Old Missed TQ Flashcards

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1
Q

The RNA of the small ribosomal RNA subunit is synthesized by…

a) RNA polymerase I
b) RNA polymerase II
c) RNA polymerase III
d) RNA polymerase IV
E) RNA polymerase V

A

a) RNA polymerase I

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2
Q
The RNA of the mitochondrial RNA is synthesized by...
a) RNA polymerase I
b) RNA polymerase II
c) RNA polymerase III
d) RNA polymerase IV
E) RNA polymerase V
A

b) RNA polymerase II

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3
Q
The RNA of the tRNA is synthesized by...
a) RNA polymerase I
b) RNA polymerase II
c) RNA polymerase III
d) RNA polymerase IV
E) RNA polymerase V
A

c) RNA polymerase III

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4
Q

Which of the following would be a good definition of a gene?

a) A gene is a region of DNA sequence in which mutations may cause a disease
b) A gene has DNA sequence which encodes a protein
c) A gene has DNA sequence that contains a regulatory region
d) A gene is a region of DNA that contains introns
e) none of the other responses is correct

A

e) none of the other responses is correct

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5
Q

A microRNA

a) is an RNA whose role is in transcription and post transcriptional regulation of gene expression
b) encodes a small message utilizing a genetic code
c) has sequence added to it to enable linkage to an amino acid
d) refers to RNA in the small ribosomal subunit
e) refers to small RNAs in the small and large ribosomal subunit.

A

a) is an RNA whose role is in transcription and post transcriptional regulation of gene expression

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6
Q

A GCG in the gene sequences of the PROMOTER region of gene A is mutated to a GAG (in the genetic code GG is an alanine and the GAG is a glutamate). The result might be

a) misregulation of gene A
b) a silent mutation
c) a missense mutation
d) a nonsense mutation
e) altered stability of the mRNA transcribed from gene A

A

a) misregulation of gene A

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7
Q

The steps of tRNA processing are…

a) cleavage, addition and base modification
b) capping, polyadenylation and splicing
c) binding, bonding and translocation
d) coding, complementing and repeating
e) charging, base pairing and folding.

A

a) cleavage, addition and base modification

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8
Q

The steps of mRNA processing are…

a) cleavage, addition and base modification
b) capping, polyadenylation and splicing
c) binding, bonding and translocation
d) coding, complementing and repeating
e) charging, base pairing and folding.

A

b) capping, polyadenylation and splicing

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9
Q

The steps of amino acid synthesis are…

a) cleavage, addition and base modification
b) capping, polyadenylation and splicing
c) binding, bonding and translocation
d) coding, complementing and repeating
e) charging, base pairing and folding.

A

c) binding, bonding and translocation

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10
Q

Which of the following antibiotics do not act on ribosomes?

a) gentamycin
b) tetracycline
c) rifampicin
d) Ketek
e) chloramphenicol

A

c) rifampicin

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11
Q

One of the causes of beta-thalessemia is

a) a mutation that ecreases methylation of the FMR1 gene.
b) a nonsense mutation in the beta-thalas gene
c) a silent mutation in the beta globin coding sequence (CDS)
d) a mutation that increases the stability of beta thalas mRNA
e) a mutation in the promoter region of gamma-globin

A

e) a mutation in the promoter region of gamma-globin

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12
Q

An mRNA

a) cannot base pair with another strand of RNA
b) is made by the polymerizaiton of adenosine, cytidine, guanosine and thymidine triphosphates
c) results from the polymerization of amino acids
d) has untranslated regions (UTRs)
e) is NOT used as a template to make a protein

A

d) has untranslated regions (UTRs)

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13
Q

There is a mutation in the PROMOTER region of Gene A changing the sequence from UUA to UUC. Which of the following might result? (In the genetic code, UUA encodes leucine, and UUC encodes phenylalanine).

a) regulation of Gene A is altered
b) the protein encoded by Gene A has a missense mutation
c) the protein encoded by Gene A has a nonsense mutation
d) the protein encoded by Gene A has a silent mutation
e) the stability of the transcript encoded by Gene A is altered.

