Old Material Flashcards

1
Q

An increase in parasympathetic tone causes

A

bronchoconstriction

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2
Q

The adrenal medulla releases

A

Mostly epinephrine, a smaller amount of norepinephrine

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3
Q

Which is characteristic of the “fight or flight” response?

A

Vasodilation of vessels supplying skeletal muscle

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4
Q

What type of receptor is found on the pacemaker cells of the heart?

A

beta 1 adrenergic

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5
Q

Which of the following causes an increase in heart rate?

A

Norepinephrine at beta 1 adrenergic receptors of the SA node

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6
Q

Plasma and interstitial fluid contain higher _____ and lower _____ compared with intracellular fluid.

A

Na+; K+

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7
Q

Oxygenated blood is found in the

A

pulmonary vein

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8
Q

What are the predicted effects of a muscarinic cholinergic agonist?

A

Decreased heart rate

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9
Q

Which of the following stimulates increased release of erythropoietin?

A

All of the above

tissue hypoxia, low blood oxygen, anemia

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10
Q

In erythrocyte recycling by the liver and spleen, the heme group of hemoglobin is metabolized into

A

bilirubin and bile

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11
Q

Blood cells form from stem cells located in

A

bone marrow

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12
Q

Males generally have a higher hematocrit than females. Thus males have

A

Higher amount of erythrocytes than females

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13
Q

An excess of white blood cells is associated with

A

leukemia

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14
Q

Which accurately describes the sequence of activation in the common pathway of clotting?

A

Factor X/prothrombin/thrombin/fibrin

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15
Q

Platelets aid in clotting by

A

All of the above

secreting vasoconstrictors; activating clotting factors; aggregating at a vessel injury

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16
Q

A blood clot is the combination of erythrocytes, platelets and

A

fibrin

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17
Q

A traveling blood clot is called

A

embolus

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18
Q

The mitral valve is located between the

A

Left atrium and left ventricle

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19
Q

What allows electrical signals to travel throughout the heart muscle?

A

Gap junctions

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20
Q

The right side of the heart contains _____ blood. The left side of the heart contains _____ blood.

A

Deoxygenated; oxygenated

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21
Q

The heart is contained in the

A

pericardial cavity

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22
Q

Acetylcholine is a

A

negative chronotropic agent

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23
Q

The plateau phase in the action potential of the cardiac myocyte

A

All of the above

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24
Q

An increase in vagal (parasympathetic) tone results in

A

Hyperpolarization of pacemaker cells

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25
Q

Which sequence accurately describes the order of the Cardiac electrical conduction pathway?

A

SA node/atrial myocardium/AV node/AV bundle/Ventricular myocardium

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26
Q

Sympathetic stimulation of the pacemaker cells of the heart causes

A

Calcium influx through L-type calcium channels

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27
Q

Semilunar valves open during

A

ventricular systole

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28
Q

In order to eject blood from the heart, ventricular pressure must

A

exceed aortic pressure

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29
Q

Increased preload (End Diastolic Volume) causes

A

increased stroke volume

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30
Q

epinephrine is a

A

Positive chronotropic and inotropic agent

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31
Q

What type of agent will block (prolong) phase 3 of the action potential of cardiac myocytes?

A

Potassium channel blocker

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32
Q

Stroke volume=

A

End diastolic volume (EDV) - End systolic volume (ESV)

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33
Q

The average cardiac output in a resting individual is

A

5L/min

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34
Q

Heart rate=

A

cardiac output/ stroke volume

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35
Q

Which statement accurately describes Starling’s Law of the Heart?

A

Increased filling of the heart stretches the ventricular wall, causing cardiac muscle to contract more forcefully

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36
Q

Ventricular systole involves all of the following EXCEPT

A

atrial contraction

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37
Q

What does an ECG measure?

A

Electrical activity of the heart

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38
Q

A resting heartbeat above 100 beats per minute is known as?

A

Tachycardia

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39
Q

Atrial depolarization on an ECG is represented as

A

P wave

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40
Q

The ‘Ectopic foci’ that can cause premature beats (PACs, PVCs) are actually

A

Cardiac myocytes that take over as pacemaker cells

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41
Q

Bradycardia is a common side-effect of which agent?

A

beta blocker

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42
Q

Large lumens, low pressure, blood storage are features of which vessels?

