Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DERM EXAM 2 > OLD PATTON LIM > Flashcards

OLD PATTON LIM Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Dermatology Board Prep flashcards
1
Q

What immunobullous disease is treated with dapsone?

A

Linear IgA disease that is NOT associated with drugs, if it is then the Tx is to remove the drug; dermatitis herpetiformis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

This is a dilated superficial blood vessel

A

telangiectasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is an erosion that is specifically caused by scratching?

A

Excoriation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the two biochromes of the epidermis?

A

melanin = brown and Carotenoids = yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a good way to Tx a keloid?

A

inject with steroids, re-excising would be dumb because they are known to be prone to keloid formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the key feature in the allergic contact dermatitis from plants?

A

Linear nature of the rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is DRESS different from morbilliform drug reactions?

A

it involves organs not just skin, most commonly the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is the oral disease of paraneoplastic pemphius different from pemphigus vulgaris and foliaceous?

A

It is the most severe and pemphigus foliaceous doesn?t have oral involvement anyway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This disease involves autoantibodies against type VII collagen

A

Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita NOT the hereditary epidermolysis bullosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a macule?

A

a circumscribed FLAT discoloration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a circumscribed collection of blood greater than 0.5 cm

A

purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the most common cause of the morbilliform drug eruption?

A

When someone is mistreated with ampicillin when they have mononucleosis (doc thought they had strep throat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MOA of ipilimumab

A

binds CTLA4 to disinhibit T cells for Tx of melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is the Tx of mucous membrane pemphigoid different from that of bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Mucous membrane pemphigoid involves more rigorous tx not only with corticosteroids but also cyclophosphamide because of the serious sequela that can occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hallmark of MCV infections

A

umbilicated lesions ZOMG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a linear loss of epidermis with sharply defined, nearly vertical walls?

A

fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This is a tumor of scar tissue that grows beyond the bounds of the initial cut

A

keloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Telangiectasias are very characteristic of what CA?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If you see lichenification, was the initial lesion most likely painful, itchy, or not noticed by the patient?

A

itchy, lichenification results from repeated scratching of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most common cause of allergic contact dermatitis?

A

reaction to toxicodendron plants (i.e. poison ivy, poison sumac)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What must you work up a patient for if they have porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why do UV and radiated skin often have telangiectasias?

A

UV and other forms of radiation cause cutaneous atrophy and expose the dilated blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does DRESS stand for?

A

Drug Rash Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common subtype of melanoma?

A

superficial spreading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When Txing melanoma, what drug inhibits MEK?

A

Trametinib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

This is a circumscribed and flat bump in the skin that may be brown, blue, red (yellow, cerulean, indigo, sea green, red-orange, orange-red)

A

MACULE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the most common cause of erythema multiforme?

A

HSV-1 also Mycoplasma pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Enzyme deficient in porphyria cutanea tarda

A

uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase; note, in case of distractor that acute intermittent porphyria is urobilinogen deaminase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If one felt inclined to differentiate between a depigmented macule and a hypopigmented macule, how would one embark on this endeavor?

A

One could use a Wood’s lamp. By doing so, one would note that a depigmented macule would have a “brilliant” purple color change. Conversely, with a hypopigmented macule, one would note a less “brilliant” color change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When you see vesicles or bullae in a linear pattern what should you be thinking?

A

contact dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What drug binds CTLA-4

A

Ipilimumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are vemurafinib and dabrafenib?

A

BRAF inhibitors for Tx of melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 3 diseases under the pemphigus grouping?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris, Pemphigus foliaceous, and Paraneoplastic pemphigus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F: one can make the diagnosis of dysplastic nevus clinically

A

nope, dysplastic nevus is a histological Dx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why don?t erosions heal with scarring? Where else in the body does this occur?

A

Because the basal layer of epidermis remains intact. This also occurs in the GI tract? Think about Crohn’s Dz, you get stricture formation and creeping of the mesenteric fat because you have lost more than the basal layer of cells of the mucosa. Therefore, there will be scar formation. Same deal in skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the two biochromes of the dermis?

A

Oxyhemoglobin (bright red), Reduced hemoglobin (bluish red)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How can you get a definitive diagnosis of allergic contact dermatitis to everyday materials?

A

patch testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which drugs are the most common cause of DRESS, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, and Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis?

A

Aromatic anti-convulsants, sulfonamide antibiotics, and allopurinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This is a circumscribed deposit of blood less than 0.5 cm in diameter

A

petechiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a very common cause of cutaneous atrophy?

