Old material Flashcards

1
Q

What is dermatomycoses?

A

Cutaneous infection caused by yeast and normally saprophytic filamentous fungi resembling dematophytosis.

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2
Q

What type of immunity plays an important role in protection and recovery from cutaneous mycoses infection?

A

Cell-mediated

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3
Q

Dermatophyte infections are called what?

A

Dermatophytosis or ringworm.

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4
Q

What are the 2 phases of infection with cutaneous mycoses?

A
  1. ) Initial: little host response, hypertrophy of stratum corneum, with accerlated keratinization, scruffy apperance and hair loss.
  2. ) Secondary phase: Inflammatory: ranges from erythema to vesiculopustular reactions and suppuration. Local plaques (kerions) may resemble skin tumors.
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5
Q

What is subcutaneous mycoses?

A

Broad range of infections involving deeper layers of skin, muscle, bone or connective tissues.

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6
Q

What caused this?

A

Sporothrix schenckii

Causes sporotrichosis

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7
Q

What species do we see Sporothrix schenckii in?

A

Cats, humans, horses and dogs.

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8
Q

How do most animals get S. schenckii?

What is the pathogenesis?

A

Traumatic event

Leads to ulcerating cutaneous nodules

Spreads to SQ lymph channels

Pyogranulomatous lesions

Suppurative ulcers develop

Dissemination to joints, viscera and CNS (in cats)

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9
Q

Exudates in Sporothrix yield the highest # of fungi in what species?

A

Cats

Below is the yeast form of Sporothrix.

Remember: it’s a saprophytic dimorphic fungus.

Yeast grow best at 37 C on blood agar.

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10
Q

What is this?

A

Sporothrix schenckii

This is the mold form: branching septate hyphae that bear pyriform micoconidia (look like flowers)

This would grow best at 25-30 C on Sabouraud’s agar.

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11
Q

What causes this?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum var. farciminosum

Pseudoglanders

Epizootic lymphangitis

African Horse Farcy

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12
Q

How is Pseudoglanders transmitted?

What is the pathogenesis?

A

Wound in the skin/possibly an arthropod bite

Local skin nodule becomes abscessed and ulcerated (mainly head, neck and limbs).

Pyogranulomatous response

Adjacent lymphatics develop similar nodules

**Hematogenous spread and visceral involvement possible. **

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13
Q

A good differential diagnosis for Histoplasma capsulatum var. farciminosum would be what?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

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14
Q

T/F: Oomycocis is a member of the Kingdom Fungi.

A

False, it is a member of the *Kingdom Stramenopiles, *

Pythium and Saprolegnia is included under oomycosis.

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15
Q

What causes this?

A

Cutaneous Pythiosis

Pythium insidiosum

  • Swamp Cancer*
  • Florida Horse Leeches*
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16
Q

What species is Cutaneous Pythiosis seen in?

A

Horses, dogs, cattle and cats.

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17
Q

In the cat, Pythiosis causes what type of lesions?

A

Tumor like masses

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18
Q

What is causing this infection in the horse?

A

Kunkers or leeches

Caused by: Cutaneous Pythiosis.

Sparsely septated hyphae may be observed within granulomatous coagula (kunkers/leeches).

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19
Q

What is causing this?

A

Chromoblastomycosis

Typically rare in humans.

Mostly occurs in frogs and toads.

Sclerotic bodies present.

This is a darkly pigmented (dematiacious) fungi.

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20
Q

What is causing this?

A

Phaeohyphomycosis

Mostly seen in cats and dogs.

Hyphae present.

Darkly pigmented (dematiaceous) fungi

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21
Q

What type of stain would you use to ID Chromoblastomycosis or Phaeohyphomycosis?

A

Mason-Fontana Stain

To highlight melanin.

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22
Q

What is this?

A

Curvularia

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23
Q

What is this?

A

Mycetoma

Specifically a eumycotic mycetoma

Reported in cattle, horses, dogs and cats.

Swelling, granule formation, and a draining sinus tract.

Fungi that cause this: Curvularia, Cochliobolus, and Pseudallescheria

Bacteria that cause this: Nocardia, or Actinomyces.

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24
Q

What causes this?

A

Saprolegnia

Associated with stress in a pond; typically temperature.

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25
Q

What is systemic mycoses?

A

The agents of most systemic or deep mycoses are saprophytic fungi.

Usually they are inhaled.

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26
Q

What is Coccidiodes?

A

A dimorphic fungi that causes systemic mycoses.

  • C. immitis = *California
  • C. posadasii= Texas, New Mexico, Arizona and South America*

Has been bioweaponized.

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27
Q

What is the main species to get Coccidiodes?

Second most common species?

A

1st: Dog
2nd: Horse

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28
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Coccidiodes?

A

Inhalation of arthroconidias and rounding into spherical shaped endospores.

Endospores differentiated into multinucleated: spherules (contains 100’s of endospores).

Spherules rupture and cycle starts.

Arthroconidia, spores and spherules trigger and inflammatory response in the lung and lymph node.

Pulmonary lesions and osteomyelitis.

Pyogranulomatous inflammation.

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29
Q

What is this?

A

Spherules (sporangia) of Coccidiodes immitis

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30
Q

What is this?

A

Arthrospores of Coccidiodes immitis.

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31
Q

What is this?

A

Intracellular, Histoplasma capsulatum var. capsulatum

although it is facultatively intracellular can can survive inside or outside the cell.

Causes Histoplasmosis: symptoms resemble TB

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32
Q

*H. capsulatum var. capsulatum *is most prevalent in what species?

A

Middle aged dogs (2-7 years)

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33
Q

What is the pathogenesis involved with H. capsulatum var. capsulatum?

A

Microconidia, hyphal fragments or yeast cells attach to macrophages in the lung.

Minimal respiratory burst occurs.

Mycroconidia and hyphal elements differentiate into yeast and survive in the phagolysosome.

Multiplication inside the cell eventually ruptures the phagocyte.

  • Causes disseminated disease: weight loss, diarrhea, dehydration, anemia, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly and mesenteric lymphadenitis.*
  • Pulmonary form: coughing, fever, and regional lymphadenopathy.*
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34
Q

What is this?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum var. capsulatum

Septate bearing spherical to pyriform microconidia and tuberculate macroconidias. (thick walled spheroidal cells.)

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35
Q

What is this?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum var. capsulatum

Yeast

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36
Q

What are passive carriers of H. capsulatum var. capsulatum?

A

Bats and birds.

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37
Q

What is causing this?

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

Blastomycosis

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38
Q

What are the main species that Blastomyces dermatitidis infects?

A

Humans and dogs

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39
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Blastomyces dermatitidis?

A

Microconidia hyphal fragments are inhaled.

Conversion to the yeast form within the alveolar space.

Primary tissue: (lungs) Pulmonary infection

Expression of Bad1 and phagocytosis* *with minimal respiratory burst and down regulation of cytokines.

Inflammatory response involving macrophages and neutrophils resulting in pyogranulomatous lesions in terminal bronchioles.