A

veins

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43
Q

In atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter, the inefficient emptying of the blood from the atria makes what event more likely?

A

clot formation

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44
Q

Systolic blood pressure is generated by

A

Ventricular contraction

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45
Q

The most significant influence on vascular resistance is

A

vessel radius

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46
Q

Dilation of an arteriole to twice its radius will have what effect on blood flow

A

16-fold increase in flow

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47
Q

An L-type calcium channel blocker has what effect on blood vessels?

A

vasodilation

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48
Q

vascular compliance is

A

The increase in vessel volume compared to the increase in vessel pressure

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49
Q

Which blood vessels play a key role in regulating blood distribution and pressure because their diameters may be easily and rapidly adjusted?

A

arterioles

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50
Q

the slowest movement of blood occurs in

A

capillaries

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51
Q

The vessels that supply the neck and head on each side

A

carotid arteries

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52
Q

Relatively thick muscular walls and elastic properties refers to

A

large artery

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53
Q

What is the MAP of a person with a systolic/diastolic blood pressure reading of 100/60 mm Hg?

A

73 mmHg

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54
Q

An increase in sympathetic tone causes veins to

A

all of the above

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55
Q

The volume of blood flowing back to the heart through the systemic veins is known as

A

venous return

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56
Q
Given these blood vessels:
1.  aorta
2.  inferior vena cava
3.  pulmonary arteries
4.  pulmonary veins
Which vessels carry oxygen-rich blood?
A

1,4

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57
Q

The rate of blood flow in pulmonary circulation is _____ the rate of blood flow in systemic circulation.

A

equal to

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58
Q

To return blood back to the heart, _____ must exceed that of _____.

A

Venous pressure; Right atrial pressure

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59
Q

The flow of blood into an individual capillary is regulated by a/an

A

precapillary sphincter

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60
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system can influence MAP by altering

A

heart rate

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61
Q

In response to cold (decreased metabolism), an organ will do what to keep it’s local blood flow constant?

A

Constrict precapillary sphincters

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62
Q

Baroreceptors are located in the _____.

A

aorta and carotid sinus

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63
Q

Loss of sympathetic tone at systemic arterioles results in

A

Decreased total peripheral resistance (TPR)

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64
Q

Loss of sympathetic tone at systemic veins results in

A

Decreased venous return

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65
Q

Which plasma protein circulates in the blood in an inactive state?

A

angiotensinogen

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66
Q

Long-term regulation of blood pressure is primarily accomplished by altering

A

blood volume

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67
Q

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted from the _____ when blood pressure _____.

A

Atria; rises

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68
Q

Angiotensin II raises blood pressure by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT

A

Promoting water excretion by the kidney

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69
Q

A blood pressure of 140/80 is categorized as

A

Stage I Hypertension

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70
Q

Why is hypertension associated with higher myocardial oxygen demand?

A

The heart has to work harder to eject blood

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71
Q

When blood pressure rises, baroreceptors signal the brainstem to decrease sympathetic output, resulting in all of the following EXCEPT

A

Vasoconstriction

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72
Q

The crushing pain associated with angina pectoralis is an indication that

A

The heart is ischemic

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73
Q

In heart failure, the kidneys

A

Increase blood volume

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74
Q

The release of renin is directly stimulated by?

A

Decreased blood flow to kidneys

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75
Q

A sudden drop in blood pressure and loss of consciousness is known as

A

shock

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76
Q

What causes reabsorption of fluid at the venous end of an idealized capillary bed?

A

C. Low capillary hydrostatic pressure and high capillary colloidal osmotic pressure

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77
Q

The endothelium (lining of capillaries) is

A

Simple squamous epithelium

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78
Q

What type of substance would you NOT expect to find in urine?

A

mitochondria

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79
Q

What is the osmolarity of lymph?

A

300 mosmol/L

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80
Q

What happens to lymph?

A

It returns to the blood at subclavian veins

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81
Q

What type of capillaries form the glomerulus of the nephron?

A

fenestrated

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82
Q

the neural control of micturition, which efferent pathway is under-developed in infants?

A

somatic- from brain

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83
Q

What sort of receptors are most important in the contraction of the detrusor muscle?

