A rating system for research findings based upon the quality of the research design, the validity of the results and the applicability of the information.

114
Q

Systematic Review

A

A review and evaluation of findings from multiple studies regarding the same phenomenon.

115
Q

Meta Analysis

A

The utilization of statistics to combine research samples, methods, and findings from many studies regarding the same phenomenon.

116
Q

Statements of evidence-based recommendations to be used as guidelines in the medical management of disease processes and in the area of preventative care.

A

Clinical Practice Guidelines

117
Q

Critical Pathways

A

Clinical tools used within a health care organization that help nurses manage the delivery of client care for a specific circumstance, category, or disorder.

118
Q

Standards of Care

A

Evidence -based interventions that are typically implemented when caring for a client with a specific disorder.

119
Q

Quality Assurance (QA)

A

Reactive, problem-driven measures to improve client outcomes and improve healthcare delivery.

120
Q

Standardization

A

The process of creating and implementing consistent guidelines, methods, steps, processes, or practices that improve the quality of care and client safety.

121
Q

Structure

A

The condition or environment in which the care is provided.

122
Q

Process

A

Measures the mechanisms of the care provided.

123
Q

Outcomes

A

Includes measurable results that may be positive or negative.

124
Q

PDSA Method

A

A four-step process for quality improvement that includes plan, do, study, act.

125
Q

Process Flow Chart

A

A visual diagram used to clarify a complex process by providing a visual view of the steps in a sequential manner

126
Q

Histogram

A

A specific form of a bar chart that displays the distribution of continuous numerical value.

127
Q

Run Chart

A

A visual aid using lines to connect data points depicting how a process or information has changed over time.

128
Q

Audit

A

Identifies errors or discrepancies of documentation of nursing care.

129
Q

Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI)

A

An ongoing measurement, assessment, and improvement of quality initiatives to provide quality care and safety to clients utilizing the QI tools and models.

130
Q

Risk Management (RM)

A

The identification, evaluation and prioritization of risks to eliminate or mitigate their probability or severity or to leverage opportunities.

131
Q

Adverse Event

A

Any event that is not consistent with the desired or normal operation.

132
Q

Any event causing serious injury or death to a client in healthcare facility. Can include, medication error, transfusing the wrong blood type, client suicide, or wrong-site surgery.

A

Sentinel Event

133
Q

Never Event

A

An adverse event that should never occur.

134
Q

Root Cause Analysis (RCA)

A

A systematic process that focuses on identifying the cause of an event and developing an action plan with strategies aimed at preventing future events.

135
Q

Quality Core Measures

A

standardized processes and best practices created to improve client care.

136
Q

Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (HCAHPS)

A

A data collection survey utilized to measure client’s perception of their inpatient experience.

137
Q

Cost-Effective

A

The minimal expense of dollars, time, and other elements used to achieve results.

138
Q

Cost-Effective Analysis (CEA)

A

Compares health care interventions to see which is most effective for the least amount of money without producing negative client outcomes.

139
Q

A nonprofit organization that conducts free, annual surveys of hospitals and ambulatory care centers on a voluntary basis. Measurements included in the survey align with TJC, CMS, and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).

A

LeapFrog Group

140
Q

Evidence-Based Practice (EBP)

A

A problem solving approach to client care that uses the most accurate scientific evidence partnered with clinical expertise and client values.

141
Q

A research study in which study participants are randomly divided into 2 or more groups. After being assigned to groups, participants in one group receive the treatment being tested while clients in the other group receive a standard or control treatment.

A

Randomized Controlled Trial (RCT)

142
Q

What does ISBAR stand for?

A

Introduction
Situation
Background
Assessment
Recommendation

143
Q

What is the difference between ISBAR and ISBARR?

A

The second R in ISBAR stands for “Read back / Repeat” and is an additional step / option

144
Q

Name 3 basic assumptions of Communication theory

A

(1) We only know about ourselves through communication
(2) Feedback is the only way we can verify that our perceptions are valid
(3) It is impossible NOT to communicate

145
Q

What are the 4 key components of the Linear Model of Communication?