Secondary tissues: (from the inside out) Nodular lesions can be tubercle like indicative of caseous necrosis.

Draining cutaneous lesions.

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40
Q

What is this?

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

Thick walled budding yeast.

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41
Q

What is this?

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

Mold: Hyphae with conidiophores with spherical conidia.

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42
Q

What caused this?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

Main species it infects is: cats

Sometimes seen in cattle: mastitis also dogs.

Yeast

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43
Q

What is the main reservoir of Cryptococcus neoformans?

A

Surface dust and dirt.

**Dried pigeon droppings. **(presence of creatinine helps sustain it there for years.)

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44
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Cryptococcus neoformans?

A

Suppressor lymphocytes are stimulated.

Poor inflammatory response

Myxomatous masses: **high #’s of yeast cells and low #’s of inflammatory cells.

Ulcerative lesions of the mucous membranes: nose, mouth, pharynx, and sinuses as well as CNS involvement.

Eventually masses acquire histiocytes, epitheliod cells and giant cells.

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45
Q

What is this?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans yeast organisms surrounded by a non-staining capsule (the capsule is an important virulence factor~ protects from phagocytosis and complement system.)

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46
Q

What is this?

A

Malessezia pachydermatis

Yeast

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47
Q

What is Malessezia pachydermatis causing in this picture and in what species?

What species does it affect in general and what disease processes is it closely associated with?

A

In the picture it is causing otitis externa in a dog.

Malessezia pachydermatis is mainly associated with causing otitis externa and dermatitis in dogs.

In Westhighland White Terriers specifically it causes seborrhoeic dermatitis and epidermal dysplasia.

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48
Q

What is this?

A

Candida albicans

Budding yeast cells

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49
Q

What is this?

A

Candida albicans

Pseudohyphae and a few individual yeast cells.

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50
Q

In the anterior digestive tract of humans, *Candida albicans *causes what?

A

Thrush

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51
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Candida albicans?

A

Most frequently affects the mucosal surface (squamous epithelium) of the anterior digestive tract, genital tract and occasionally the respiratory tract causing septicemia.

Causes white to yellow to gray plaques.

Diphtheitic membranes and abscesses.

Mainly neutrophilic, RARELY granulomatous.

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52
Q

What other species besides humans does Candida albicans infect?

A

Birds, swine, equines, cattle, dogs and cats.

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53
Q

What is the most common Aspergillus spp. in humans and animals?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

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54
Q

What is this?

A

Aspergillus spp.

Asexual fruiting structures that are borne on conidiophores.

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55
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Aspergillus spp.?

A

Inhalation or ingestion and deposition in tissues.

Pulmonary infections with acute suppurative exudates. In later stages chronic granuloma develops.

PAMP recognition by phagocytic cells triggering an inflammatory response.

Inflammatory response along with virulent factors released by fungus result in tissue damage.

Pigment and catalase delay destruction by phagocytic cells.

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56
Q

In which species do we see disseminated aspergillosis?

A

Dogs: specifically German Shepherds

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57
Q

In cattle with Aspergillosis, instead of seeing respiratory signs what do we see?

A

Abortions and mastitis

Although this is rare.

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58
Q

What is this?

What does it cause?

A

Rhinosporidium seeberi

An aquatic protist.

Granulomatous mucocutaneous infections.

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59
Q

What species is Rhinosporidium seeberi normally present in?

A

Horses, humans, cattle, mules, dogs, goats and waterfowl.

Particularily in the tropics.

Pictured: polypous rhinitis in a horse.

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60
Q

What caused this?

In what species is this present?

A

DRIPs

Tilapia

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61
Q

What is this?

A

Lacazia loboi

Found in dolphins and humans.

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62
Q

What is this?

A

Lacazia loboi

Yeast like cells.

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63
Q

What is the causative agent of this infectious disease in amphibians?

A

Chytridiomycosis

Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis

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64
Q

What is this disease in bats?

A

White Nose Syndrome

Geomyces destructans

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65
Q

Staphylococcus spp. are facultative ______.

Which means they are Oxidase _____.

A

Anaerobes

Negative

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66
Q

Pathogenic strains of Staphyloccus produce what?

A

Coagulase

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67
Q

What are pathogenicity islands in Staph species?

A

Distinct regions of DNA present in the genome of pathogenic bacteria but absent in non-pathogenic species.

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68
Q

Staphylococcal enterotoxins are what?

A

Neurotoxins

Superantigens (cytokine storms)

Cause projectile vomiting, & explosive diarrhea

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69
Q

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST-1) in Staph species causes what?

A

Superantigen

Endothelial damage

Fever, shock, skin rash, and multi-system involvement.

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70
Q

How many different hemolytic toxins present in Staph species?

A

α, β, γ, δ

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71
Q

What is the typical lesion associated with Staphylococcus?

A

An abscess.

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72
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Staphylococcus spp.?

A

Adherence of tissue to sterile tissue: MSCRAMMS

Inflammation: cell wall and complement

Progression or elimination: Bacterial factors and Host factors

Replication occurs rapidly: quorum sensing, down-regulation of adhesins, up-regulation of capsule and toxins

Tissue damage destruction: increased inflammation, escape phagocytosis, destruction of leukocytes.

Suppuration and abscess formation. Systemic effects can result from super antigens.

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73
Q

Staphylococcus pseudointermedius causes what in dogs and cats?

A

Pyoderma, otitis externa, urolithiasis, osteomyelitis, arthritis and mastitis.

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74
Q

Staphylococcus aureus in ruminants causes what?

A

Mastitis: one of the leading causes.

Alpha toxin which causes β-hemolysis is a key virulence factor.

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75
Q

What is Tick Pyemia in small ruminants?

A

Ticks which normally carry Anaplasma phagocytophilum which causes immunosuppression predisposes to Staphylococcus aureus infection.

Often times causes mastitis or leads to disseminated abscess formation and even death.

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76
Q

What is this pig suffering from?

A

Greasy Pig Disease

Staphylococcus hyicus

Exudative epidermitis: exfoliative toxin is key virulence factor.

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77
Q

Staphylococcus aureus in equines causes what?

A

Mastitis

Spermatic cord abscesses

Pectoral abscesses: Although Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is far more common!!!

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78
Q

What is this bird suffering from?

A

Bumblefoot

Staphylococcus aureus

Chronic pyogranulomatous process of SQ tissues.

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79
Q

Other than draining abscesses, what is the drug of choice when combating Staphylococcus species?

A

Penicillin

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80
Q

The capsule of Streptococcus spp. is composed of ______ ______, which is a key virulence factor.

A

Hyaluronic acid (HA)

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81
Q

___ Protein of *Strep *species is antiphagocytic and binds with fibrinogen and Factor H which prevents the complement system of taking effect.

A

**M **protein

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82
Q

What is this horse suffering from?