A

a) regulation of Gene A is altered

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14
Q

Which of the following types of RNA are not involved in translation?

a) NOT AN ANSWER
b) transfer RNA (tRNA)
b) ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
c) messenger RNA (mRNA)
e) small nuclear RNA (snRNA)

A

e) small nuclear RNA (snRNA)

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15
Q

The infectious disease diphtheria is harmful to humans because diphtheria toxin can

a) inhibit prokaryotic translocation
b) inhibit eukaryotic translocation
c) interere with ergulation of cholesterol synthesis
d) methylate propomoter reions
e) demethylate promotor regions.

A

b) inhibit eukaryotic translocation

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16
Q

The active form of the “maturation promoting factor” (MPF) helps initiate mitosis by enzymattically _______ many protein structures such as tubulin and nuclear laminins.

a) hydrolyzing
b) methylating
c) phosphorylating
d) carboxylating
e) glycosylating

A

c) phosphorylating

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17
Q

A tRNA (transfer RNA) has

a) an mRNA (messenger RNA) on one end and an rRNA (ribosomal RNA) on the other
b) only silent mutations
c) a sequence that enables it to bind transcription factors
d) an anticodon RNA sequence on one end and the corresponding amino acid on the other
e) RNA polymerase on one end and an amino acid on the other.

A

d) an anticodon RNA sequence on one end and the corresponding amino acid on the other

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18
Q

Tetracyline inhibits

a) formation of covalent bonds by RNA polymerase
b) binding of the large ribosomal subunit to the complex including small ribosomal subunit and mRNA
c) proper function of vestibular and cochlear cells of the ear, and proximal tubular cells of the kidney
d) binding of aminacyl tRNAs
e) binding of TFIIA

A

d) binding of aminacyl tRNAs (in transcription)

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19
Q

Which of the following is an antibiotic that inhibits translation (hint: an adverse effect associated with this drug is fatal aplastic anemia)?

a) formivirsen (Vitravene)
b) chloramphenicol
c) sulfamethoxazole (A sulfa drug)
d) rifampicin (Rifampin)
e) methotrexate

A

b) chloramphenicol

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20
Q

Which of the following antibiotics binds to ribosomes?

a) ciproflaxacin
b) rifampicin
c) Bactroban
d) Agmentin
e) erythromycin

A

e) erythromycin

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21
Q

In the PROMOTER region of the beta-globin gene of some individuals, there is a mutation 88 base pairs up stream of the transcription start site resulting in a sequence of ATC where most humans have the sequence ACC. IN the genetic code AC encodes the amino acid theronine and the AUC encodes the aminoacid isoleucine. Which of the following is most likely the result of this mutation?

a) a msisense mutation
b) missplicing of the intron
c) a nonsense mutation
d) a silent mutation
e) misregulation of the gene

A

e) misregulation of the gene

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22
Q

One form of regulation used by intestional cells to slow iron entry when the body iron is sufficient is to

a) increase degradation of transferrin receptor mRNA through binding of the iron response element protein (IREBP) to the 5’ untranslated region (5’UTR).
b) inhibit translation through binding of the iron response element binding protein (RIEBP) to the 5’ untranslated region (5’ UTR) of the apoferritin mRNA
c) cleave the iron response element binding protein (IREBP) due to proteases in the cis GLogi, freeing it to act as a transcription factor that binds to the pormoter region of the transferrin receptor gene.
d) increase degradation of transferrin receptor gene through binding of the iron response element binding protein (IREBP) to the 5’ untranslated region (5’UTR)
e) inhibit translation through binding of the iron response element binding protein (IREBP) to the 5’ untranslated region (5’UTR) of the apoferritin gene

A

…?

The test key says B, but I have doubts

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23
Q

FAD+ is formed from…

a) nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide and adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
b) beta alanine and beta-aminoisobutyrate
c) adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and flavin mononucleotide (FMN).
d) fiboflavin and deoxyguanosine triphosphate (dGTP)
e) riboflavin and ADP-ribose.