A

muscarinic cholinergic

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84
Q

Urine flows from a kidney to the urinary bladder via a

A

ureter

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85
Q

What is the name of the long capillary loops that parallel the loop of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons?

A

vasa recta

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86
Q

In ultrafiltration in a typical capillary bed, the ultrafiltrate moves from

A

The vascular lumen to the interstitium

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87
Q

Which vessels receive blood directly from the efferent arteriole?

A

Peritubular capillaries

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88
Q

What are the characteristics of inulin that make its clearance = GFR?

A

Freely filtered, not reabsorbed, not secreted

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89
Q

What structures are located on the apical surfaces of proximal convoluted tubule cells that increase the surface area available for reabsorption?

A

microvilli

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90
Q

In the nephron, ultrafiltration occurs at the _____ and reabsorption at the _____.

A

glomerulus; peritubular capillaries

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91
Q

How does dilation of the afferent arteriole produce an increase in GFR?

A

Increased blood pressure and increased blood flow

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92
Q

The tubular transport maximum for glucose measures the maximum rate of glucose ____ by the renal tubules.

A

reabsorption

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93
Q

Which of the following will most definitely cause an increase in the GFR even when MAP is very low?

A

constriction of the efferent arteriole

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94
Q

About how much fluid is filtered into the renal tubules each minute?

A

125 mL

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95
Q

Average creatinine clearance for a young adult male is _____.

A

125 ml/min

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96
Q

Where does most reabsorption occur?

A

proximal convoluted tubule

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97
Q

Substances with high clearances are actively

A

secreted

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98
Q

In the first step of glucose reabsorption, what moves “downhill” to allow glucose to move “uphill” across the apical membrane?

A

Na+

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99
Q

What is one direct consequence (not cause) of a high GFR?

A

electrolyte depletion

100
Q

The formation of the medullary osmotic gradient requires counter-current multiplication by the

A

loop of henle

101
Q

In the absence of ADH, what type of urine is formed?

A

hypotonic

102
Q

During periods of dehydration, how much more concentrated than typical body fluids can human urine become?

A

4x

103
Q

Where is the energy expended for counter current multiplication?

A

Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

104
Q

Body osmolarity is approximately

A

300 mOsm

105
Q

Diuretic agents _____ water loss by _____.

A

increase; decreasing salt reabsorption

106
Q

Which transporter is blocked by loop diuretics?

A

Na+/K+/2Cl-

107
Q

One hypothesis for the diuretic effect of caffeine is that it causes dilation of the afferent arteriole, thereby causing a(n)

A

increase in glomerular filtration

108
Q

The addition of water channels to the apical membranes of the cells of the collecting ducts, allowing increased water reabsorption, is caused by

A

vasopressin

109
Q

Aldosterone causes increased

A

Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion

110
Q

Hypokalemia means

A

a low level of potassium in the blood

111
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, such as acetazolamide, alkalinize the urine by

A

inhibiting the reabsorption of HCO3-

112
Q

Carbon dioxide is also known as a respiratory _____, because it ____ blood pH.

A

acid; lowers

113
Q

In respiration O2 is brought in and used and is given off.

A

co2

114
Q

What moves mucus, with its trapped dirt and bacteria, out of the respiratory system?

A

cilia

115
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the air conduction passageways?

A

gas exchange

116
Q

Respiratory acidosis may result from

A

hypoventilation

117
Q

Dilation of the bronchioles to twice the radius will cause a

A

16 fold increase in air flow

118
Q

Gas exchange between air and blood occurs in

A

alveoli

119
Q

Constriction of the bronchioles is due to the actions of _____ at _____ receptors.

A

Acetylcholine; Muscarinic cholinergic

120
Q

The cilia and mucus cells of respiratory epithelium serve to

A

Trap particulate matter in air

121
Q

Bronchodilation can be produced by

A

Stimulation of beta 2 adrenergic receptors

122
Q

Tidal volume is

A

500 mL

123
Q

Surfactant molecules reduce the surface tension of

A

water

124
Q

The single most important muscle / muscle group for quiet (routine) inspiration:

A

diaphragm

125
Q

In emphysema, there is less surface area available for gas exchange because

A

alveolar walls have deteriorated

126
Q

The function of surfactant is to

A

Increase alveolar expansion by reducing the surface tension of water

127
Q

In quiet breathing (at rest), Inspiration is mediated by _____. Expiration is mediated by _____.