A

Strangles

Streptococcus equi subsp. equi

  • Highly contagious febrile rhinopharyngitis involving abscessation of the regional lymph nodes.*
  • Serous or purulent nasal discharge, fever, local pain, cough, anorexia, and abscesses.*
  • Mainly in young horses.*
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83
Q

When Strangles in horses has gone systemic and you have widespread abscessation it is called what?

A

Bastard Strangles

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84
Q

A condition called Pupura hemorrhagica from Strep. equi subsp. equi is caused by what type of hypersensitivity?

What are the signs?

A

Type III Hypersensitivity

SQ swelling, mucosal hemorrhages and fever.

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85
Q

Which species of Streptococcus spp. is more promiscuous and common than Strep. equi subsp. equi in horses?

A

*Streptococcus equi subsp. zooepidemicus *

  • Pneumonia/pyothorax*
  • Suppurative osteomyelitis*
  • Abscesses*

Naval ill of foals

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86
Q

Pigs that are suffering from cervical lymphadenitis (jowl abscesses) have what type of Strep?

A

Streptococcus porcinus

Highly contagious

Similar to Strangles in horses.

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87
Q

Streptococcus suis and Streptococcus dysgalactiae cause what in swine?

Which of the 2 is pathogenic in humans?

A

Secondary pneumonias and endocarditis

Neonatal septicemias

Pneumonia

Arthritis

Meningitis

S. suis is pathogenic in humans

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88
Q

What is the second most common and also a Strep species that causes mastitis in cattle?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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89
Q

What is the causative agent of Puppy Strangles?

A

Streptococcus canis

Causes septicemia in newborn puppies and kittens.

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90
Q

You have left pleural effusion in a primate, what is the most likely Streptococcus spp. as the causative agent?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Causes: pneumonia, septicemia and meningitis.

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91
Q

This was a real question from Dr. Soto:

  • You are presented with a 5 y/o cocker spaniel with a hx of persistent pyoderma. You collect samples from the edge of the lesion and upon microscopic examination observe Gram positive coccoid bacteria. As part of your DDx in this case, you should have…*
  • A. Streptococcus canis*
  • B. Staphylococcus aureus*
  • C. Staphylococcus pseudointermedius*
  • D. All of the above*
  • E. None of the above*
A

D. All of the above

However if you were being asked which is most likely you would say S. pseudointermedius

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92
Q

What is Enterococcus?

A

Group D Streptococci

Halophiles and thermophiles

E. faecalis and E. faecium are the most important.

  • Commonly infect urinary bladder and ear canal and cause otitis externa in dogs.*
  • Also reside in the gastrointestinal tract and can cause diarrhea in the young.*

Share antimicrobial resistance genes with S. aureus.

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93
Q

T/F: *Corynebacterium *are acid fast.

A

False

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94
Q

What is the morphology of Corynebacterium?

A

Diphteroid, Chinese letters.

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95
Q

*Corynebacterium *possess an exotoxin called _______ ___ that is a major virulence factor.

A

Phospholipase D

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96
Q

What are the 2 biotypes of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

A

Equine biotype: **Equines and Bovines

Nitrate positive

Ovine biotype: **Ovine, Caprine and some Bovine

Nitrate negative

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97
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis?

A

Bacteria enters host via a skin wound, multiply and are phagocytized.

Phagolysosome fusion takes place. Bacteria multiplies within it.

Phagocytic cell dies.

Permeability in blood vessels increase, favors the spread of the organism.

Abscesses develop in primary or secondary sites. Regional lymph nodes.

Typical chronic diseases, granuloma.

Caseous necrosis

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98
Q

What is the major thing that *Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis *causes in equines?

A

Pectoral abscesses:* This is the major cause although S. aureus can cause this too. Also referred to as Pigeon fever or Breastbone fever.*

Can also cause ulcerative lymphangitis.

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99
Q

What is causing this in a goat?

What is it causing?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

Caseous lymphadenitis, abscess

  • Has a typical onion ring apperance. *
  • Can also appear on visceral organs like the lungs and liver.*
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100
Q

What is causing this in an Arabian oryx?

What is it causing?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

Abscess; caseous necrosis

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101
Q

What is this cow suffering from?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

Abscess

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102
Q

What type of hemolysis does C. pseudotuberculosis display?

A

Gamma hemolysis

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103
Q

On a CAMP test, C. pseudotuberculosis displays inhibitory effects with _______ ______ ______ and synergistic hemolysis with __________ _______.

A

Inhibitory effects with streptococcoal beta toxin and synergistic effects with Rhodococcus equi.

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104
Q

*Corynebacterium renale *normally colonizes where in cattle and other domestic animals?

A

The lower genital tract

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105
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Corynebacterium renale?

A

Adhesins (Pili) attach to urothelium.

Urea breakdown produces ammonia.

Inflammatory process occurs.

Chronic inflammatory process involves: bladder, ureters, renal pelvis, and renal parenchyma causing pyelonephritis.

High alkalinity of urine. Suppression of anti-bacterial defensins. (Inactivation of complement by ammonia.)

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106
Q

In small ruminants Corynebacterium renale causes what?

A

Ovine posthitis

aka Pizzle rot or Sheath rot

Risk factors are a high protein diet.

Ammonia is thought to initiate the process

High alkalinity of urine.

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107
Q

In horses, dogs and non-human primates, C. renale causes what?

A

Urinary tract infections

Not zoonotic.

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108
Q

In cattle C. renale causes what?

A

Ascending urinary tract infection: cystitis, ureteritis, and pyelonephritis.

Acute pyelonephritis

Weght loss, decreased milk prod., uremia, anorexia, and death.

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109
Q

*Arcanobacterium *had it’s name changed to what?

A

Trueperella

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110
Q

T/F Trueperella is acid fast negative.

A

True!!

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111
Q

The morphology of Trueperella is what?

A

Small Gram positive, coccoid-rods

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112
Q

Exotoxin, _____ ___ is the most important virulence factor of Trueperella pyogenes.

A

Pyolysin O

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113
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Trueperella pyogenes?

A

Physical or microbial damage

ADHESION: binds collagen and fibronectin

Neuraminidases: aids in binding by exposure of receptors.

Proteases, DNAses, aid in the spread of the organism.

Suppurative processes: abscesses, pyogranulomas, and empyemas.

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114
Q

Trueperella pyogenes is mostly found where?

A

Mucous membranes: upper respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital tract.

Infections most likely endogenous.

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115
Q

What is the major thing Trueperella pyogenes causes in cattle?

A

Summer mastitis

  • Further facilitated by the spread through flies.*
  • Pyogranulomatous*

This is the 3rd most common cause of mastitis in cattle (others are Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus agalactiae.)

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116
Q

What are other disease processes that Trueperella pyogenes causes in cattle, aside from mastitis?

A

Purulent infection: can cause abscesses and sloughing.

Locations include: Lung, pericardium, endocardium, pleura, peritoneum, liver, joints, uterus, renal cortex, brain, bones and SQ tissues.

Good DDx include: C. pseudotuberculosis, S. aureus, S. agalactiae, various fungi.

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117
Q

What type of hemolysis does Trueperella display?