A

(1) Sender
(2) Message
(3) Receiver
(4) Noise

146
Q

Verbal and nonverbal communication behaviors is exchanged simultaneously to ____ and ____

A

achieve meaning, achieve specific outcomes

147
Q

Perception

A

The unique reality of each individual based on life experiences

148
Q

Information is communicated b/w healthcare team members for 3 main reasons:

A

(1) make clinical decisions
(2) plan treatment
(3) perform interventions

149
Q

Name the stages of the Perception Process

A

(1) Selection
(2) Organization
(3) Interpretation

150
Q

What happens in the selection process, within the Perception Process?

A

Individuals are bombarded with stimuli and we select what we want to focus on

151
Q

Selective perception

A

The personal filtering of what we see and hear so as to suit our own needs

152
Q

What happens in the organization stage of the Perception Process?

A

Individuals arrange stimuli in meaningful ways, dependent on personality, knowledge, and past experiences

153
Q

What happens in the interpretation stage of the Perception Process?

A

Individuals assign meaning to stimuli based on their unique reality

154
Q

Define therapeutic relationship

A

professional, interpersonal alliance in which the nurse and client join together for a defined period to achieve health-related treatment goals.

155
Q

What is the goal of a therapeutic relationship?

A

Promote a persons’ health and well-being

156
Q

sympathy, pity, false reassurance, and arguing are a few examples of what?

A

Non-therapeutic communication

157
Q

Name the 4 phases of therapeutic relationships.

A

(1) Pre-interaction phase
(2) Orientation phase
(3) Working phase
(4) Termination phase

158
Q

What is the pre-interaction phase of therapeutic relationships?

A

occurs before meeting the patient; includes preparing

159
Q

What is the orientation phase of therapeutic relationships?

A

When the nurse and the patient meet and get to know each other

160
Q

What is the working phase of therapeutic relationships?

A

When the nurse and patient work together to solve problems and accomplish goals

161
Q

What is the termination phase of therapeutic relationships?

A

Occurs at the ends of the relationship; provides separation, reviews progress, gratitude

162
Q

T/F: Ensure adequate lighting and minimize glare when communicating with visually impaired individuals.

A

T

163
Q

Name 3 strategies for communicating with people with cognitive impairment

A

(1) simplify your message
(2) accept the patient’s message
(3) allow extra time

others: take a break, use a calming approach, use pictures

164
Q

For symptoms of little concern, patients prefer ____ type of communication

A

telephone

165
Q

For symptoms of CONCERN, patients prefer ______ communication

A

in-person

166
Q

Name the 5 levels of communication

A

Emotional
Verbal
Energetic
Physical
Auditory

167
Q

Name the 4 modes of communication

A

Verbal
Nonverbal
Electronic
Written

168
Q

Name 3 benefits of an interprofessional team

A

(1) improved access to and coordination of healthcare services
(2) greater efficiency of client referral
(3) increased quality of community health services
(4) decrease in complications, LOS, sentinel events

169
Q

Name at least 3 barrier of collaboration

A

(1) hierarchy of professions
(2) lack of knowledge of the team
(3) poor communication
(4) lack of trust
(5) lack of cultural competency
(6) inability to resolve conflict
(7) structural factors such as time

170
Q

What are the 5 approaches for managing conflict?

A

Accommodation
Collaboration
Compromise
Avoidance
XX`

171
Q

3 main goals of patient education are…

A

(1) equip to achieve optimal health
(2) equip to be informed so they can be shared decision-makers
(3) improve safety

Others: contribute to improved health-related quality of life; reduce costs

172
Q

Name 3 factors that affect a patient’s readiness to learn

A

(1) Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs
(2) Communication skills
(3) Psychosocial factors

173
Q

Give examples of 3 possible nursing diagnoses related to patient education.