A

Muscle contraction; Recoil

128
Q

When deflated, alveoli have relatively______, which aids in inspiration.

A

low surface tension

129
Q

The sequence for the movement of O2 from the alveolus to blood is

A

Type I cell, basement membrane, endothelial cell

130
Q

Because it produces a right shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, acidification of the blood causes

A

Increased O2 delivery to the tissues

131
Q

A ventilation/perfusion ratio of 0.8 means that

A

Airflow and blood flow at the alveoli are balanced

132
Q

When blood passes through tissues with low temperatures (i.e. cold hands or feet), what happens to the oxygen dissociation curve?

A

Shift to the left - increased affinity for oxygen

133
Q

A patient comes to you seeking treatment for difficulty breathing due to narrowed air passages (from chronic bronchitis). What agent are you most likely to recommend to help the patient with breathing?

A

Muscarinic cholinergic antagonist

134
Q

Pneumonia is characterized by a build-up of fluid in the interstitium of the lungs. The fluid inhibits gas diffusion because

A

the distance is increased

135
Q

Pneumonia is characterized by a build-up of fluid in the interstitium of the lungs. The fluid inhibits gas diffusion because

A

as HCO3-

136
Q

Which of the following is most important for the routine regulation of respiration?

A

CO2 (pH) at central chemoreceptors

137
Q

The inspiratory and expiratory control centers are located in the

A

medulla

138
Q

If cardiac output increases to 15 L/min, to make a V/Q match, ventilation rate must

A

increase to 12 L/min

139
Q

At high altitudes, airplane cabins must be pressurized in order to

A

Increase the O2 content of the air

140
Q

Which neurotransmitter is responsible for stimulating the defecation reflex?

A

Acetylcholine

141
Q

In the enteric nervous system, short (myenteric) reflexes are integrated in the _______.

A

gut wall

142
Q

During swallowing, what structure blocks the larynx from the pharynx?

A

epiglottis

143
Q

The myenteric and submucosal plexuses are part of the

A

enteric nervous system

144
Q

The smell of that food is so good, “it makes my mouth water!” What glands are being activated?

A

Salivary glands

145
Q

Which receptor on parietal cells does NOT stimulate HCl secretion?

A

Alpha 1 adrenergic

146
Q

Which of the following is a side effect of anti-cholinergic drugs?

A

Difficulty in defecation

147
Q

Which hormone increases secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas?

A

Secretin

148
Q

When thoughts of food activate your stomach, which phase of regulation of gastric secretion are you experiencing?

A

cephalic

149
Q

The major function of the large intestine is

A

absorption of water

150
Q

The majority of absorption of digested materials occurs in the

A

small intestine

151
Q

The single most important protein for the absorption/reabsorption of water, salts and nutrients from the intestinal lumen into the body is

A

The Na+/K+ ATPase

152
Q

Omeprazole (Prilosec) decreases acid secretion from parietal cells by

A

Blocking the proton pump

153
Q

Protein digestion begins in the _____ and is completed in the _____.

A

Stomach; Small intestine

154
Q

Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in the GI tract by what mechanism?

A

Secondary active transport

155
Q

The feeding and satiety centers are located in the

A

Hypothalamus

156
Q

Ghrelin _____. Leptin _____.

A

Promotes hunger; Promotes satiety

157
Q

The hormone CCK stimulates the secretion of

A

Digestive enzymes by the pancreas

158
Q

Decreased conjugation of bilirubin is one cause of

A

Jaundice

159
Q

Which substances are least likely to be subject to a “first pass effect”?

A

lipids

160
Q

What process occurs in hepatocytes that typically allows a substance to be secreted into the bile?

A

conjugation

161
Q

A drug is much more active when taken orally than when injected subcutaneously. What might explain this phenomenon?

A

The drug requires activation by the liver

162
Q

What causes reabsorption of fluid at the venous end of an idealized capillary bed?

A

C. Low capillary hydrostatic pressure and high capillary colloidal osmotic pressure

163
Q

The endothelium (lining of capillaries) is

A

Simple squamous epithelium

164
Q

What type of substance would you NOT expect to find in urine?

A

mitochondria

165
Q

What is the osmolarity of lymph?