A

β-hemolysis

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118
Q

Which bacteria can be found primarily from the prepuce of boars?

What is the pathogenecity of this bacteria?

A

Actinobaculum suis

Sexually transmitted to sows

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119
Q

What is the major virulence factor of A. suis?

A

Urease

120
Q

T/F: *Actinobaculum suis *is an aerobic bacteria.

A

**False, **it’s an anaerobic bacteria.

121
Q

T/F: Rhodococcus spp. are aerobic.

A

True

122
Q

T/F: Rhodococcus spp. are pleomorphs (meaning they are comprised of rods and cocci).

A

True!!

123
Q

T/F: Rhodococcus spp. are facultative intracellular pathogens of macrophages.

A

True!!!

124
Q

The main modes of transmission for Rhodococcus spp. are what?

A
  • Inhalation*
  • Ingestion*
  • Congenitally via umbilical cord or mucous membranes.*
125
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Rhodococcus spp.?

A

Opsonization by C3b and phagocytosis by macrophages.

Escapes or survives inside the phagolysosome: VAPs or cell wall.

Down regulation of IFNγ

Sub-acute to chronic inflammatory response.

Abscesses and granulomas.

126
Q

What is the species of *Rhodococcus *that infects equines?

A

Rhodococcus equi

127
Q

What is the main age group of equines that R. equi targets?

A

Foals: 1-6 months

128
Q

What is the main disease process that R. equi causes in foals?

What are some good DDx for this?

A

Pyogranulomatous bronchopneumonia

Good DDx include: Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis, Fungi: Histoplasmosis, Coccidomycosis.

129
Q

In immmune comprimised individuals, they can contract R. equi and develop what?

A

Pneumonia

Lung abscesses, consolidation, and pulmonary nodules.

130
Q

Equines that are immunosuppressed and co-infected with ______ __________ ___ are more likely to contract R. equi.

A

Equine herpesvirus 4

131
Q

*Rhodococcus equi *has a synergistic hemolysis CAMP reaction with ________ _______ and ___________ ___________.

A

Staphylococcus aureus and Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis.

132
Q

T/F: *Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae *is coagulase negative.

A

False, it is coagulase positive.

133
Q

What species is *Erysipelothrix *most likley to infect?

What is the name of the disease that it causes?

What are the clinical signs of disease?

A

Pigs

Diamond Skin Disease

  • Acute: red to purple rhomboidal skin lesions, may progress to necrosis or resolve.*
  • Chronic form: Vegetative endocarditis, athritis and/or abortion.*
  • Septic form: fever, anorexia, depression, vomiting, stiff gait, reluctance to walk, urticaria.*
134
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Erysipelothrix?

A

Ingestion, Wound, Arthropod bite

Bacterial attachment and invasion into cells: Neuraminidase

Vascular damage and hyaline thrombus formation: Neuraminidase

Resistance to phagocytosis and survival inside professional phagocytes: capsule.

135
Q

What form of Diamond Skin Disease is this?

A

Acute form: red to purple rhomboidal lesions of the skin.

136
Q

What form of Diamond Skin Disease is this?

A

Chronic form: vegetative valvular endocarditis.

137
Q

What species of bird commonly becomes infected with Erysipelothrix?

What sign is almost pathognomic for Erysipelothrix in this species of bird?

A

Turkeys

Swollen, cyanotic snood.

138
Q

Is zoonosis possible with Erysipelothrix?

A

Yes, especially in fish and meat handlers.

Painful local ulcers, usually self-limiting.

139
Q

What is the morphology of Erysipelothrix?

A

Gram positive slender rod.

140
Q

What is a unique feature of Erysipelothrix in culture?

A

Produces hydrogen sulfide

Displays γ-hemolysis

141
Q

In the ornamental fish industry, Erysipelothrix causes what?

A

Crooked mouth

Reddish ring around the mouth

Ascites

142
Q

T/F: Listeria is a non-motile bacteria.

A

False, it is a motile bacteria at 25 C and possesses a flagella.

143
Q

What is the species most infected by Listeria?

A

Cattle

144
Q

What is the main virulence factor seen with Listeria?

A

Listeriolysin O (LLO)

Damages the phagosome and allows the bacteria to escape from the cytosol.

145
Q

What is ActA?

A

An important protein in intracellular movement by actin polymerization.

Virulence factor

146
Q

The CAMP test is used to distinguish between the 2 types of Listeria how?

A
  • L. monocytogenes is CAMP + with S. aureus*
  • L. invanovii is CAMP + with R. equi*
147
Q

What are the modes of transmission for Listeria?

A

Soil contamination: fecal-oral

Contaminated feed: **Silage disease, **in humans it’s the consumption or tainted food or milk usually.

Nasal mucosa and conjunctiva

148
Q

What is the intestinal pathogenesis of Listeria?

What is the CNS pathogenesis of Listeria?

A

Intestinal: Listeria ingested orally (many killed by gastric acids)>>attachment, entry and survival in epithelial cells, M-cells, and phagocytic cells: Internalin and ActA>>Dissemination: cell-to-cell, blood stream, phagocytes.

CNS: Damaged oral, nasal or ocular mucosal surfaces>>neural sheath of peripheral nerves (Trigeminal)>>CNS

Meningitis, Encephalitis

149
Q

In ruminants the main disease caused by Listeria is?

A

Circling Disease

Encephalitis

150
Q

Aside from encephalitis in ruminants, Listeria can cause what?

A
  • Septicemia: typically in young.*
  • Abortion*
  • Conjunctivitis*
  • Mastitis: usually subclinical, and this is spread to humans who drink the milk.*
151
Q

What is the most common manifestation of disease in humans with Listeriosis?

A

Meningitis

5th most common cause of bacterial meningitis in humans.

152
Q

What is the morphology of Listeria?

A

Gram positive short rods with rounded ends.

153
Q

This is a real Dr. Soto question:

The image presents a draining abscess in the udder of a cow, as part of the DDx you have:

A. Mastitis due to Staphylococcus aureus.

B. Mastitis due to Trueperella pyogenes

C. Mastitis due to Corynebacterium pilosum

D. A and B are correct

E. All of the above

A

D. A and B are correct

154
Q

This is a real Dr. Soto question:

From the previous case you isolate 2 organisms. The first one is an obligate anaerobic Gram negative bacteria consistent with Fusubacterium necrophorum. The second one is a gram positive, facultative anaerobe, non-motile, catalase negative diphtheroids. You immediately think of __________ as the second agent.

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

C. Trueperella pyogenes

D. Streptococcus agalactiae

E. Listeria monocytogenes

A

C. Trueperella pyogenes

155
Q

What is the morphology of Bacillus spp.?

A

Large Gram positive spore forming facultative anaerobic rods.

156
Q

Bacillus anthracis is mainly found in what type of soils?

A

Alkaline calcium and nitrate rich soils

157
Q

What plays an important role in the core of a spore of B. anthracis?

A

Calcium in combination with dipicolinic acid.