A

overuse of topical steroids or injection of SubQ steroid when it was supposed to be IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What color are Spitz nevi?

A

pink to red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Autoantibodies to what kind of structures are present in the pemphigus group of immunobullous diseases?

A

desmosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

These well circumscribed lesions contain a wall and a lumen and may contain solid or fluid matter?

A

Cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Compare and contrast the Tx of bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus vulgaris

A

They are actually the same? First use corticosteroids and follow up with steroid sparing drugs (mycophenolate moxetil and azathioprine) once under control. BUT rituximab seems to be reserved only for pemphigus vulgaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the Tx of Linear IgA disease when not caused by an underlying drug problem?

A

Dapsone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How do you differentiate Stevens-Johnson syndrome from Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis?

A

less than 10% of body SA is involved in SJS and greater than 30 is involved in TEN? The inbetweeners are a mixed SJS-TEN Dx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

T/F: there is no need to give systemic corticosteroids in allergic contact dermatitis

A

false, they are usually given d/t the severe nature of the rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are petechiae?

A

circumscribed deposit of blood less than 0.5 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the most common cause of erythema multiforme?

A

HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a lesion that involves a focal loss of epidermis ONLY? What is the next stage?

A

erosion, ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the most common malignancy associated with paraneoplastic pemphigus?

A

Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a patch?

A

A patch is a macule more than 3-4 cm in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is an excoriation?

A

An erosion caused specifically d/t scratching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the most common cause of Linear IgA disease?

A

Vancomycin and other drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the most common immunobullous disease?

A

bullous pemphigoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are excess dead epidermal cells produced by abnormal keratinization and shedding?

A

Scales

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is an area of thickening of the epidermis induced by scratching?

A

lichenification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a nevus that is present at birth?

A

Congenital nevus. OMG science

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What eponym describes the ability to easily dissect through a bulla?

A

Nikolsky sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Type of hypersensitivity in allergic contact dermatitis

A

Type IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a cyst?

A

A circumscribed lesion with a wall and a lumen that may contain fluid or solid matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which type of melanoma contains no pigmentation?

A

amelanotic

45
Q

Which subtype of melanoma is most likely to be present for a long time before being diagnosed?

A

Lentigo maligna melanoma

46
Q

What occurs in the sensitization phase of allergic contact dermatitis?

A

exposure of the immune system to the hapten-peptide complex followed by clonal expansion of reactive T cells

46
Q

T/F: most patients with dermatitis hepetiformis have celiac sprue

A

False? ALL patients with dermatitis herpetiformis have celiac sprue

48
Q

What is a fissure?

A

a linear loss of epidermis AND dermis with sharply defined, near vertical walls

50
Q

What are the autoantibodies targeting in pemphigus vulgaris?

A

desmoglein of desmosomes

51
Q

What is a nevus that occurs in childhood or adulthood called?

A

A benign acquired nevus

52
Q

What may be assoc. with hard and indurated skin?

A

scleroderma, myxedema, and amyloidosis

53
Q

What does it mean to have a positive Nikolsky sign?

A

You can easly dissect your finger through the bulla

54
Q

What is a nodule? What is a large nodule referred to as?

A

circumscribed elevated, and solid lesion greater than 0.5 cm? Large nodule = tumor

56
Q

What is a dermal vesicle?

A

Okay, brace yourselves. It is a vesicle (i.e. free collection of fluid less than 0.5 cm in diameter) in? …THE DERMIS.

58
Q

What are the autoantibodies against in pemphigus vulgaris? Bullous pemphigoid?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris = desmoglein of desmosomes; bullous pemphigoid = BPAg1 and 2

59
Q

Which plant substance is involved in phytophotodermatitis?

A

furocoumarins (citrus fruit)

60
Q

Name 5 secondary lesions

A

crusts, fissures, erosions, ulcer, scar

61
Q

How is pemphigus foliaceous different from pemphigus vulgaris?

A

It is not as severe and they do NOT develop oral lesions

62
Q

T/F: sentinal lymph node biopsy is a therapeutic procedure for mgmt of melanoma

A

False, it is done to obtain prognostic information

63
Q

Where do fixed drug reactions tend to occur?

A

genital region

64
Q

What does poor turgor indicate?

A

dehydration

66
Q

Why is the center of the erythema multiforme lesion white while the surrounding areas are red?