A

(1) Risk diagnosis
(2) Problem-focused diagnosis
(3) Health promotion diagnosis

174
Q

Name at least 3 education delivery methods

A

(1) Verbal one-on-one communication
(2) Group instruction
(3) Preparatory instruction
(4) Demonstration
(5) Analogies
(6) Simulation

175
Q

Describe 2 ways to tell if learning has occurred

A

Demonstrate

Teach-back

176
Q

The Transtheoretical Model of Change discusses 5 stages of change. They are:

A

(1) Pre-contemplation
(2) Contemplation
(3) Preparation
(4) Action
(5) Maintenance

177
Q

Describe at least 5 ways for patients to become more involved in their treatment

A

(1) Speak up
(2) Pay attn to your care
(3) Educate yourself about your illness
(4) Ask a trusted family or friend to be an advocate
(5) Know about your new medicine(s)

178
Q

What are the most common healthcare mistakes?

A

Medication errors

179
Q

Name the 5 key categories of SDOH

A

(1) Education access and quality
(2) Healthcare access and quality
(3) Neighborhood and built environment
(4) Social and community context
(5) Economic stability

180
Q

Disease / Illness prevention

A

Protects people from actual or potential threats to health

181
Q

Screening for an infection is an example of what level of prevention?

A

Secondary

182
Q

Immunizations are an example of ____ prevention

A

Primary

183
Q

Rehabilitation is an example of ______ prevention

A

Tertiary

184
Q

Genetic screening is an example of _____ prevention

A

Primary

185
Q

The main goal of the ____ ____ model is to identify the motivations for someone to make changes.

A

Health Belief

186
Q

The end of the Health Belief model is ____ and _____.

A

Self-efficacy, action

187
Q

Cues to action

A

Information that triggers the action

188
Q

Which model explores the individual characteristics and experiences that are involved in change?

A

Pender’s Health Promotion Model

189
Q

Describe the difference between competing demands and preferences in Pender’s Health Promotion Model

A

Competing demands are things that individuals have little control over, while preferences are things that individuals can control.

190
Q

Name the 5 stages of Benner’s Novice to Expert model

A

Novice
Advanced Beginner
Competent
Proficient
Expert

191
Q

Name the 5 components of Kristen Swanson’s Theory of Caring

A

Maintaining Belief
Knowing
Being with
Doing for
Enabling

192
Q

The purpose of the Healthy People program is to …?

A

improve the overall health of Americans.

193
Q

Screening for Blood Pressure is an example of _____ prevention.

A

Secondary

194
Q

Name the 3 education domains

A

(1) Cognitive
(2) Psychomotor
(3) Affective

195
Q

_____ is the thinking domain of education

A

Cognitive

196
Q

The ____ domain of education claims that learning is based on _____

A

Psychomotor; action

197
Q

Describe affective domain of education

A

Learning is based on emotions and involves client’s feelings

198
Q

Name - in order - Bloom’s Taxonomy from lowest to highest levels

A

Knowledge
Comprehension
Application
Analysis
Evaluation
Synthesis

199
Q

Bloom’s Taxonomy - Knowledge

A

Recalling prior learned knowledge

200
Q

Bloom’s taxonomy - Comprehension

A

Understanding and interpretation of information

201
Q

Bloom’s taxonomy - Application

A

The ability to use data

202
Q

Bloom’s taxonomy - Analysis

A

The breakdown of information to understand its structure

203
Q

Bloom’s taxonomy - Evaluation

A

Deciding the ideal of the ideas

204
Q

Bloom’s taxonomy - Synthesis

A

Putting the elements together to create a new whole

205
Q

Name at least 2 examples of factors that promote learning

A

Perceived benefit
Enhanced health literacy
Nonjudgmental support
Quiet, low-stim environment
Repetition

206
Q

Name at least 2 factors that hinder / reduce learning

A

Fear, anxiety, and depression
Lack of motivation
Environmental distractions
Psychomotor deficits
Physical discomfort
Timing

207
Q

What is the major difference between complementary and alternative approaches?

A

Complementary approaches are used with conventional medicine, while alternative approaches are treatment modalities that are used instead of conventional medicine

208
Q

Integrative health is an approach that does what?

A

Uses conventional, complementary, and alternative medicine approaches

209
Q

Define Holistic Nursing (ATI)

A

Nursing practices that consider the person, in their entirety, while focusing on the client-nurse relationship and promoting healing, rather than curing any diseases

210
Q

Whole Medical Systems

A

Complete systems that include a defined philosophy and explanation of disease, diagnosis, and therapy

211
Q

Name at least 3 examples of Whole Medical Systems

A

Ayurveda
Homeopathy
Japanese Kampo
Neuropathy
Traditional Chinese Medicine

212
Q

What is Ayurveda?

A

an ancient Indian medical system that emphasizes the balance of mind, body, and spirit to prevent disease

213
Q

The 5 basic elements of Ayurveda are what?

A

Fire
Water
Air
Earth
Sky / Space

214
Q

Name at least 3 Mind and Body therapies that can be used.

A

Massage
Meditation
Mindfulness
Aromatherapy
Acupuncture
Chiropractic
Hypnotherapy

215
Q

Name 5 therapies that nurses can specifically offer

A

(1) Deep breathing
(2) Meditation
(3) Guided imagery
(4) Aromatherapy
(5) Essential Oils

216
Q

What are Never Events?

A

unambiguous adverse events that should never occur

217
Q

Contaminated drugs, surgery on the wrong part of the body, and metal objects in the MRI are examples of what?

A

Never Events

218
Q

Name the 3 types of adverse events

A

Preventable
Ameliorable
Adverse d/t negligence

219
Q

Preventable adverse events

A

those that occur d/t error or failure to apply an accepted strategy for prevention

220
Q

Ameliorable events are what?

A

Events that are not preventable but could have been less harmful

221
Q

Adverse events d/t negligence

A

Occur d/t care that falls below the standards expected of clinicians in the community

222
Q

What is the major difference between preventable and ameliorable events?

A

Ameliorable events are NOT preventable

223
Q

Define near miss

A

An unsafe situation that is indistinguishable from a preventable adverse events, except the outcome does not happen.

224
Q

Error

A

Broad term referring to any act of commission or omission that exposes the patients to a potentially hazardous situation

225
Q

the original IHI triple aim includes what?

A

(1) Improved patient experience
(2) Better outcomes
(3) Lower costs

226
Q

What does the Successive Layers of Defenses / Swiss Cheese model represent?

A

Safety and prevention measures

227
Q

Evidence-based practice

A

The conscientious and judicious use of current best evidence in conjunction with clinical expertise and patient values to guide health care decisions

228
Q

QI

A

an approach to improving processes to meet existing knowledge and standards of care

229
Q

Research involves generating ____ to answer _____

A

new knowledge; unanswered questions

230
Q

“Discovering the right thing to do”

A

Research

231
Q

“Determining and implementing the right thing to do”

A

EBP

232
Q

“Making the right thing easy to do”

A

QI

233
Q

Name the 5 steps of the EBP process

A

(1) Ask a question
(2) Acquire the evidence
(3) Critically appraise the evidence
(4) Implement EBP
(5) Evaluate EBP

234
Q

PICOT stands for?

A

Patient / population, or disease
Intervention
Comparison
Outcome
Time

235
Q

The pyramid of evidence goes from lowest to highest:

A

Editorials / Expert Opinion (LOWEST)

Case series, case reports

Case-control studies

Cohort studies

Randomized controlled trials

Meta-analysis and systematic reviews

236
Q

Name at least 3 barriers to nurses using EBP regularly.

A

Insufficient time on the job
Inadequate EBP knowledge and skills
Lack of administrative support
Lack of an EBP mentor
Negative staff attitudes
Resistance to Change

237
Q

What does CUS stand for?

A

(I am) Concerned
(I am) Uncomfortable
(I believe this is a) Safety issue

238
Q

3 examples of herbals that can interfere with / prevent clotting are what?

A

Ginger
Gingko
Ginseng

239
Q

____ lead to barriers to communication and fragmented care, which can negatively impact the processes created to provide safe, effective, seamless care of the clients within the organization.

A

Silos

240
Q

Define continuity of care

A

A process involving the client and the interprofessional team working cooperatively

241
Q

What is the most common form of client education?

A

Individual

5030: Foundational Concepts of Nursing (3 decks)

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