158
Q

What is the infectious unit of Bacillus anthracis?

A

Endospores

159
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Bacillus anthracis?

A

Spores acquired from environment.

Phagocytosed by macrophages: spores germinate within the phagolysosome.

Vegetative bacteria respond to environmental cue: (AxtA, AcpA)- LeTx, EdTx capsule, other toxins.

Escape from phagolysosome and macrophages: hyperproduction of cytokines, fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

**Multiple organ dysfunction, shock and depleton of clotting factor. **

**Bleeding from orifices. **

160
Q

What are the most common post-mortem findings in ruminants with Bacillus anthracis?

A

Epistaxis

Lack of rigor mortis!!!

161
Q

What are the 3 major forms of anthrax in humans caused by Bacillus anthracis?

A

Cutaneous anthrax

Gastrointestinal anthrax

Pulmonary or inhalation anthrax

162
Q

What is the pathogensis of cutaneous anthrax in humans?

A

Cut or abrasion

Incubation period: 1-14 days

Painless papule

Papule becomes vesicular (1-2 days) and is surrounded by extensive area of edema.

Vesicle ulcerates (5-6 days)

Lesion dries leaving a blackened necrotic area: Black Eschar

163
Q

How does one acquire gastrointestinal anthrax?

What are some signs of GI anthrax?

A

Ingestion of contaminated meat.

Pharyngeal lesions, regional lymphadenopathy, inappetance, nausea, vomiting blood and bloody diarrhea, massive septicemia and toxemia.

164
Q

What are the signs of inhalation anthrax?

A

Pulmonary edema, hemorrhagic pneumonia, and sometimes meningitis, hypotension, edema and fatal shock.

165
Q

What is one thing you would **not **want to do if you suspected B. anthracis is an animal?

A

A field necropsy!!!

166
Q

What is this?

A

Bacillus anthracis inside a peripheral macrophage and intra- & extra-cellular bacilli.

167
Q

What is the string of pearls test?

A

Characteristic blebbing that occurs when *Bacillus anthracis *contacts Penicillin.

168
Q

T/F: Anthrax is a reportable disease.

A

True!!!

169
Q

T/F: Mycobacterium is non acid-fast.

A

False, Mycobacterium is acid-fast.

Macrophages packed with acid-fast Mycobacterium.

170
Q

Tuberculosis is caused by what agent?

What is the key lesion of tuberculosis?

A
  • M. tuberculosis in primates*
  • M. bovis in other mammals*
  • M. avium subsp. avium in birds*

Chronic granulomatous disease

171
Q

How is Mycobacterium transmitted?

A

Respiratory

Fecal-oral

Transplacental

Transovarian

Intrauterine

172
Q

What is this?

A

A stained section of a tubercle or granuloma.

  • You have a central zone of calcification.*
  • Caseous necrosis.*
  • Zone of epithelioid and giant cells.*
  • Lymphocytes at border- mononuclear cells.*
173
Q

______ _______ ______ influences the course of Mycobacterium’s disease process.

A

Cell mediated immunity

174
Q

What is this?

A

Bovine tuberculosis

Most likely caused by Mycobacterium bovis

Causes tuberculous pneumonia

  • Also, affects the rest of respiratory tract, adjacent lymph nodes, and serous cavities.*
  • Hematongenous dissemination to liver and kidney.*
  • May infect uterus to further infect a fetus.*

Cow may be may be emaciated, have an erratic appetite, low grade fever, localized lymphadenitis, cough and diarrhea.

175
Q

This was taken from a cow with M. bovis what is the best way of describing what is going on.

A

Granulomatous and necrotizing pneumonia

176
Q

In cows, which species of Mycobacterium is generally subclinical where abortions may occur?

A

Mycobacterium avium subsp. avium

177
Q

T/F: Horses are commonly infected with Mycobacterium spp.

A

**False, **horses are rarely infected but if they are it’s usually with Mycobacterium avium subsp. avium.

178
Q

What is causing these miliary lesions in the liver of a pig?

A

Mycobacterium bovis

Typically enters via the alimentary tract.

Miliary lesions can be observed on the spleen as well.

179
Q

A referring doctor calls your clinic and says she has an animal with Marie’s Disease coming in for referral to your clinic, what species is she referring to and what does this animal have?

A

Dog

Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

Most likely infected with Mycobacterium bovis

180
Q

T/F: *Mycobacterium avium subsp. avium *is the most common species to infect primates.

A

**False, ***Mycobacterium bovis and Mycobacterium tuberculosis *are.

Mycobacterium bovis enters via the alimentary tract (mainly via unpasteurized milk, may result in spread to vertebrae- hunchback) where as Mycobacterium tuberculosis enters via aerosolization (common with crowded areas like prisons.)

181
Q

What is causing this?

A

Cutaneous tuberculosis

182
Q

What is causing this, in a bird?

A

Avian tuberculosis

Mycobacterium avium subsp. avium

Enters via the alimentary tract and can disseminate to the liver, spleen, bone marrow, lungs and peritoneum.

183
Q

T/F: *Mycobacterium spp. *have a very slow generation time of about 12 hours.

A

True!!!!

184
Q

T/F: Tubercle bacilli from *Mycobacterium spp. *are very hardy.

A

True!!! **They are resistant to many antimicrobials and disinfectants. They can also survive long periods in the soil and resist drying.

185
Q

T/F: Tuberculosis is not a reportable disease.

A

False, **it most definitely is a reportable disease.

186
Q

What is wrong with this primate?

A

It’s TB ++++

187
Q

Your new boss is at a farm and says that he has a cow that potentially has Johnne’s Disease, quick: think back to your vet school days, what does this cow have and what are the signs? Should you report this disease?

A

Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis

Chronic irreversible wasting disease of ruminants.

Chronic weight loss, diarrhea, transverse corrugation of the intestinal mucosa; **graulomatous inflammation.

Draining and enlarged lymph nodes.

Usually fatal.

Yes, report!!!

188
Q

How is *Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis *normally transmitted?

A

Fecal-oral

In utero

Infected colostrum or milk

189
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis?

A

Organisms interact with MALT and M-cells in submucosa of ileocecal area (also in regional lymph nodes).

Surive and replicate intracellularly.

Release of cytokines by macrophages: inflammatory and immune response, TH1 lymphocyte recruitment, tuberculoid stage.

Activation with IFNγ is compromised: failure to eliminate the bacteria.

Slowly progressing granulomatous reaction: TH2 lymphocyte recruitment. Sloughing of the muocsal epithelium. Lepromatous stage.

5% progress to clincal disease: malabsorption and protein losing enteropathy.

The young are most susceptible, Guernsy, Jersey and Shorthorn are predisposed.

190
Q

What is the most common stain used for identifying Mycobacterium and why?

A

Ziehl-Neelson: Acid fast stain

Because they are acid-fast positive.

191
Q

What is the cause of Feline Leprosy?

How is it spread?

What are the lesions associated with this disease?

A

**Mycobacterium lepraemurium **

Transmission via arthropod or rodent bites.

