New material Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: Bordetella is a Gram positive, small cocco-bacillus.

A

False, Bordetella is a Gram negative, small cocco-bacillus

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2
Q

What are the 2 species of *Bordetella *that cause whooping cough in humans?

A

**Bordetella pertussis ****and

Bordetella parapertussis

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3
Q

What is wrong with this pig?

A

Progressive atrophic rhinitis

Bordetella bronchiseptica

There is damage to the nasal mucosa, production of mucous, presence of DNT (dermonecrotic toxin).

Possibly co-infected with Pasteurella multocida (also produces DNT and damages osteoclasts)

B. bronchiseptica is transferred from sow to offspring whilst P. multocida is older pigs to younger pigs.

Sniffling, sneezing, progressive disease, tears, possibly blood nasal discharge. Anatomical deviation of the nose

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4
Q

Where would you want to collect samples from in a pig with possible atrophic rhinitis?

A

Nose and tonsils

Clean the nose first, use a deep flexible swab.

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5
Q

What is the ideal temperature for growth for B. bronchiseptica?

A

30 C, because it colonizes the upper resp tract it prefers this over 37 C.

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6
Q

B. bronchiseptica in dogs causes what?

A

Kennel cough

Canine infectious tracheobronchitis

Also causes rhinitis, laryngitis, pneumonia and pleuritis.

Although there are many agents that can cause kennel cough. Also dogs may be co-infected with something else.

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7
Q

What is the Bvg regulon?

A

Responsible for phase variation [virulent and non-virulent phase]. **Coordinates the production of virulence genes.

Non virulence would be: low temperature, Mg sulfate and nicotinic acid.

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8
Q

B. bronchiseptica is most closely related to which other species(s) of Bordetella?

A

B. pertussis/B. parapertussis

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9
Q

What is DNT?

A

Dermonecrotic toxin

  • Causes skin necrosis upon injection.*
  • Damages nasal tissues.*
  • Damages osteoblasts.*

This is different than P. multocida DNT which damages osteoclasts!!!

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10
Q

Aside from atrophic rhinitis in pigs, what else can B. bronchiseptica cause?

What are the differences with age?

A

Pneumonic bordetellosis

Age < 1 week: Primary Infection

Age >1 week: Secondary Infection

  • Coughing and dyspnea in young animals.*
  • Purulent bronchiolitis and alveolitis.*
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11
Q

What is wrong with this turkey?

A

Turkey coryza

Bordetella avium

Rhinotracheitis: seromucus nasal discharge, sneezing, head shaking, tracheal rales, open beak respiration.

Swollen head syndrome

Transferred via floor bedding and drinking water.

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12
Q

What can Bordetella cause in rabbits?

A
  • Nasal discharge, sneezing, snoring, congestion, conjunctivitis, tears.*
  • Can localize in the eyes and cause blindness.*

Ear infections

Abscesses

If combined with P. multocida can cause bronchopneumonia as shown below.

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13
Q

T/F: Pasteurellaceae are Gram negative facultative anaerobic rods.

A

True!!!

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14
Q

Most human infections with Pasteurella multocida are acquired how?

What does it cause?

What can you use to treat it?

A

Animal bites

Cellulitis, Abscesses, Septicemia, Pneumonia and Endocarditis

Penicillin

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15
Q

An invasive, septicemic disease of a poultry farm has struck. It appears to be highly contagious as many birds have died and are continuing to do so; it seems that older birds are more susceptible. What is going on?

A

Fowl Cholera

Pasteurella multocida

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16
Q

A local pet store has called you out because their caged rabbits have nasal discharge. You arrive and it appears the cages are very dirty and many rabbits are housed closely together. The discharge appears mucopurulent and they also have conjunctivitis and ear infections. What is the most likely cause?

A

Snuffles

Pasteurella multocida

  • Recurrent mucopurulent rhinosinusitis: Catarrhal nasal discharge (is the most common sign).*
  • Conjunctivitis*
  • Metritis*
  • Otitis media or interna*
  • Genital tract diseases: orchitis, balanoposthitis, and pyometra*
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17
Q

What is the difference in these cross sections of nasal turbinates with pigs infected with atrophic rhinitis?

A

On the left: you have B. bronchiseptica producing DNT this affects the osteoblasts and produces regressive atrophic rhinitis.

On the right: you have B. bronchiseptica producing DNT and Pasteurella multocida producing PMT which affects the osteoclasts and produces progressive atrophic rhinitis.

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18
Q

What is the best herd treatment you can use with animals infected with Pasteurella?

A

Metaphylaxis

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19
Q

What is the most frequent bacterial agent associated with bovine respiratory disease complex?

What is another term for bovine resp. dz complex?

A

Mannheimia haemolytica

previously Pasteurella haemolytica

Bovine Shipping Fever or Bovine Pneumonic “Pasteurellosis.”

Keep in mind though there are many agents that contribute to Bovine Shipping Fever both bacteria and viruses.

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20
Q

What are some clinical signs and findings of Bovine Shipping Fever?