A

c) adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and flavin mononucleotide (FMN). (riboflavin)

24
Q

NAD+ is formed from…

a) nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide and adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
b) beta alanine and beta-aminoisobutyrate
c) adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and flavin mononucleotide (FMN).
d) fiboflavin and deoxyguanosine triphosphate (dGTP)
e) riboflavin and ADP-ribose.

A

a) nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (niacin) and adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

25
Q

Which vitamin derivative serves the source of nicotinamide?

A

Vitamin B3 (niacin)

26
Q

Coenzyme A is synthesized in part from

a) ATP and niacin
b) ATP and cysteine
c) CTP (cytidine triphosphate)
d) ATP and aspartate
e) GTP (guanosine triphosphate)

A

b) ATP and cysteine

pantothenate, 4 ATP, and Cysteine]

27
Q

PCR (polymerase chain reaction) might be used to amplify DNA for direct use in

a) a yeast expression system
b) a eukaryotic expression system
c) a bacterial expression system
d) a microarray experiment
e) sequencing

A

e) sequencing

28
Q

Can there be genetic diseases that are not inherited?

a) Yes. genetic defects resulting in disease may arise during development of the embryo that are so severe that they would not result in a live birth if they were inherited
b) Yes, there are many infectious diseases that can be passed from mother to fetus
c) yes, when a female has a Y-linked disease this is clearly not inherited
d) No, stop that nonsense
e) Yes, diseases that aer not genetic may be inherited.

A

a) Yes. genetic defects resulting in disease may arise during development of the embryo that are so severe that they would not result in a live birth if they were inherited

29
Q

Females are often protected from X-linked disease due to

a) the absence of the Y chromosome
b) havinh twice as many X chromosomes as a male
c) x-inactivation
d) the absence of androgenic hormones
e) the presence of estrogens

A

b) havinh twice as many X chromosomes as a male

30
Q

Proliferating cell nuclear antigen affects the processivity of DNA polymerase delta by

a) performing a proofreading type of function
b) forming a clamp around the template strand
c) performing a snowplow type of editing function
d) forming a nucleosome using a histone complex
e) shortening the Okazaki fragments

A

b) forming a clamp around the template strand [to increase processivity of DNA polymerase Delta]

31
Q

Nalidixic acid can stop bacterial DNA replication because it reacts with the enzyme, ________, in order to inhibit that enzyme from adjusting the amount of DNA supercoiling that occurs during replication.

A

topoisomerase

32
Q

In eukaryotes, protein biosynthesis must take place at the same time DNA replication is occurring since ______ are required for the new nucleosomes that are being formed

A

histones

33
Q

The displacement loop mechanism is used

a) in eukaryotic mitochondrial DNA replication
b) only for synthesizing Okazaki fragments
c) only for correcting and ligating Okazaki fragments
d) in E. coli DNA replication
e) in eukaryotic nuclear DNA replication.

A

a) in eukaryotic mitochondrial DNA replication

34
Q

The enzyme that catalyzes the step of purine synthesis in which of the first component of the ring is added to PRPP, and is inhibited by AMP, GMP and IMP is

a) PRPp tranformylase
b) glutamine -PRPP amidotransferase
C) IMP dehydrogenase
D) IDP dehydrogenase
E) carbamoyl phosphate synthetases II

A

b) glutamine -PRPP amidotransferase

pg 103

35
Q

The enzyme that converts folate into its active form is utilized in purine synthesis (and thymidine synthesis and aminio acid metabolism) is…

A

dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)

pg 99

36
Q

Two pyrimidine bases that are commonly found in deoxyribonucleic acids (DNA) are:

a) uracil and thymine
b) adenine and guanine
c) adenine and thymine
d) cytosine and thymine
e) cytosine and uracil

A

d) cytosine and thymine

37
Q

Which of the following is a pyrimidine base?

a) guanosine
b) guanine
c) adenine
d) adenosine
e) thymine

A

e) thymine

38
Q

Methotrexate inhibits pathways leading to the formation of…?

A

IMP and TMP

39
Q

Defects in which of the following enzymes lead to essentially the same disease?

a) GAR transformylase, AICAR transofrmylase, and thymidylate synthase
b) PNP and ADA
c) Adenylosucinate synthetase and IMP dehydrogenase
d) Xanthine oxidase, beta-alanine oxidase and beta-aminoisobutyrate oxidasxanthine oxidase and TPMT
e)

A

c) Adenylosucinate synthetase and IMP dehydrogenase

??

40
Q

Sulfa drugs lead to the inhibition of…

A

synthesis of purines and a pyrimidine in bacteria

41
Q

The inhibition of thymidylate synthase due to the prodrug 5-fluorouracil is irreversible because…

A

the drug is a suicide inhibitor.

42
Q

Which drug inhibits thymidylate synthase?

A

5-fluorouracil

43
Q

Which of the following compounds accumulates in homocystinuria modifies LDL and is known to cause atheroma?

a) cystine
b_ homocysteine thiolactone
c) methionine
d) SAM
e) pyruvate kinase
A

d) SAM

44
Q

Patients with homocystinuria lack

a) cystathionine synthase
b) prolyl hydroxylase
c) methionine adenosyltransferase
d) methylmalonyl coA mutase
e) all the answers are correct

A

a) cystathionine synthase

45
Q

The conversion of methylmalonyl CoA into succinyl CoA is catalyzed by the enzyme ___________ that requires ____________ as a coenzyme.

A

methylmalonyl CoA mutase; cobalamin (Vitamin B12)

46
Q

In alcaptonuria ,__________ enzyme is deficient

a) cystationinase
b) methionine synthase
c) cystationine synthase
d) homogentisate oxidase
e) phenylalanine hydroxylase

A

d) homogentisate oxidase

47
Q

which of the following biosyntheses does not require SAM?

a) creatine
b) epinephrine
c) tyrosine
d) phosphatidyl choline
e) carnitine

A

c) tyrosine

48
Q

Which one of the following amino acids is required precursor for carnitine synthesis?

a) lysine
b) glycine
c) arginine
d) glutamate
e) aspartate

A

a) lysine

49
Q

Sulfoamides inhibit the synthesis of

a) phosphopanthetheine
b) vitamin B6 derivative, pyridoxal phosphate
c) biotin
d) folic acid
e) vitamin B12 derivative, cobalamin

A

d) folic acid

50
Q

Zinc fingers are parts of the _______ domain of a typical steroid hormone receptor.

a) variable (antigenic)
b) steroid binding
c) extreme carboxyl terminal
d) DNA binding
e) extreme amino terminal

A

d) DNA binding

51
Q

Which of the following compounds is one of the ketone bodies?

a) acetoacetyl CoA
b) beta-hydroxybutyric acid
c) malonyl coA
d) HMG-CoA
e) acetate

A

b) beta-hydroxybutyric acid

52
Q

ABCA1 is essential for the formation of _______.

a) LDL
b) IDL
c) chylomicrons
d) VLDL
e) HDL

A

HDL

53
Q

Which of the following apoproteins is structurally related to the proenzyme plasminogen?

a) A-II
b) B-100
c) B-48
d) (a)
e) E

A

d) apo-(a)

54
Q

Muscle weakness and hypoketosis are symptoms of what condition?

A

defective Carnitine aceyltransferase I (CAT-I)

55
Q

Which of the following enzymes is allosterically inhibited by malonyl CoA?

A

carnitine acyltransferase I (CAT-1)

56
Q

Which protein catalyzes the exchange of triacylglycerols and cholesteryl esters between HDL and VLDL/LDL?

a) phospholipid transfer protein
b) ATP biding cassette transporter A1
c) cholesterol ester transfer protein
d) phosphoprotein lipase
e) hepatic lipase

A

cholesterol ester transfer protein

57
Q

The precursor of the plasma lipoprotein HDL orginates in the liver as

a) ApoE
b) Apo(a)
c) ApoAI
d) ApoAII
e) ApoCII

A

c) ApoAI