Chronic noduloulcerative- nontuberculous mycobacterial infection of the skin.

192
Q

What is the cause of Bovine Farcy?

What are the lesions associated with this?

A

Mycobacterium farcinogenes or Mycobacterium senegalenses

Bovine Mycobacterial Ulcerative Lymphangitis

Nodulo-ulcerative skin lesions in cattle: lower extremities and ventral trunk.

193
Q

A fish owner shows you his hand and asks for your advice, you tell him to seek “human” medical attention right away but that it could be what?

A

Swimming pool granuloma or Fish Handler’s Disease

This can be flesh-eating.

Mycobacterium marinum (since it’s a fresh water fish)

otherwise if tropical fish could be: Mycobacterium fortuitum.

194
Q

What members belong to filamentous bacteria?

A

Nocardia

Actinomyces

Dermatophilus

Streptobacillus

195
Q

What is this condition called that is occuring in this cat?

A

Mandibular osteomyelitis

Lumpy Jaw

It would be impossible to tell without culturing it what the cause is but it turned out to be: Nocardia cryiacigeorgica

196
Q

What is this?

A

A sulfur granule from pyogranulomatous osteomyelitis w/intralesional bacterial colonies (Gram + diphtheroids) from the cat with Nocardia.

Sulfur granules are more common in Actinomyces though.

197
Q

What is the most common species of Nocardia?

A

Nocardia asteroides

198
Q

T/F: Nocardia is a partially acid fast filamentous bacteria.

A

True, **unlike Actinomyces which is non-acid fast.

199
Q

What is this?

A

Nocardia

Filamentous form

Produce generalized suppurative and pyogranulomatous processes. Lymph nodes consistently involved.

200
Q

How is Nocardia transmitted?

A
  • Inhalation*
  • Ingestion*
  • Trauma*
201
Q

What bacteria can cause Bovine Farcy?

What are the signs of Bovine Farcy?

A

Nocardia farcinica

Mycobacterium farcinogenes

Mycobacterium senegalense

Chronic suppurative infection usually of the distal limbs, lymphatics involved of extremities or head, ulcers and discharging sinuses. This is a disease of the tropics.

202
Q

T/F: Morphologically Nocardia is distinguishable from Actinomyces.

A

False

203
Q

Nocardia alternates between the __________ (resting phase) and the __________ _____ (actively growing phase) which makes it true a ________ bacteria.

A

Coccobacillary and the filamentous form which makes it true a pleomorphic bacteria.

204
Q

**Actinomyces **lesions expand but have little tendency for __________ which differs from Nocardia.

A

Little tendency for dissemination.

205
Q

T/F: Nocardia are anaerobes or facultative anaerobes.

A

**False, **they are obligate aerobes.

Actinomyces on the other hand is an anaerobe or facultative anaerobe.

206
Q

Actinomyces is mainly found where on/in the body?

A

Oral mucous membranes and tooth surfaces.

Also mucous membranes of the urogenital and GI tract.

207
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Actinomyces causing lumpy jaw in cattle?

A

A. bovis is introduced from an oral reservoir by traumatic event (poor quality feed) into the alveolar or paralveolar region of the jaw.

A chronic rarefying osteomyelitis is initiated.

Replacement with porous bone, dislodgement of teeth, inability to chew and mandibular fractures.

208
Q

What’s wrong with this horse?

A

Poll evil

from Actinomyces and possibly other bacteria.

209
Q

T/F: **Actinomyces ****does not require rich medium in order to grow, in fact it grows very well on Saboraud’s dextrose agar.

A

**False, **it does require rich medium (like serum or blood) and grows poorly if at all on Saboraud’s.

This is different than Nocardia andStreptomyces** which don’t require rich medium.

210
Q

What is this?

A

Dermatophilus congolensis

Long filamentous form

Train tracks appearance should be a give away.

211
Q

What is going on with this cow?

What causes this to occur?

What would we call this same thing in horses?

In sheep?

A

Dermatophilosis

aka Streptothricosis

Exudative epidermitis

Caused by arthropod (pictured is Amblyomma), contact and fomites.

In horses we’d call it: Rain scald, rain rot, or grease heal.

In sheep we’d call it: Strawberry foot rot or lumpy wool.

Typically Dermatophilus congolensis is on the skin and with humidity or rain it softens the skin and allows organisms to start infecting and potentially disseminating. Very little tendency to vascularly disseminate remember!

212
Q

T/F: *Clostridium *are aerobic spore forming rods.

A

False, Clostridium are **anaerobic **spore forming rods.

213
Q

What are the 3 circled bacteria?

A

At least 3 different types of Clostridium in a mixed anaerobic infection

214
Q

What is one defining feature of *Clostridial *diarrhea?

A

It’s putrid odor.

215
Q

Which toxin is produced by all Clostridium perfringens?

A

Alpha toxin (Cpa or PIc)

Causes hemolysis, necrosis and lethality.

216
Q

Which toxin do proteases (Trypsin inhibitors) in colostrum favors its action.

A

Beta toxin (Cpb)

Spore forming toxin.

217
Q

In wound infections, which type of toxin is the most important?

A

Alpha toxin

218
Q

What is perfringolysin O?

A

Theta toxin

  • Cholesterol binding cytolysin.*
  • Important for the escape from the phagolysosome.*
219
Q

With canine hemorrhagic gastroenteritis what toxins are the most imporant?

A

Alpha toxin, Perfringolysin O and enterotoxins.

Enterotoxemia: Type A

220
Q

What is struck in older sheep?

A

Rapidly fatal toxemia-bacteremia.

Alpha toxin, beta toxin and Perfringolysin O.

Beta toxin plays the major role.

Struck gives the impression that the sheep has been struck by lightening due to nervous signs.

Enterotoxemias: Type C

221
Q

A more experienced vet calls you to say she has just done a few post-mortem’s on some sheep at a local farm, it appears that they have “pulpy kidney” disease, what is this and what is causing it?

A
  • Sheep will die suddenly with few or no symptoms.*
  • Rapid breakdown of the kidney tissue.*

Epsilon toxin: Increases interstitial permeability, causes vascular damages, fluid losses and edema.

Clostridium

Enterotoxemias: Type D

222
Q

This endotoxemia causes *lamb dysentery *in newborn lambs.

A

Enterotoxemia: Type B

Beta toxin is the principal factor producing hemorrhagic enteritis in the small intestines.

Depression, anorexia, abdominal pain, and diarrhea.

223
Q

A key feature of invasive clostridium on blood agar is what?

A

Double zone hemolysis: inner clear zone and outer hazy zone.

224
Q

What problems can overeating cause in sheep?

A

Enterotoxemia: Type D

  • Upsetting the gut flora: causes intestinal hypomotility.*
  • Epsilon toxin*
225
Q

Adhesins allow **Clostridium difficile **to adhere to the ______ ______.

A

**Large intestines, **it’s target cells.

226
Q

What is the pathogenesis of C. difficile?

A

“Trigger event” like antibiotics or chemotherapy.

Normal flora, disruption and colonization of C. difficile.

Adherence to the large intestines and toxin (Toxin A/enterotoxin) production: pili, fimbriae, epithelial cell death.

Intense inflammatory response: fluid and electrolyte secretion, diarrhea with or without blood.

Note the yellowish white plaques of fibrin, mucus and inflammatory cells overlying the normal red intestinal mucosa: this is antibiotic associated colitis.

227
Q

Your boss called again and said to meet him down at the farm because some rams have “Bighead”. He snaps a picture and sends it to you and you know the causative agent is what?

A

Clostridium novyi Type A

Occurs in rams from fight wounds to the head.

Toxins: Alpha toxin and Novyolysin are causing the edema.

228
Q

**Gas gangrene **of humans is caused by what?

A

**C. novyi **Type A

229
Q

What is causing this in the liver?

A

Black diseases: SQ venous congestion secondary to pericardial edema which darkens the underside of the skin, suggesting the name.

Gas bubbles have infiltrated pesenting a spongy appearance on the cut surface.

C. novyi Type B.

230
Q

What is the pathogenesis of C. novyi Type B?

A

Spores are mobilized from the intestines to the liver where they can remain dormant in Kupffer cells.

Liver cells are damaged (from fluke migration) and anaerobic conditions allow spores to germinate.

Vegetative growth results in Beta toxin production and dissemination.

231
Q

What causes bacillary hemoglobinuria or red water disease in ruminants?

A

**Clostridium haemolyticum **

Phospholipase C toxin

232
Q

What is the leading cause of wound infections in farm animals?

A

Clostridium septicum

233
Q

What is this horse suffering from?

A

Malignant edema

Gas gangrene

This is where a traumatic wound becomes contaminated.

Hemorrhage, edema and necrosis spread rapidly along facial planes

Developing lesion is initially painful, warm and it pits with pressure.

Gradually becomes crepitant, cold, with loss of feeling.

Death follows a period of fever, anorexia and depression.

234
Q

What is this piglet suffering from?

A

Black leg

Clostridium chauvoei

Toxins and bacterial metabolism are responsible for the initial lesion.

Seeding of tissues with spores from intestines precedes disease in cattle.

Local lesions: edema, hemorrhage, and myofibrillar necrosis are caused by: conditions favoring spore germination, bacterial growth and toxin production.

235
Q

What is Tyzzer’s Disease?

A

Focal liver necrosis in foals, rabbits, hares, mice, gerbils, rats, hamsters, muskrats, dogs, cats, snow leopards and rhesus monkeys infected with:

Clostridium piliforme

236
Q

Botulinum toxin blocks the release of what?

A

Acetylcholine

237
Q

Tetanus toxin blocks the release of what?

A

GABA and glycine

238
Q

With botulism you have ______ paralysis.

A

Flaccid

239
Q

What is this cow suffering from?

A

Botulism

Clostridium botulinum

Flaccid paralysis: muscular incoordination leading to recumbency, extrusion of the tongue and difficulty in food prehension, chewing and swallowing.

240
Q

What is equine grass sickness?

A

Type C of BoNT (Botulinum neurotoxin) is residing in biofilms on the surface of lades of grass. Horses, especially young horses with little of their own flora will fall ill with botulism after ingestion.

241
Q

What is this hen suffering from?

A

Botulism

Limberneck: which is an initial clinical sign of botulism especially in birds.

242
Q

Tetanus is inoculated via a _______ ______.

A

Traumatic wound

243
Q

Tetanus is _________ uniform which is important in vaccine formulation.

A

Antigenically

244
Q

Tetanus causes _________ paralysis.

A

Spastic

245
Q

Ascending tetanus is commonly seen in what animals?

What are the features of ascending tetanus?

A

Dogs and cats: not highly susceptible species.

Follows retrograde, intra-axonal transport of toxin along the peripheral motor nerves to the CNS.

246
Q

Descending tetanus is commonly seen in which species?

What are the features of descending tetanus?

A

Horses and humans: highly susceptible species.

Effective toxin quantities are disseminated via vascular channels to nerve ending areas remote from the toxigenic site.

247
Q

What is this lamb suffering from?

A

Tetanus

Clostridium tetani

Retraction of the 3rd eyelid, erectness of the ears, grinding of the teeth, stiffness of the tail, lock jaw, sawhorse stance from rigidity of extremities, and fecal & urinary retention.

248
Q

What is this?

A

Clostridium tetani

Gram positive, drumstick apperance, spore is terminal.

249
Q

The **lactose positive **bacteria/coliform bacteria include what?

A

E. coli, Enterobacter, Klebsiella

250
Q

*E. coli *belongs to the Family _________.

A

Enterobacteriaceae

251
Q

T/F: *E.coli *is a non-motile Gram negative, facultative anaerobe.

A

**False, ***E. coli *is motile, possesses flagella but is Gram negative and a facultative anaerobe.

252
Q

EHEC (Enterohemorrhagic E. coli) uses this toxin, _______ _______ to cause things like bloody diarrhea in calves, edema in piglets and human hemorrhagic enteritis.

A

Shiga toxin

253
Q

What is this?

A

Small intestinal villi effected by E. coli infection.

254
Q

Coliform mastitis in cows is caused by what?

A

E. coli

Endotoxemia

255
Q

Aside from mastitis in adult cows, what are some other potential disease effects of E. coli in cattle?

A

Scours or collibacillosis (diarrheal disease caused by E. coli), this may subsequently lead to collisepticemia.

*Also omphalitis *(navel ill) and/or joint ill.

256
Q

You are on a local farm call and see this in a young piglet, what should your first thought be?

A

Edema disease: primarly a disease of the vasculature. Edema will be present, mainly in the eyelids, but also the submucosa of the stomach and mesocolon.

This is mostly observed in weaned piglets.

Shiga toxin: E. coli

Inhibits protein synthesis by interacting with 60s ribosome.

257
Q

Poultry are dying in a chicken slaughterhouse and you stop by to do a post-mortem exam on one of the chickens and see this. What might you be thinking is the cause?

A

Coligranuloma

E. coli

Can also cause omphilitis (Mushy Chick) and/or colisepticemia.

258
Q

What are some generalized diseases associated with *E. coli *infection?

A

Opportunistic soft tissue infections: mastitis, wound infections, endometritis.

Urinary tract infections

Enteric infections

Septicemia

259
Q

*Klebsiella *is most often associated with _________ infections.

A

Nosocomial

260
Q

The most common bacterial isolate from non-human primates with pneumonia is _______ _______.

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Below is a radiograph from a 17 y/o Rhesus macaque that had presented with coughing and hemoptysis. Pale mucous membranes, harsh lung sounds with normal heart sounds. Consolidation of the left lung field and aerophagia of the esophagus and stomach.

261
Q

A _____________ variant of *Klebsiella pneumoniae *has been identified in humans and subsequently in animals.

A

Hypermucoviscous

This variant HMV, infects healthy humans and causes liver abscesses, pneumonia, meningitis and endophthalmis.

262
Q

T/F: Klebsiella are non-motile, encapsulated non-hemolytic bacteria.

A

True

263
Q

In dogs Klebsiella typically causes what?

A

Pyometra, cystitis, prostatitis, pneumonia, meningoencephalitis, enteritis, mastitis, and hepatic abscessation.

264
Q

In horses *Klebsiella *typically causes what?

A

Reproductive tract disease such as equine metritis.

Navel ill and/or joint ill.

Neonatal septicemia in foals.

265
Q

Can *Klebsiella *cause mastitis in cattle?

A

Yes

266
Q

Shigella is mostly found in what species?

A

Humans and non-human primates

267
Q

T/F: Shigella needs a high # of organisms in order to cause infection.

A

False, **Shigella needs only a very low dose of organisms (10-100) in order to cause infection.

268
Q

Shigella is the causative agent of ________ ________.

A

Bacillary dysentery

Affects the terminal ileum, colon and the rectum.

Causes necrohemorrhagic colitis +/- ulceration with pseudomembrane formation.

*May also cause necrohemorrhagic periodontitis and gingivitis and arthritis. *

269
Q

*Shigella dysenteriae *produces _______ toxin.

A

*Shiga *toxin

270
Q

What are the only 2 species of Salmonella of veterinary clinical significance?

A

*Salmonella enterica *and Salmonella bongori

271
Q

*Salmonella *belong to the family_____________.

A

Enterobacteriaceae

272
Q

What are the serotypes of Salmonella enterica subsp. enterica?

A

Humans: Typhi, Paratyphi, Sendai

Cattle: Dublin

Pigs: Choleraesuis

Poultry: Gallinarum and Pullorum

Sheep: Abortusovis

Horses: Abortusequi

273
Q

*Salmonella *is a _______ ________ pathogen.

A

**Facultative intracellular ****pathogen.

Can cause systemic dissemination.

Mainly infects macrophages.

274
Q

Animals with Salmonella can be subclinical _________.

A

Subclinical shedders.

Salmonella typhi; Typhoid Mary

275
Q

What is pyroptosis?

A

Programmed cell death occuring during *Salmonella *infection associated with response to pathogen and inflammation.

276
Q

A farmer calls you and says his calves have explosive diarrhea, what is the most likely cause?

A

Salmonella enterica subsp enterica serotype Dublin

Enteric fever, enteritis, endotoxemia (endotoxin causes damage to the epithelium).

Can also cause pneumonia in calves, abortion, osteomyelitis, and septicemia.

277
Q

Swine enteritis from Salmonella infection has similar symptoms to what?

A

Hog Cholera: Classical Swine Fever

278
Q

What are the main diseases caused by Salmonella?

A

Enteritis (Diarrhea from Cl- and H20 secretion)

Septicemia (abortion, pneumonia and arthritis)

Endotoxemia

*Fibrinosuppurative, necrotizing and hemorrhagic inflammation of the distal small and large intestines and other organs. *

279
Q

_______ ___ protects horses against induced endotoxemia from Salmonella.

A

Polymyxin B

Low dose Polymyxin B bind to circulating endotoxin and may have therapeutic value in treating endotoxemia in horses.

280
Q

*Salmonellosis *is the most common infectious _______ in horses.

A

Diarrhea

281
Q

You are doing a necropsy on a chicken and see this: bronzed and enlarged liver, and mottled and brittle spleen.

  • What is the most likely causative agent?*
  • How is it transmitted?*
  • What types of chickens are you more likely to observe this in?*
A

Fowl Typhoid

  • Salmonella Gallinarum*
  • Transovarial route: through eggs.*

Growing and mature flocks.

282
Q

What can humans acquire from eating a potentially undercooked egg?

If chickens flocks are known to be infected with this, what is done about it?

A

Salmonella enteritidis

Can be inside perfectly normal looking eggs.

First and foremost removal of infected hens, but if this can’t be done then…

The eggs will be pasteurized instead of being sold as Grade A shell eggs.

283
Q

What does plague mean?

What are the 3 types of plague?

What is each type associated with?

A

Black death.

Septicemic (septicemia), Bubonic (local lymphadenitis) and Pneumonic (pneumonia)

284
Q

What is the **cause **of the plague?

What species are mainly assoicated with contracting the plague?

A

Yersinia pestis

Humans and domestic animals (like cats)

285
Q

T/F: Cat and dog fleas transmit the plague.

A

**False, **it’s wild rodents and their fleas.

Replicates in the proventriculus and creates a block. The enzyme coagulase is involved in creating the block, however at temps above 27 C Y. pestis does not produce this coagulase so there is less transmission in the summer months.

286
Q

Which toxin(s) is unique to Yersinia pestis?

A

Ymt (Yersinia mouse toxin)

and

Plasminogen activator

287
Q

What was wrong with this Mountain Lion?

A

Primary Pneumonic Plague

Safety pin morphology of Y. pestis

288
Q

In birds and rodents *Yersinia pseudotuberculosis *is associated with what?

In domestic animals and primates *Yersinia enterocolitica *is associated with what?

A

Mesenteric lymphadenitis

Terminal ileitis

Acute gastroenteritis

Septicemia

Both Y. pseudotuberculosis and Y. enterocolitica have the same symptoms in these species.

*Outbreak in African Green Monkeys of blood diarrhea with Y. enterocolitica. *

289
Q

T/F: Actinobacillus is a Gram negative rod/coccobacilli.

A

True

290
Q

What is wrong with this cow?

A

Wooden tongue

Actinobacillus ligneresi

Normal inhabitant of nasopharynx.

Lesion usually caused by trauma from a plant and results in the formation of masses on the tongue.

Can spread through lymphatics and cause pyogranulomatous lymphadenitis.

Interferes with food intake: weight loss and dehydration.

291
Q

A common cause of epididymitis in young rams is what?

A

Actinobacillus seminis

Causes purulent discharges.

292
Q

What is wrong with this pig?

A

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

Typically in young pigs, <6 months

Due to poor management conditions.

Pigs are down with severe resp. discomfort

Acutely: Acute necrohemorrhagic pleuropneumonia

Chronicly: Fibrinous pneumonia

293
Q

What is wrong with this foal?

A

Sleepy foal disease

Actinobacillus equuli subsp. equuli

Septicemia in neonates: oral, umbilical or respiratory route in utero, during parturition or shortly after birth.

In adults causes pneumonia.

294
Q

T/F: **Francisella tularensis **is highly contagious.

A

True, **and it is a reportable disease!

295
Q

How many subspecies of **Francisella tularensis **are there?

A

3!!!

Francisella tularensis subsp. tularensis

North America

Francisella tularensis subsp. holarctica

Europe

Francisella tularensis subsp. mediasiatica

Cental Asia

296
Q

What are the primary hosts of Francisella?

A

Lagomorphs (rabbits) and rodents (Prairie dogs: US)

297
Q

**Francisella **are facultatively _______.

A

Intracellular

Mainly macrophages