A
  • Nasal discharge*
  • Serous nasolacrimal discharge*
  • Coughing*
  • Fever*
  • Dyspnea*
  • Serofibrinous bronchopneumonia and pleuritis*
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21
Q

What is Hemorrhagic Septicemia?

What species is it observed in?

Where is the disease carried?

A

Fatal disease in cattle and water buffalo of the tropics (not present in US).

Septicemia, Fever, Dullness, Reluctance to move, Salivation, Profuse Serous Nasal Discharge, and Edematous Swellings in the submandibular region and brisket. In calves, hemorrhagic gastroenteritis may appear.

Disease carried in tonsils and nasopharyngeal mucosa.

Types B2 and E2.

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22
Q

What is Bovine and Porcine Pneumonia?

A

Fibrinous broncho- and pleuropneumonia

Occurs as part of the Bovine Respiratory Disease Complex.

Types A and D.

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23
Q

T/F: Pseudomonas are Gram negative, non-motile anaerobic rods.

A

False, they are Gram negative, motile, obligately aerobic rods.

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24
Q

This bacteria can easily adapt and grow in humid hospital environments such as in respirators, endotracheal tubes, and on endoscopes.

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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25
Q

You have a dog with otitis externa, what are your top 2 differentials for the causative agent?

However, this dog has been on treatment and the infection is only getting worse, what other 2 agents may be present as a secondary infection?

A

Staphylococcus pseudointermedius and Malassezia pachydermatis.

Secondary persistence: Proteus vulgaris or Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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26
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa mainly causes what in cats and dogs?

A

Skin infections: pyoderma

Cystitis

Otitis externa

Eye infections: which can lead to corneal ulcers.

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27
Q

What does* P. aeruginosa* cause in rabbits, even in the cleanest of rabbitries and why?

A

Moist dermatitis

From automatic drinking water systems: rabbits will lay under the nipples.

May also cause pneumonia.

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28
Q

In horses *P. aeruginosa *is associated with what?

A

Metritis-vaginitis

Secondary to prolonged antimicrobial treatment or contaminated semen.

**Keratitis-conjunctivitis **

Following topical treatment with steroids-antibiotic mixtures.

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29
Q

In bovine, sheep and goats, P. aeruginosa causes what?

A

Mastitis

In sheep it also causes fleece rot.

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30
Q

What is **Botryomycosis **and what causes it?

A

Rare chronic granulomatous bacterial infection.

Can be caused by many different types of bacteria such as: Pseudomonas, Staphylococcus, Mycobacteria, E. coli, Proteus, Streptococcus, etc…

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31
Q

In Galliformes (heavy bodied birds like turkeys) Pseudomonas causes what?

A

Contamination of the eggs: **Exploding eggs (H2S odor), neonatal mortality, and can be complicated by viral infections (TRT).

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32
Q

T/F: Taylorella equigenitalis is a Gram negative, non-motile facultative anaerobic coccobacillus.

A

True!!!

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33
Q

Taylorella equigenitalis infects what species?

A

Horses

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34
Q

T/F: T. equigenitalis is a notifiable disease.

A

True!!

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35
Q

T/F: *T. equigenitalis *causes more serious illness in the stallions.

A

False, **there is no symptoms or immunity in stallions.

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36
Q

Taylorella equigenitalis is causing this in a mare, what is going on here?

A

Contagious Equine Metritis

  • Acute and suppurative*
  • Usually self limiting*
  • Highly contagious*
  • Mares can become asymptomatic carriers*
  • Mares will develop immunity*
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37
Q

*Taylorella equingenitalis *is exclusively found in the equine _______ _______.

A

Genital tract

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38
Q

When collecting swabs and testing for Taylorella what is a critical feature?

A

That it reach the lab in** <24 hrs.**

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39
Q

What is the best way to prevent the spread of T. equigenitalis?

A

Eliminate positive animals from breeding since it is an STD.

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40
Q

T/F: *Taylorella asinigenitalis *is another pathogenic strain of Taylorella found in horses.

A

False, **it is a non pathogenic strain found in donkeys.

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41
Q

You are out at a dairy farm and speaking to one of the staff members who says many of the cows, mostly the calves have “pink eye” and their eyes appear to weep. You notice that the grounds are very dusty and many flies are buzzing around and landing on the cows faces. You take a swab and take it back to your hospital where you see this. What are your thoughts?

A

Moraxella bovis

  • The most important species of Moraxella.*
  • A Gram negative pleomorphic rod.*
  • Causes Infectious Bovine Keratoconjunctivitis or “Pink Eye”. Serous to purulent conjunctivitis and keratitis.*
  • Highly infectious: spread mainly by direct contact with an infected animal or flies. Dust and sun tend to further irritate.*
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42
Q

What are some good differentials to the cows with pink eye?

A
  • Moraxella bovoculi*
  • Moraxella ovis (also assoc. with pneumonia)*
  • Listeria monocytogenes*
  • Bovine Herpesvirus 1 infection (IBR)*
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43
Q

All species of Brucella have high genetic ______.

A

Homology

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44
Q

*Brucella abortus’s *target organs are what?

A

**Reproductive organs: **Uterus, male repro organs, udder, placenta/fetus.

**Areas of locomotion: **Articulations, tendon sheaths, and synovial bursa.

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45
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Brucella abortus?

A

Infects either the mucosa, gets ingested or enters via a wound.

Spreads to regional lymph nodes: no symptoms initially and it spreads intracellularly via macrophages. There is a 1-6 week incubation period.

Further spreads to more distant lymph nodes.

Reaches target organs.

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46
Q

What are the ways in which humans typically acquire *Brucella *and subsequentally get Brucellosis?

A

Handling infected meat, handling after-birth or an infected fetus, or raw milk drinking (un-pasteurized milk.)

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47
Q

When B. abortus infects the female reproductive tract, what can it cause?

A

Abortion

Premature birth

Or may have normal parturition but the calf is a carrier.

Can also cause subclinical mastitis.

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48
Q

What is the difference betwen smooth and rough *Brucella *colonies?

A

Smooth colonies are more virulent.

B. melitensis, B. abortus, B. suis

Rough colonies are less virulent.

B. ovis and B. canis

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49
Q

What is the sensitivity of a serological test?

A

The chance that the test is positive when the investigated animal is effectively affected by the disease.

TP/TP+FN

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50
Q

What is the specificity of a serological test?

A

The chance that the test is negative in the absence of a disease.

TN/FN+FP

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51
Q

What is the name of this test they are performing in a cow?

A

Brucellosis CMI Skin Test

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52
Q

Although they have eradicated Brucella suis in domestic pigs in the US, what animal is responsible for still carrying it in wildlife?

A

Wild boars

So hunters should use caution when handling game meat.

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53
Q

How many biovars are there of Brucella suis and which ones are responsible for pathogenicity in pigs?

A

5 biovars

Biovars 1, 2 and 3

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54
Q

What are symptoms of infection with Brucella suis?

A

Reproductive diseases: Abortion, orchitis (shown in picture), infertility, vaginitis

Problems with locomotion: Arthritis, tendonitis, osteomyelitis

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55
Q

What type of immunity does *Brucella *induce?

A

Humoral and cell mediated immunity **(CMI is most important b/c it is an intracellular oganism.)

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56
Q

Brucella melitensis and Brucella ovis mainly infect which species?

What is a major difference between the two?

A

Sheep and goats

  • B. melitensis is zoonotic.*
  • B. ovis is non-zoonotic.*
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57
Q

T/F: Brucella canis is non-zoonotic.

A

False, **B. canis is zoonotic.

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58
Q

Some species of Haemophilus and Histophilus require what?

A

Factor X (Hemin-protoporphyrin) and/or Factor V (NAD)

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59
Q

Staphylococcus satellitism provides what _____.

A

NAD

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60
Q

You are doing a necropsy on a pig and the attending pathologist says that based on the fact there is so much fibrinopurulent inflammation of the pleura of the lungs, and pericardium the pig most likely had Glasser’s Disease. What causes Glasser’s and what are some key lesions aside from the aforementioned?

A

Haemophilus parasuis

Predilection for serosal sites causing fibrinopurlent inflammation.

Endotoxin causes DIC which leads to microthrombi in the lung, liver and kidneys.

Polyserositis, polysynovitis, and meningitis

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61
Q

T/F: Haemophilus parasuis is a commensal of the nasal cavity, tonsils, trachea and lungs of normal & healthy pigs.

A

True!!!

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62
Q

T/F: Haemophilis parasuis is typically spread from older piglets to younger piglets in early life.

A

False, typically from sows to piglets at early life stages.

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63
Q

T/F: Histophilus somni requires Factor X and V.

A

False, not part of Haemophilus, doesn’t really love blood.

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64
Q

You are doing a necropsy on a calf and open up the skull to look at the brain. You observe multiple reddish necrotic foci, thrombi in blood vessels composed of leukocytes, fibrin and bacteria and your lab partner comments that looks an awful lot like Sleeper’s Syndrome. You scatch your head trying to remember what Sleeper’s really is and what causes it…..what is it more appropriately called and what bacteria is causing it?

A

TEME- Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis

  • This is practically pathognomic for Histophilus somni.*
  • The bacteria adhere to the endothelial cells causing vasculitis, thrombosis, and infarction and continue replicating in the thrombus triggering an inflammatory response. You have apoptosis of the endothelial cells.*
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65
Q

With the previous calf necropsy case because you know that Histophilus somni is a multisystemic disease complex, you know another key lesions in addition to TEME would be what?

A

Bronchopneumonia (necrosuppurative)

The pathogenesis is from hematogenous spread. It doesn’t start in the resp. tract, it starts out in the blood and then travels to and localizes in the airways. This is why it is not Pasteurella.

TEME usually occurs 1-2 weeks post-pneumonia and then death follows.

Other lesions may be: necrotic laryngitis, myocarditis, abortion, vulvitis, vaginitis, cervicitis, endometritis, orchitis, mastitis, otitis, conjunctivitis, myelitis and arthritis.

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66
Q

What is this poor chicken suffering from?

A

Fowl Coryza

aka Infectious Coryza

Avibacterium paragallinarum

Key lesions: Swelling of infraorbital region, oculonasal discharge, swollen wattles and diarrhea.

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67
Q

T/F: Avibacterium paragallinarum is X factor dependent.

A

False, it is V factor dependent.

**para=V factor dependent, typically but not 100% of the time.**

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68
Q

As a refresher….

Fowl coryza is caused by _______.

Fowl typhoid is caused by _______.

Fowl cholera is caused by _______.

A

Coryza= Avibacterium

Typhoid= Salmonella

Cholera= Pasteurella

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69
Q

Campylobacter, Helicobacter and Lawsonia are all_________ animal parasites. They are also all ________ bacteria.

A

Microaerophilic

Spiral

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70
Q

T/F: Campylobacter is formerly known as Vibrio.

A

True

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71
Q

What species of Campylobacter causes Bovine Venereal Campylobacteriosis.

How do cattle get Bovine Veneral Campylobacteriosis?

A

Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis

Breeding or artificial insemination with infected bull or semen, colonizes the female genital tract and leads to infertility and abortion in 10% of cows.

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72
Q

T/F: Bulls show signs of having Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis.

A

False, subclinical and found in the preputial crypts. Can be detected in smegma with preputial washes.

73
Q

What is recommended that be done with a farm infected with Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis?

A

Cull the infected bulls, and rest the infected cows for one breeding season. Use artifical insemination until all cows in herd have had 2 successful pregnancies.

74
Q

A sheep farmer calls you and says he has had a stroke of bad luck and all his ewes have been going through abortions storms, what is most likely causing this?

How did the sheep get infected with whatever is causing it?

A

Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus

Ovine genital campylobacteriosis

Ingestion through contaminated food and water which leads to bacteremia and subsequent inflammation of the placenta and then abortion.

It is a commensal of the intestinal tract of sheep and cattle.

75
Q

A different sheep farmer calls you and says that he too has had abortion storms with his ewes but that he’s also noticed that the farm cats and dogs have been having signs of enterocolitis, the chickens have too and that he and his wife have had enterocolitis too. He’s wondering if maybe he and his wife’s GI issues and the cat and dog’s issue might be related to what is going on with the sheep. What are your thoughts?

A

Campylobacter jejuni subsp. jejuni

Yes, probably related since this species of Campylobacter causes all of these things in these appropriate species. It is also zoonotic.

76
Q

You tell the sheep farmer who has been possibly sick with Campylobacter that complications may arise post-enterocolitis which could include what?

A

Guillan-Barre Syndrome

and

Reactive Arthritis

77
Q

Which bacteria is associated with gastric ulcers and gastric carcinomas?

A

Helicobater pylori

78
Q

T/F: Helicobacter spp. are urease negative.

A

False, they’re urease positive!

79
Q

Which species of Helicobacter have been known to naturally colonize the stomachs of dogs and cats and have been linked to gastritis, ulcers and lymphoma in people.

A

H. canis, H. felis and H. heilmannii

80
Q

What are 2 species of mouse pathogens involved in hepatic necrosis, non-suppurative hepatitis and hepatocellular tumors

A

Helicobacter hepaticus and Helicobacter bilis

81
Q

You are doing a necropsy on a pig and notice the thickened ileal mucosa and inside there is a bloody cast of the ileal lumen. There is also a gyrate pattern of projections and depressions in the distal ileum. What do you think is causing this?

A

Porcine proliferative enteropathy

Lawsonia intracellularis

An intracellular bacteria that replicates only in the apical cytoplasm of enterocytes.

82
Q

Lawsonia intracellularis can only be cultured in ________ _______ _______.

A

Enterocyte cell lines

83
Q

Vibrio is associated with _______ habitats,

whereas…

Aeromonas is associated with _____ ____ habitats.

A

Virbrio= Marine

Aeromonas= Fresh water

84
Q

What is causing red leg in this frog?

A

Aeromonas hydrophila

85
Q

What is causing furunculosis in this salmonid?

A

Aeromonas salmonicida

86
Q

What is unique to spirochetes which makes it different from spiral bacteria?

A

It possesses an endoflagella!!! aka Axial filament!!!

  • Endoflagella inserts at the end of the protoplasmic cylinder.*
  • The flagella is in the periplasmic space.*
87
Q

What are the 3 families under the Order Spirochaetales?

A

Family Brachyspiraceae

Brachyspira

Family Spirochaetaceae

  • Borrelia (Lyme Disease)*
  • Treponema (Syphillis)*

Family Leptospiraceae

Leptospira (Leptospirosis)

88
Q

You are doing a necropsy on a pig who your instructor says had swine dysentery, you notice that the pig is relatively young, maybe 8 weeks and that the lesions are in the large intestines only with a sharp line of demarcation at the ileocecal junction. Your morphological diagnosis is fibrinonecrotic pseudomembranous colitits. What is the name of this bacteria and how did the pig contract this?

A

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

  • Fecal-oral route*
  • Common with grower and finisher pigs 8-16 weeks.*

This presentation can look very similar to Salmonella.

89
Q

What is the species of Brachyspira that causes intestinal spirochetosis (bloody diarrhea, dehydration and weight loss) in humans and animals?

A

Brachyspira pilosicoli

90
Q

The lesions associated with Brachyspira are elongated hyper plastic _______ which may be dilated and contain necrotic debris and abundant ______.

A

Elongated hyper plastic crypts.

Abundant mucous.

91
Q

One of the major stains used to demonstrated Brachyspira is?

A

Victoria Blue

92
Q

T/F: Brachyspira hyodysenteriae is strongly beta hemolytic.

A

True!!!

93
Q

You are on a farm call at a dairy industry practice and some of the cows have increasing lameness, a drop in milk yield and are not reproducing well. What are your thoughts on what it could be?

A

Hairy Heel Warts (HHW)

aka Papillomatous digital dermatitis (PDD)

aka Strawberry Foot Disease

Treponema spp. (possibly T. brennaborense)

94
Q

What does Treponema pallidum cause in humans?

What is the good thing about the disease that it causees?

A

Syphillis

Cannot be cultivated in vitro

It can easily be treated with Penicillin.

95
Q

A “rabbit breeder” brings one of her rabbits to you and says he has these perineal and facial lesions (erosions, ulcers, edema and erythema) and she is not sure what is going on, she also notes that a few others have it too, your first thought is that it might be what?

A

Rabbit syphillis

aka Vent Disease

Treponema paraluis-cuniculi

Typically is self limiting.

Spread by direct or venereal contact.

96
Q

What is Weil’s Syndrome in humans?

A

Leptospirosis with icterus and renal failure.

97
Q

T/F: You would be able to observe Leptospira on a regular light microscope using a Gram stain.

A

False, it would be difficult, you would need to use dark-field microscopy.

Dr. Rajeev also thinks it’s the most beautiful bacteria.

98
Q

What are the differences between Leptospira biflexa and Leptospira interrogans?

A

Biflexa= free living saprophyte

and

Interrogans= animal parasite

99
Q

Pathogenic species of Leptospira are maintained in ______ ______ or ______ _____ of reservoir animals.

A

Renal tubules or genital tract

100
Q

Reservoir animals for Leptospira excrete the bacteria through _______ and contaminate the environment.

A

Urine

101
Q

Reservoir hosts are asymptomatic or only show mild illness for Leptospira shed _____ numbers of organisms in urine and yield ______ to ______ titers.

What is the main reservoir and zoonotic threat?

A

High numbers of organisms

Negative to low titers.

Rats!!!!

102
Q

Incidental hosts are symptomatic for disease with Leptospira and have a ____ antibody titer and unlike reservoir animals do not maintain the organism in their _______. There is little ______ risk with incidental hosts.

A

High antibody titer.

Do not maintain in kidneys.

Little zoonotic risk with incidental hosts.

Dogs, humans and any other animals can be incidental hosts.

103
Q

For Leptospiral serovar Canicola the maintenace host is a ______.

A

Dog

104
Q

For Leptospiral serovar Pomona the maintenance host(s) are what?

A

Pigs, cattle, opposums and skunks.

105
Q

For Leptospiral serovar Grippotyphosa the maintenace host(s) are what?

A

Raccoons and muskrats

106
Q

For Leptospiral serovar Hardjo the maintenace host(s) are what?

A

Cattle and sheep.

107
Q

For Leptospiral serovar Icterohaemorrhagiae what is the maintenace host?

A

Rats!!!

108
Q

For Leptospiral serovar Bratislava what are the maintenance host(s)?

A

Pigs, mice and horses

109
Q

What are the 2 outcomes of an incidental host infected with Leptospira?

A

Severe disease and possibly death.

Recover with short term shedding in the urine.

110
Q

T/F: Leptospira is a monophasic infection.

A

False, it is a biphasic infection.

111
Q

The diagnostic tests used for Leptospira depend on what?

A

What stage the animal is in.

112
Q

In dogs, some signs of Leptospirosis include what?

A

Renal or hepatic injury (With renal failure may have: PU/PD, dehydration, V/D, inappetance, lethargy or abdominal pain. Oliguria or anuria is also possible. With hepatic failure may have icterus.)

Uveitis

Pulmonary hemorrhage (this can prove deadly)

Abortion

Pancreatitis

DIC

113
Q

What is considered the gold standard test when testing for Leptospira?

A

MAT: Microscopic agglutination test

Reported to be Serovar specific but cross-reactivity is very common. e.g. Paradoxical titers in acute cases. At 6-7 weeks will concentrate into which serovar it actually is.

114
Q

Even though MAT is considered the gold standard test, it is always referred to as fool’s gold, why?

A

With MAT you need to take the stage of disease into consideration, PCR would be more sensitive and desirable.

115
Q

Oral ulcers can be associated with what?

A

Renal failure

116
Q

What is the main antibiotic used for Leptospira during the acute stage of disease?

A

Penicillin

Also can use another β-lactam antibiotic like Ampicillin or Amoxicillin.

117
Q

What is the main antibiotic used for Leptospira to minimize the carrier state or to give to a patient post-exposure on a prophylactic basis?

A

Doxycycline

118
Q

The primary protective immunity against Leptospira is?

A

Humoral, it is mediated through antibodies.

119
Q

Due to specificity, cross reactions, and weak reactivity of some serovars, agglutinating antibody titers are not predictive of what?

A

Protection or urinary shedding.

120
Q

A less severe form of Leptospira in ruminants is what?

A

Milk drop syndrome:

With agalactia and blood tinged milk.

121
Q

What is the best way to collect urine for sampling of Leptospira in cattle?

A

Using Lasix aka Furosimide a diuretic and then catching a 2nd or 3rd void urine mid-stream so that the kidneys are getting flushed of the organism if they are present.

122
Q

Under what conditions should you ship samples for Leptospira diagnostics?

A

Overnight with refridgeration

123
Q

Chronically infected cows with Leptospira have _____ titers.

What types of cows are more likely to have Leptospira?

A

Low

Beef herds

124
Q

What are the main clinical symptoms associated with Leptospirosis in equines?

A

Abortions

Systemic illness

Recurrent uveitis *(Moon Blindness)*

125
Q

What are the main clinical symptoms of Leptospirosis in pigs?

A

Infertility

Sporadic abortion

126
Q

What are the main clinical symptoms of Leptospirosis in humans?

A

Ranges from influenza-like illness

to

Hepatic and renal failure (Weil’s Disease)

127
Q

Borrelia is transmitted via an _______ vector.

A

Arthropod

128
Q

What type of chromosome does Borrelia have?

A

Linear

129
Q

Antigenic variation of Borrelia is associated with what?

A

Major outer surface lipoproteins.

This is a major virulence factor. They change outer membrane proteins depending on the host. Can hide from the immune response and travel safely through the body.

This is cell associated.

130
Q

________ _______ occurs post-infection with Borrelia due to selective pressures of antibodies.

A

Antigenic variation

These concepts are applied to making vaccines for Lyme Disease.

131
Q

Osp C to Osp A occurs where?

Osp A to Osp C occur where?

A

C to A occurs in the midgut and culture

A to C occurs in the salivary gland.

132
Q

An owner brings in their dog a few days after camping and says that she noticed this on the dog’s skin after she had effectively removed a tick while away on vacation. She is worried the dog may now have something, what are your suspicions?

What would you do for this dog?

A

Canine Lyme Disease

is a real possibility caused by B. burgdorferi

However clinical signs don’t usually develop until 2-5 months post-exposure and those signs would include: fever, acute arthritis, arthralgia and lameness. Sometimes accompanied by anorexia, lethargy and depression. Involvement of the CNS, heart, renal lesions and uveitis are less frequently reported.

Can start prophylactic treatment with Doxycycline.

133
Q

What is considered the first sign of Lyme Disease in humans?

A

Erythema migrans

134
Q

What types of ticks can transmit Lyme Disease?

A

Ixodes (scapularis~eastern US, pacificus~western US) hard tick and a slow feeder. Low density in the blood.

and

Ornithodoros hermsi soft tick and a fast feeder. High density in the blood.

135
Q

What is the shortened version of the life cycle of Lyme Disease?

A

Uninfected tick larva bite an infected host (rodent or bird) in the spring or summer months.

Infected larva becomes an infected nymph which then becomes an infected adult.

Infected adult then bites an uninfected host (deer, dog or human) in winter or fall months.

Life cycle is completed when adults lay more eggs.

136
Q

How would you diagnose Lyme Disease?

A

Direct examination/detection

although this is difficult due to small #’s and slow growth.

FA, Darkfield, Silver Stain, Culture

137
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi proteins are differentially expressed i.e. protein expression differs while the bacteria are in the tick, mammalian host and in culture. However what is the only protein present in the vaccine?

A

31 kDa

138
Q

For dogs, what is the best way to test for Lyme?

A

Idexx

SNAP test (EIA)

Quantitative C6 ELISA

Looks for synthetic C6 peptide

139
Q

The Lyme Vaccine for dogs is a bacterin, ______ ____ ___ vaccine.

A

Subunit Osp A

Neutralizes the organism in the midgut of the tick after tick has taken a blood meal.

Interferes with Osp A to Osp C conversion.

140
Q

Chlamydia is an obligate ______ pathogen and has a Gram _____ cell wall.

When treating Chlamydia it is susceptible to _________.

A

Intracellular

Gram negative

Tetracyclines

In this way it is similar to Rickettsiales

141
Q

Chlamydia replicates in the _______, which may be observed as cytoplasmic _______.

A

Phagosomes

Cytoplasmic inclusions

In this way it is similar to Anaplasmataceae

142
Q

Chlamydia have a ________ life cycle.

Intracellular replicating form: _______ ______.

Extracellular replicating form: _______ ______.

A

Dimorphic life cycle

Intracellular: reticulate body

Extracellular: elementary body

143
Q

Describe the structure of the reticulate body.

A
  • Intracellular replication*
  • >1 μm and non-infectious.*

Divides via binary fission.

Matures into smaller elementary bodies.

Metabolically active, so cytoplasm full of 70S ribosomes

144
Q

Describe the structure of the elementary body.

A
  • Extracellular replication*
  • 0.3 μ and Infectious!!!!!*

Functions as a tough spore-like body whose purpose is to allow survival in the environment.

Strength of envelope is from major outer membrane protein and other cystein rich proteins.

Fine projections from surface extend through pores within “rosettes.”

145
Q

How does Chlamydial elementary bodies attach to the host cell?

A

Microvilli

146
Q

You are on an exotics rotation and Mrs. Little has brought in her parrot Zeke because he’s fallen quite ill. You shoot some radiographs and note that there is hepatomegaly and splenomegaly. You immediately become concerned because you think Zeke may have what?

A

Avian Chlamydiosis

Chlamydia psittaci

This is a zoonotic disease!!!

This is a reportable disease: Biosafety Level 3

Major signs include: hepato- and splenomegaly, and fibrinous pericarditis.

147
Q

A small farm reports that lambs and calves of theirs appear stiff and that they’ve had locomotive issues and postural behavioral disturabances. You ask the farm owner’s permission to cull one of the sick lambs as a sacrifice to the rest and on necropsy find polyarthritis, polyserositis and meningitis. You suspect these calves and lambs have what?

A

Chlamydia pecorum

Lambs have a lower mortality rate than the calves do.

In cows you can get Sporadic Bovine Encephalomyelitis which might be the reason for the locomotive and behavioral disturbances.

148
Q

Chlamydia abortus is associated with what type of infection?

A

Abortion in ruminants

Enzootic abortion of ewes. (EAE)

149
Q

Chlamydia felis causes what and what are the most common clinical signs?

A

Feline pneumonitis

Conjunctivitis and rhinitis

150
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis causes what?

A

Human Chlamydiosis (STD)

151
Q

What is the most important type of immunity with Chlamydia?

A

Cell mediated immunity

152
Q

Class Mollicutes or Mycoplasmas are __________-like organisms. They are also the smallest free living _______ and lack a ______ ______. They are not susceptible to this type of antibiotic: ______________.

A

Pleuropneumonia-like organisms

Smallest free living prokaryotes.

Lack a cell wall.

Not susceptible to β-lactam antibiotics.

153
Q

The Family Mycoplasmataceae inhabit the _______ _______. Most are host _______ and they require an exogenous source of _______. They include 2 genuses: Genus ________ (which most require glucose or arginine) and Genus ________ (which most require urea.)

A

Inhabit the mucous membranes.

Host specific.

Require an exogenous source of cholesterol.

2 genuses: Genus Mycoplasma (most require glucose or arginine) and Genus Ureaplasma (most require uea)

154
Q

T/F: Mycoplasmas are pleomorphic bacteria.

A

True!!!!

155
Q

Most Mycoplasma colonies have a what type of appearance?

A

Fried-egg appearance.

156
Q

T/F: Mycoplasma diseases are typically chronic with long incubation periods and mild clinical signs, often subclincal and activated when host resistance is lowered by stress or concurrent infections.

A

True!!!

157
Q

Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides is associated with what?

A

Contagious Bovine Pleuropneumoniae

You have extensive consolidation with marbled appearance due to edematous interlobular septa and fibrinopurulent exudate on surface.

158
Q

This bacteria causes mastitis (drop in milk production, milk becomes thickened and intermixed with watery and purlent secretions the udders may also be swollen), pneumonia and/or arthritis (severe inflammation of the joint capsule) in cattle and is part of the Shipping Fever Complex, what it is?

A

Mycoplasma bovis

Micro abscesses may also be present throughout lungs.

159
Q

Mycoplasma capricolum subsp. capripneumoniae causes what?

A

Contagious Caprine Pleuropneumoniae

This is a reportable disease!!!

Causes septicemia, arthritis and mastitis.

160
Q

A local poultry farm reports that there has been chronic respiratory disease in both their chickens and turkeys: consisting of coughing, nasal discharge, tracheal rales, sinusitis with production of thick mucoid exudate, air sacculitis and a drop in egg production. What is most likely going on with these birds and how did they contract it?

A

Mycoplasma gallisepticum

Transmitted both horizontally and vertically

This is a reportable disease!!!

161
Q

What causes enzootic pneumonia in pigs and what are the signs?

A

Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

  • Hyo=pig, or usually so.*
  • Chronic respiratory disease, pigs are unthrifty and have retarded growth.*
162
Q

Mycoplasma agalactiae causes what in sheep and goats?

A

Contagious agalactia

Reportable Disease!!!

Febrile mastitis, arthritis and conjunctivitis

163
Q

Hemocytotrophic Mycoplasma is formerly known as what?

A

Hemobartonella

164
Q

A cat comes in to your clinic depresed with weakness and with a fever; the cat also appears icteric. You pull a blood sample which reveals anemia. You also make a blood smear and under the microscope this is what you see. What do you think?

A

Feline Infectious Anemia

Mycoplasma haemofelis

formerly Hemobartonella felis

Principle target cells are RBCs.

165
Q

You are called out to a private farm where the owner’s beloved pet pig Ruby has been extremely weak and has a high fever. Ruby also looks icteric to you so you decide to pull some blood and run it back to your clinic and tell the owner you’ll call him when you know more. CBC (complete blood count) reveals anemia and the smear reveals this. You phone Mr. Smith to tell him Ruby has what?

A

Eperythrozoonosis

Mycoplasma haemosuis

Best way to diagnosis is a CBC (which we did) or a Coombs test or through microscopic detection (which we also did.)

166
Q

Mycoplasma synoviae causes what?

A

Synovitis resulting in lameness, swollen joints.

Retarded growth

167
Q

The Order Rickettsiales is an obligate _______ Gram-negative bacteria.

There are 2 major families under this order which are: Family ________ and Family ________.

A

Intracellular

Family Anaplasmataceae

Family Rickettsiaceae

168
Q

What are the 3 genuses beneath Family Anaplasmataceae?

A

Genus Anaplasma

Genus Ehrlichia

Genus Neorickettsia

169
Q

The Genus Anaplasma are Gram-negative small coccoid-ellipsoid bacteria that live within cytoplasmic vacuoles of _______ cells, ________ and __________.

A

Myeloid cells, neutrophils and erythrocytes.

170
Q

The Genus Anaplasma may cause what?

A

Anemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia.

171
Q

Genus Anaplasma may be single or in _________ (bacterial packets).

A

Morulae

172
Q

Anaplasma marginale causes what?

A

Bovine Anaplasmosis

  • This is a reportable disease!!!*
  • Biologic transmission with hard ticks: Boophilus, Dermacentor, Ixodes and Rhipicephalus.*
  • Mechanical transmission (less common): biting flies or contaminated fomites.*

Bacteria are endocytosed by RBCs and it causes anemia.

Causes persistent infection, undulating febrile disease, and anemia.

Tetracyclines effective.

173
Q

Anaplasma phagocytophilum causes what?

A

Human/Equine/Canine granulocytic anaplasmosis

Tick borne fever

  • Spread via the deer tick, Ixodes (scapularis or pacificus).*
  • Infects neutrophils primarily and eosinophils.*
  • Clinical signs: Fever, depression, inappetance, anemia, edema, ataxia, icterus, drop in milk yield, abortions and leukopenia.*

Pathological findings are hepato- and splenomegaly.

Antigenic variability.

174
Q

Anaplasma platys causes what?

A

Infectious canine cyclic thrombocytopenia

  • Co-infections with Ehrlichia canis is common.*
  • Transmitted via Rhipicephalus and Dermacentor ticks.*
175
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii causes what?

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

  • Seen in dogs and humans.*
  • Wood tick and American dog tick transmit.*
  • Mainly in eastern N. America*
  • Damages endothelial cell membranes*
  • Clinical signs: High fever, anorexia, V/D, petechia, or ecchymotic mucous membranes, edema, tenderness over lymph nodes, joints and muscles, severe necrosis in extremeties. Thrombocytopenia and leukpenia.*
  • Causes: vasculitis, hemorrhages and edema.*

No vaccines available

176
Q

Coxiella burnetti causes what?

A

Q fever

Ruminants: sheep, cattle and goats.

Zoonotic

  • Bioweaponized, reportable!!!*
  • Persist particularly in lactating mammary gland and pregnant uterus: shedding of bacteria occurs.*

Not classically transmitted via a vector, it is aerosolized.

Very low infectious dose

Endocarditis with chronicity.

177
Q

Ehrlichia canis causes what?

A

Canine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis

Brown dog tick transmits

Binary fission within monocytes

Signs include: fever, malaise, depression, inappetance, weight loss, pale mm’s, lymphadenopathy, epistaxis, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia and anemia. Chronically can have dyspnea, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, polyarthritis, CNS disturbances, and pulmoary infiltration, +/- 2ndary infections.

178
Q

What is African Heartwater caused by?

A

Ehrlichia ruminantium

Reportable Disease!!!!

Replicates in reticuloendothelial cells: macrophages, endothelial cells (edema and hemorrhage), and neutrophils

Widespread vasculitis with effusion: pericardial effusion, and encephalitis can occur. Enlarged spleen, liver and lymph nodes and bone marrow depression.