A

At the center there is necrosis and surrounding it is erythema

67
Q

What is the most serious complication of DRESS?

A

fulminant hepatic necrosis

69
Q

What causes irritant contact dermatitis?

A

exposure to harsh solvents such as alkali or overexposure to mild solvents

70
Q

How is a pustule different from a vesicle?

A

Pustule is a circumscribed collection of LEUKOCYTES and free fluid and vesicle is just free fluid

71
Q

What are some of the most common causes of angular chelitis?

A

licking the lips and vitamin deficiencies

71
Q

How does an ulcer heal? Why?

A

with scarring because the basal layer (stem cell layer) of epidermis is lost

72
Q

Tissue at the base of an ulcer that is soft and friable is sometimes called ________ flesh

A

proud flesh

73
Q

What are purpura?

A

circumscribed deposits of blood greater than 0.5 cm

75
Q

Which type of melanoma has the highest rate of metastasis?

A

Nodular melanoma (because it grows down into skin and staging is by depth of invasion)

77
Q

Which porphyria can be acquired with liver failure and HIV?

A

porphyria cutanea tarda

78
Q

The necrotic, crusty (black) secondary lesions of herpes in the perianal area is called __________

A

herpes gangrenosum

79
Q

How do you treat irritant contact dermatitis?

A

minimize exposure, for acute flares = topical corticosteroids, frequent emollient use

80
Q

What is the main determinant of whether urticaria are acute or chronic?

A

the 6 week time period. If less than 6 weeks = acute, if greater than = chronic

81
Q

If melanoma occurs in a congenital nevus, when is the earliest that is likely to occur?

A

puberty

83
Q

Layterm for crusts

A

scab? Yes that’s right, only the modern medical intellects employ the fancy word “crust”

84
Q

What is the most common cause of acute urticaria?

A

upper respiratory infection

85
Q

What is the “knee-jerk” reaction as described by Dr. Lim when you see a polygonal plaque?

A

lichen planus, recall that a plaque is a confluence of papules

87
Q

Damage to what layer is implied by the presence of a scar?

A

Dermis (at least) because the basal layer of epidermis is lost

89
Q

What are other names for A) open comedone and B) closed comedone

A

A) blackhead B) whitehead

90
Q

What happens to the amount of hair in Cushing’s dz and anemia?

A

more in Cushing’s Dz, less in anemia

91
Q

4 general causes of erythema nodosum?

A

infections, medications (birth control!), IBD, and sarcoidosis

92
Q

What dermatologic disease can rituximab (anti-CD21) be used to Tx?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

94
Q

What is the most common cause of autosensitization dermatitis?

A

stasis dermatitis

95
Q

After removal of a melanoma, what dictates the next step in its management?

A

The thickness of the original tumor

95
Q

Where are the lesions in pemphigus vulgaris?

A

In the mouth and skin? Bullous pemphigoid really does not involve the mouth unless it is just mucous membrane pemphigoid

97
Q

What is (cutaneous) atrophy?

A

Depression in the skin from thinning of epidermis or dermis

99
Q

What is the name of the feces of Scabies?

A

scybala

101
Q

What may be assoc. with soft skin?

A

hypopituitarism or hypothyroidism

101
Q

T/F: nuclear atypia in a dysplastic nevus is associated with a clinically benign outcome

A

True, dysplastic nevi are treated as benign conditions

102
Q

What is the Tx of Linear IgA disease?

A

Removal of the offending agent

104
Q

Where do melanomas most often arise?

A

In areas of skin where a nevus was not previously present

105
Q

T/F: if a morbilliform drug eruption then the offending agent must be stopped immediately

A

false, it may be continued if necessary

107
Q

What are the autoantibodies against in chronic autoimmune urticaria?

A

receptors on mast cells

109
Q

What drugs are most likely to cause fixed drug eruption?

A

ibuprofen, naproxen, sulfonamides, and tetracyclines

110
Q

What kind of urticaria develop after stressful events?

A

cholinergic urticaria

112
Q

What’s the difference between a vesicle and a bulla?

A

A bulla is circumscribed collection of free fluid greater than 0.5 cm whereas a vesicle is less than 0.5 cm

113
Q

What should you think if you see a burrow in the skin?

A

Scabies

114
Q

What is the difference between a keloid and a hypertrophic scar?

A

A keloid is a tumor of scar tissue that grows beyond the bounds of the initial lesion whereas a hypertrophic scar is just an excessively thickened scar

116
Q

Where does a pilar cyst come from? Where does an epidermal cyst come from?