A

300 mosmol/L

166
Q

What happens to lymph?

A

It returns to the blood at subclavian veins

167
Q

What type of capillaries form the glomerulus of the nephron?

A

fenestrated

168
Q

the neural control of micturition, which efferent pathway is under-developed in infants?

A

somatic- from brain

169
Q

What sort of receptors are most important in the contraction of the detrusor muscle?

A

muscarinic cholinergic

170
Q

Urine flows from a kidney to the urinary bladder via a

A

ureter

171
Q

What is the name of the long capillary loops that parallel the loop of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons?

A

vasa recta

172
Q

In ultrafiltration in a typical capillary bed, the ultrafiltrate moves from

A

The vascular lumen to the interstitium

173
Q

Which vessels receive blood directly from the efferent arteriole?

A

Peritubular capillaries

174
Q

What are the characteristics of inulin that make its clearance = GFR?

A

Freely filtered, not reabsorbed, not secreted

175
Q

What structures are located on the apical surfaces of proximal convoluted tubule cells that increase the surface area available for reabsorption?

A

microvilli

176
Q

In the nephron, ultrafiltration occurs at the _____ and reabsorption at the _____.

A

glomerulus; peritubular capillaries

177
Q

How does dilation of the afferent arteriole produce an increase in GFR?

A

Increased blood pressure and increased blood flow

178
Q

The tubular transport maximum for glucose measures the maximum rate of glucose ____ by the renal tubules.

A

reabsorption

179
Q

Which of the following will most definitely cause an increase in the GFR even when MAP is very low?

A

constriction of the efferent arteriole

180
Q

About how much fluid is filtered into the renal tubules each minute?

A

125 mL

181
Q

Average creatinine clearance for a young adult male is _____.

A

125 ml/min

182
Q

Where does most reabsorption occur?

A

proximal convoluted tubule

183
Q

Substances with high clearances are actively

A

secreted

184
Q

In the first step of glucose reabsorption, what moves “downhill” to allow glucose to move “uphill” across the apical membrane?

A

Na+

185
Q

What is one direct consequence (not cause) of a high GFR?

A

electrolyte depletion

186
Q

The formation of the medullary osmotic gradient requires counter-current multiplication by the

A

loop of henle

187
Q

In the absence of ADH, what type of urine is formed?

A

hypotonic

188
Q

During periods of dehydration, how much more concentrated than typical body fluids can human urine become?

A

4x

189
Q

Where is the energy expended for counter current multiplication?

A

Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

190
Q

Body osmolarity is approximately

A

300 mOsm

191
Q

Diuretic agents _____ water loss by _____.

A

increase; decreasing salt reabsorption

192
Q

Which transporter is blocked by loop diuretics?

A

Na+/K+/2Cl-

193
Q

One hypothesis for the diuretic effect of caffeine is that it causes dilation of the afferent arteriole, thereby causing a(n)

A

increase in glomerular filtration

194
Q

The addition of water channels to the apical membranes of the cells of the collecting ducts, allowing increased water reabsorption, is caused by

A

vasopressin

195
Q

Aldosterone causes increased

A

Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion

196
Q

Hypokalemia means

A

a low level of potassium in the blood

197
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, such as acetazolamide, alkalinize the urine by

A

inhibiting the reabsorption of HCO3-

198
Q

Carbon dioxide is also known as a respiratory _____, because it ____ blood pH.

A

acid; lowers

199
Q

In respiration O2 is brought in and used and is given off.

A

co2

200
Q

What moves mucus, with its trapped dirt and bacteria, out of the respiratory system?

A

cilia

201
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the air conduction passageways?

A

gas exchange

202
Q

Respiratory acidosis may result from

A

hypoventilation

203
Q

Dilation of the bronchioles to twice the radius will cause a

A

16 fold increase in air flow

204
Q

Gas exchange between air and blood occurs in

A

alveoli

205
Q

Constriction of the bronchioles is due to the actions of _____ at _____ receptors.

A

Acetylcholine; Muscarinic cholinergic

206
Q

The cilia and mucus cells of respiratory epithelium serve to

A

Trap particulate matter in air

207
Q

Bronchodilation can be produced by

A

Stimulation of beta 2 adrenergic receptors

208
Q

Tidal volume is

A

500 mL

209
Q

Surfactant molecules reduce the surface tension of

A

water

210
Q

The single most important muscle / muscle group for quiet (routine) inspiration:

A

diaphragm

211
Q

In emphysema, there is less surface area available for gas exchange because

A

alveolar walls have deteriorated

212
Q

The function of surfactant is to

A

Increase alveolar expansion by reducing the surface tension of water

213
Q

In quiet breathing (at rest), Inspiration is mediated by _____. Expiration is mediated by _____.

A

Muscle contraction; Recoil

214
Q

When deflated, alveoli have relatively______, which aids in inspiration.

A

low surface tension

215
Q

The sequence for the movement of O2 from the alveolus to blood is

A

Type I cell, basement membrane, endothelial cell

216
Q

Because it produces a right shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, acidification of the blood causes

A

Increased O2 delivery to the tissues

217
Q

A ventilation/perfusion ratio of 0.8 means that

A

Airflow and blood flow at the alveoli are balanced

218
Q

When blood passes through tissues with low temperatures (i.e. cold hands or feet), what happens to the oxygen dissociation curve?

A

Shift to the left - increased affinity for oxygen

219
Q

A patient comes to you seeking treatment for difficulty breathing due to narrowed air passages (from chronic bronchitis). What agent are you most likely to recommend to help the patient with breathing?

A

Muscarinic cholinergic antagonist

220
Q

Pneumonia is characterized by a build-up of fluid in the interstitium of the lungs. The fluid inhibits gas diffusion because

A

the distance is increased

221
Q

Pneumonia is characterized by a build-up of fluid in the interstitium of the lungs. The fluid inhibits gas diffusion because

A

as HCO3-

222
Q

Which of the following is most important for the routine regulation of respiration?

A

CO2 (pH) at central chemoreceptors

223
Q

The inspiratory and expiratory control centers are located in the

A

medulla

224
Q

If cardiac output increases to 15 L/min, to make a V/Q match, ventilation rate must

A

increase to 12 L/min

225
Q

At high altitudes, airplane cabins must be pressurized in order to

A

Increase the O2 content of the air

226
Q

Which neurotransmitter is responsible for stimulating the defecation reflex?

A

Acetylcholine

227
Q

In the enteric nervous system, short (myenteric) reflexes are integrated in the _______.

A

gut wall

228
Q

During swallowing, what structure blocks the larynx from the pharynx?

A

epiglottis

229
Q

The myenteric and submucosal plexuses are part of the

A

enteric nervous system

230
Q

The smell of that food is so good, “it makes my mouth water!” What glands are being activated?

A

Salivary glands

231
Q

Which receptor on parietal cells does NOT stimulate HCl secretion?

A

Alpha 1 adrenergic

232
Q

Which of the following is a side effect of anti-cholinergic drugs?

A

Difficulty in defecation

233
Q

Which hormone increases secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas?

A

Secretin

234
Q

When thoughts of food activate your stomach, which phase of regulation of gastric secretion are you experiencing?

A

cephalic

235
Q

The major function of the large intestine is

A

absorption of water

236
Q

The majority of absorption of digested materials occurs in the

A

small intestine

237
Q

The single most important protein for the absorption/reabsorption of water, salts and nutrients from the intestinal lumen into the body is

A

The Na+/K+ ATPase

238
Q

Omeprazole (Prilosec) decreases acid secretion from parietal cells by

A

Blocking the proton pump

239
Q

Protein digestion begins in the _____ and is completed in the _____.

A

Stomach; Small intestine

240
Q

Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in the GI tract by what mechanism?

A

Secondary active transport

241
Q

The feeding and satiety centers are located in the

A

Hypothalamus

242
Q

Ghrelin _____. Leptin _____.

A

Promotes hunger; Promotes satiety

243
Q

The hormone CCK stimulates the secretion of

A

Digestive enzymes by the pancreas

244
Q

Decreased conjugation of bilirubin is one cause of

A

Jaundice

245
Q

Which substances are least likely to be subject to a “first pass effect”?

A

lipids

246
Q

What process occurs in hepatocytes that typically allows a substance to be secreted into the bile?

A

conjugation

247
Q

A drug is much more active when taken orally than when injected subcutaneously. What might explain this phenomenon?

A

The drug requires activation by the liver