A

Pilar cyst is from hair shaft, Epidermal cyst is from sebaceous gland and has a central punctum

117
Q

What is the best way to remove a suspicious looking mole?

A

elliptical excision (as opposed to shave, saucerization, or punch)

119
Q

When evaluating a patient for allergic contact dermatitis to everyday materials, what is the most important piece of information to receive?

A

ALL OF THE PRODUCTS THAT THEY ARE USING? It is more likely to be from something they have been using their whole life than something new

120
Q

When is there a risk of melanoma in congenital nevi?

A

If they are very large

122
Q

How do you treat allergic contact dermatitis?

A

topical and SYSTEMIC corticosteroids, systemic antihistamines, and soothing astringent wraps

123
Q

4 places keloids tend to form?

A

neck, chest, shoulders, and upper back

124
Q

What is the autoantigen in epidermolysis bullosa acquisita?

A

Type VII collagen

125
Q

MOA of trametinib

A

Inhibits MEK when treating Melanoam

126
Q

How do you tx porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

phlebotomy, the underlying cause is excess iron i.e. alcoholic cirrhosis, hemochromatosis and hepatocellular carcinoma? also LOW DOSE CHLOROQUINE

127
Q

What is it called when macules coalesce? What about when papules coalesce?

A

macules = patch, papules = plaque

128
Q

What is a circumscribed collection of leukocytes and free fluid that varies in size?

A

pustule

129
Q

Give an example of a chemical that can cause vitiligo

A

phenols

130
Q

What are scales?

A

Excess dead epidermal cells produced by abnromal keratinization and shedding

131
Q

What are milia? How do you differentiate from a whitehead?

A

small superficial keratin cysts without a visible opening

132
Q

What is dermatographism?

A

urticaria caused by rubbing or scratching the skin

133
Q

This is the most common type of drug eruption

A

Morbilliform drug reaction

134
Q

What is lichenification?

A

An area of thickening epidermis induced by scratching

135
Q

This is a depression in the skin resulting from thinning of epidermis or dermis

A

atrophy

136
Q

What are the autoantibodies targeting in bullous pemphigoid?

A

BPAg 1 and 2 (Bullous pemphigoid antigen 1 and 2)

137
Q

Name the 2 BRAF inhibitors for melanoma

A

vemurafinib and dabrafenib

138
Q

What does anasarca indicate?

A

could indicate severe liver or kidney disease with or without CHF

139
Q

What are the steroid-sparing therapies for pemphigus vulgaris?

A

mycophenolate mofetil or azathioprine (and rituximab)

140
Q

What demographic experiences the highest mortality rates with melanoma?

A

older men

141
Q

What immune cells mediate phytophotodermatitis?

A

none it is not mediated by the immune system but by a phototoxic reaction

142
Q

What differentiates erythema multiforme minor from major?

A

the amount of mucosal surface involvement

143
Q

Which type of melanoma occurs mostly in African American, Africans, and Asians?

A

Acral lentiginous melanoma

144
Q

What is the DOC for dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

dapsone but for long-term they need the gluten free diet

145
Q

Involvement of what structues concurrent with congenital nevi carries a poor prognosis (regardless of malignant transformation)?

A

leptomeninges (pia and arachnoid)

146
Q

What is the mainstay of Tx for pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Corticosteroids

147
Q

What is a firm (i.e. indurated) edematous plaque resulting from infiltration of the dermis with fluid?

A

Wheal

148
Q

What are the primary lesions of acne called?

A

Comedones

149
Q

What is a vesicle?

A

Circiumscribed collection of free fluid up to 0.5 cm in diameter

150
Q

Name 2 genes that have mutations which predispose to melanoma

A

CDKN2A and BRAF

151
Q

What is the big issue with mucous membrane pemphigoid?

A

It results in scarring at whatever mucosal sites it involves (corneal blindness, esophageal stenosis, laryngeal stenosis)

152
Q

What clinical sign can dermatologists use to tell which of a group of nevi is most likely to be melanoma

A

The Ugly Duckling sign–and these people need the highest board scores of all

153
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of allergic contact dermatitis?

A

eczematous dermatitis = itch, edema, erythema, and vesicle formation if acute/subacute and lichenification if chronic

154
Q

What kind of conditions are associated with acne excoriate?

A

neuroses, because they scratch like crazy (pun intended) at their acne leading to excoriations

DERM EXAM 2 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions