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Hematology & Immunology > Old exam questions - Immunology > Flashcards

Old exam questions - Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What are two immunological events that happen in the thymus?

A
  1. Maturation of T-cells

2. Education of T-cells - negative/positive selection

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2
Q

Primary lymphoid organ in cattle, what happens here

A

Ileocecal peyer’s patches, B cell maturation

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3
Q

What is a PAMP and why is it important to phagocytes?

A
  1. Pathogen-associated molecular patterns

2. PRRs on phagocytes recognize PAMPs on pathogen/foreign antigen, inducing phagocytosis

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4
Q

How does a dendritic cell play a role in INNATE immunity?

A
  • Uses PRRs to recognize and phagocytize antigens

- Increases the release of cytokines, specifically chemokines (neutrophils and macrophages), to the site of invasion

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5
Q

One factor that makes the SECONDARY ADAPTIVE immune response “faster” than the primary

A

Memory cells

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6
Q

What is one characteristic of the antibody generated during the secondary adaptive immune response that is different from the primary response?

A

Increased specificity and binding affinity

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7
Q

What is the role of the constant region of the antibody - how does it interact and with what cells does it interact?

A

The constant region determines the isotope or class of antibody (which determines where it will be located and with what cells it will interact with), BUT it does not alter the antigen specificity. The Fc part of the constant region interacts with Fc receptor on effector molecules (neutrophils, NK cells) once bound to antigen.

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8
Q

What is the paratope of an antibody and what structures is it comprised of?

A
  • The paratope is the antigen binding site on the antibody (binds epitope of antigen)
  • It is composed of the variable regions of both the light and heavy chains
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9
Q

List three different characteristics that make a good antigen (increase immunogenicity)

A
  1. Size: larger molecule is better
  2. Increased complexity (protein>CHO>lipid)
  3. Foreignness of Ag: more unlike self
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10
Q

If an animal lacked DNA-pk, what difference would you see in B and T cell activity?

A

DNA-pk is responsible for creating B and T cell diversity. Without DNA-pk, expect decreased diversity, and thus, activity. Patient would be severly immunocompromised with no functional lymphocytes.

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11
Q

Where in the immune system does somatic hypermutation occur and what is its function?

A
  1. Secondary lymphoid organs

2. Functions in affinity maturation (increase in binding affinity)

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12
Q

What would happen to an animal if there was no education of T-cells in thymus?

A

Education of T-cells consists of positive and negative selection, where positive selection ensures T-cells are able to recognize MHC and negative selection ensures T-cells do not recognize self as foreign. Therefore, absense of education would result in auto-immunity.

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13
Q

ENDOGENOUS antigens are presented on which cells in the body?

A

All nucleated cells in the context of MHC I

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14
Q

EXOGENOUS antigens are presented on which cells in the body?

A

Only on professional APCs in the context of MHC II

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15
Q

Where in the cell is antigen processed if it will be presented on MHC II?

A

Phagolysosomes

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16
Q

What are two differences between a dendritic cell in the TISSUES and one that has be ACTIVATED and is in SECONDARY lymphoid organ?

A
  1. Tissues - innate, increases cytokine release

2. Secondary lymphoid organ - adaptive, interacts with B and T cell to induce immune response

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17
Q

In addition to the BCR, what is another part of the BCR complex and what’s its function?

A
  1. CD79

2. Generates signal following antigen binding to BCR

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18
Q

Why is it important that there is a second signal to activate a T-lymphocyte?

A

The lack of a second signal leads to tolerance, and thus auto-immunity. The second signal is considered the danger signal.

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19
Q

Cytotoxic T-cells have a co-receptor molecule in addition to TCR complex. What is the co-receptor and what does it recognize?

A
  1. CD8

2. MHC I

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20
Q

Primary lymphoid organ for T-cells in birds, what happens here

A

Thymus - maturation of T cells

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21
Q

Secondary lymphoid organ for B-cells in cattle

A

Lymph node

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22
Q

List two different ways antigens are recognized by phagocytes

A
  1. PRRs on phagocyte recognize PAMPs on pathogens
  2. Fc receptors on phagocytes recognize Fc region of the antibody bound to antigen
  3. Opsonization
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23
Q

What are two molecules that play a primary role in the innate immune response?

A

Macrophages, neutrophils, NK cells, complement

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24
Q

What is the main function of the variable region of the antibody?

A

This is the paratope, it bind the epitope of the antigen

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25
Q

What are three common ways diversity is achieved in BCR and TCR?

A
  1. combinational: heavy and light chains
  2. Gene pool
  3. Sloppiness: P and N additions/deletions
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26
Q

What is a way that diversity is achieved in ONLY BCRs?

A

Somatic hypermutation

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27
Q

What would happen if a TCR underwent somatic hypermutation?

A

This would defeat the purpose of education of T-cells (positive and negative selection), creating autoimmunity

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28
Q

One cell type that can express both MHC I and MHC II

A

Dendritic cells

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29
Q

In addition to the TCR, what is another part of the TCR complex?

A

CD3

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30
Q

What happens when a B cell is fully activated?

A

It divides and differentiates into plasma cells, which secrete antibody. It can also become a memory cell.

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31
Q

What is ADCC?

A
  1. Antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity

2. When an antibody binds to antigen, then its Fc region is recognized by an Fc receptor on an effector cell

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32
Q

Which cell types are most important effector cells in ADCC?

A

NKCs and eosinophils

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33
Q

What is positive selection of T-cells and what is its purpose?

A

Education; ensuring that T-cells recognize MHC; and therefore, respond to antigen

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34
Q

One mechanism T-regulatory cells use to suppress response of other T and B cells

A

Secretion of IL-10

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35
Q

What are two differences between a hormone and cytokine?

A
  1. Hormones have specific cell target, cytokines do not.

2. Hormones regulate homeostasis in the body, cytokines do not (cell communication).

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36
Q

What does pleiotropy mean?

A

Pleiotropy means that one cytokine acts on many different cell types and has various effects

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37
Q

List one mechanism of breaking tolerance

A
  1. Immunologically privileged sites (cryptic antigens, T-cell tolerance not established)
  2. Changing the epitope of the antigen so it is recognized as foreign
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38
Q

All are characteristics of cytokines, EXCEPT:
A. Cytokines are primarily involved in regulating homeostasis
B. Cytokines exhibit pleiotropy
C. Cytokines exhibit redundancy
D. Cytokines are cell signaling molecules
E. Cytokines can be regulated by binding proteins

A

A. Cytokines are primarily involved in regulating homeostasis

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39
Q

Which cytokine’s role is primarily involved in lymphocyte growth, activation, and differentiation?

A

IL-2

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40
Q

Which is an example of an antibody mediated effector mechanism?
A. Superoxide radical generation
B. Cytotoxic cell perforin and granzyme generation
C. Inducible nitrous oxide synthase enzymatic production of NO
D. Phagolysosome fusion and enzymatic degradation
E. Complement activation

A

E. Complement activation

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41
Q

What is the primary role of cytotoxic T-lymphocytes?

A

They are a part of the adaptive immune system and help kill viral infected cells

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42
Q

The antigen from which organ would NOT be cryptic?

A

Kidney

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43
Q

The antigen from which organ would be cryptic? (4)

A

Eye
Placenta
CNS
Testicle

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44
Q

Choose the correct words to complete the statement:
Appropriate tolerance is that which is generated against [self/foreign] antigen will inappropriate tolerance is that which is generated against [self/foreign] antigen.

A

Self

Foreign

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45
Q

Choose the correct words to complete the statement:
B cells undergo [positive/negative/both] selection during the formation of the immune system; which makes B cells [more/less] likely to respond to self than T cells.

A 
Negative (Both per Dr. Abbott, "sort-of")
More likely (Because they undergo somatic hypermutation AFTER maturation, more opportunity to create self-reactive Ag receptors)
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46
Q

Name two ways peripheral tolerance induced (Note: this is not during development of the immune system)

A
  1. No second signal to T-cell (CD28/B7)

2. Deletion of responsive cells after formation of the immune system (FAS-FASL > apoptosis)

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47
Q

Hurdles that need to be overcame in cancer vaccine development include the following, EXCEPT:
A. Overcoming immune tolerance of Ag
B. Identifications of unique tumor Ag
C. Avoidance of autoimmune reactions
D. Upregulation of T-regulatory (IL-10 producing cells) lymphocytes
E. Consistent tumor cell culture results especially for autologous vaccine production

A

D. Up-regulation of T-regulatory (IL-10 producing cells) lymphocytes

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48
Q

Killing of cancer cells in the body by NK cells is though to be primarily mediated by:

A

CD95/CD95 (FAS-FASL) ligand receptor interactions

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49
Q

Which cytokine mediates the growth, differentiation and survival of CD8+ cytotoxic T-lymphocytes?

A

IL-2

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50
Q

Definition of redundancy in regards to cytokine function?

A

Cytokines of various types act on one cell type to induce a common response

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51
Q

Which statement in TRUE?
A. Cytokines are pre-formed molecules
B. Cytokines are responsible for cell-signaling
C. Cytokines typically act on one cell type
D. Cytokines are primarily produced by endocrine cells
E. Cytokines play an important role in maintenance of homeostasis

A

B. Cytokines are responsible for cell-signaling

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52
Q

A tumor cell growing in the liver of a dog is very abnormal and poorly differentiated. The cell does not express any of the body’s normal MHC type I. What happens when this tumor cells comes into contact with an NK cell?

A

The killer inhibitory receptor cannot bind MHC I and the NKC kills the tumor cells

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53
Q

What is the function of a chemokine?

A

Act as a chemotactic molecule, attracting inflammatory cells of the immune system (neutrophils, macrophages, etc) to the site of infection

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54
Q

Long term chronic damage to the kidney results of deficiency of which cytokine?

A

Erythropoietin

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55
Q

What is a significant clinical side effect of giving cytokines such as colony stimulating factors G-CSF or EPO as therapeutic treatment?

A

Dogs and cats can develop antibodies to the G-CSF/EPO, as well as auto-antibodies to their own G-CSF/EPO - autoimmunity

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56
Q

2 effector mechanisms of antibodies

A
  1. opsonization of phagocytes
  2. complement activation
  3. Toxin neutralization
  4. ADCC
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57
Q

What is primary defect of the immune system that leads to clinical disease in arabian foals with combined immunodeficiency (CID)?

A

Lack of the enzyme DNA-pk, which is vital in creating diversity of B and T cells

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58
Q

FeLV and FIV cause immunosuppression due to their effects on which immune cell type?

A

CD4+ T lymphocyte

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59
Q

Define monoclonal gammopathy and why is this important?

A
  1. Tumor cell composed of a single cell type

2. Can help define the type of immune response generated by the host

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60
Q

Where is IgM most commonly found? Form secreted and number of valence?

A

Serum, lymph
Secreted
5 due to steric hindrance

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61
Q

Where is IgG most commonly found? Form secreted and number of valence?

A

Serum, lymph, tissue spaces
Membrane bound
2

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62
Q

Where is IgA most commonly found? Form secreted and number of valence?

A

Mucosal surfaces and secretions
Membrane bound or secreted
4

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63
Q

Where is IgE most commonly found? Form secreted and number of valence?

A

Mucosa, surface of mast cells and basophils
Membrane bound
2

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64
Q

When undergoing class switching during an immune response, which isotypes of antibody can be produced by a B cell currently producing IgG?

A

IgE, IgA

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65
Q

Negative selection of T cells in the thymus deletes certain T cells, why?

A

They recognize self antigen

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66
Q

What does negative selection protect against?

A

Autoimmunity

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67
Q

List one change that happens to a dendritic cell as it matures following exposure to antigen?

A

Increase in MHC II

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68
Q

The TCR recognizes antigen presented by MHC II on the surface of a B cell and following a second signal a message is sent to the nucleus. What structure is responsible for signaling to the nucleus (not receiving the signal)?

A

CD3

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69
Q

What two molecules (1 on the APC and 1 on the T cell) are responsible for the SECOND signal to the T cell?

A

CD28 (T cell) and B7 (APC)

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70
Q

Bovine and canine leukocyte adhesion deficiency is a disorder of cell mediated immunity caused by a lack of the following factors:

A
  1. Lack of intern function

2. Lack of ability of neutrophils to infiltrate tissues

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71
Q

Name the most abundant antibody generated during the primary immune response?

A

IgM

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72
Q

Function of IL-1/TNF-alpha

A

Primary cytokines produced during gram negative infection

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73
Q

What tumor types are treated with IL-2 in humans?

A

Melanoma and renal cell carcinoma

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74
Q

Local IL-2 is associated with more or fewer side effects?

A

Fewer

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75
Q

What is meant by heterozygote advantage in regards to MHC molecules?

A

Increased variability; organism is protected against greater number of antigens

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76
Q

In order to become activated, T cells require 2 signals from the same APC. What are the APCs and T cells involved?

A

1st signal: MHC and TCR

2nd signal: B7 and CD28

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77
Q

The BCR recognizes antigen on the surface of a B cell, when cross-linked a signal is sent to the nucleus. What structure is responsible for signaling the nucleus?

A

CD79

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78
Q

Following cross-linking of the BCR and signaling through CD40 and CD40 ligand, B cell is activated. What is the outcome of activation?

A

Production of antibodies

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79
Q

What complement pathway is activated by the humoral immune response to bacterial infections?

A

Classical

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80
Q

What complement pathway is directly activated by bacteria in the absence of a humoral immune response?

A

Alternate

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81
Q

C3a and C5a formed during complement activation initiate what type of response?

A

Inflammatory

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82
Q

List 2 characteristics of a neutrophil that differ from a macrophage

A
  1. Neutrophils = 1st line of defense, macrophages = 2nd line

2. Neutrophils die after phagocytosis, macrophages do not

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83
Q

What is one important function of the Fc region of the antibody?

A

Binds to Fc receptors to allow for destruction of antigen

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84
Q

How does class switching alter the function of the antibody?

A

Switches the target cells and tissues that the antibody acts in

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85
Q

What differences would you see in B and T cell activity, if a dog lacked the protein RAG 1?

A

No B or T cell activity because they wouldn’t be able to create receptors

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86
Q

What organelle in the cell is responsible for processing the antigen (cut into small portions/epitopes) if they will be presented on MHC I?

A

Proteosome

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87
Q

What is an M cell and what is its function?

A

Cell on top of payer’s patches that samples the antigens in the gut and presents them to the lymph system as needed

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88
Q

What is meant by the mucosal immune system?

A

Mucosal immune system is able to transfer antibodies from one mucus center to another (ie: nose to gut) so that all MALT tissues have the same immunity

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89
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity - Immediate type

  • Name most important effector mechanism
  • Name one condition/disease
A
  • IgE, mast cells

- Allergy

90
Q

Type II Hypersensitivity - Antibody mediated cytotoxic type

  • Name most important effector mechanism
  • Name one condition/disease
A
  • IgG, IgM

- Transfusion reaction, drug reactions

91
Q

Type III Hypersensitivity - Immune complex type

  • Name most important effector mechanism
  • Name one condition/disease
A
  • Immune complex, IgM, IgG

- Glomerularnephritis

92
Q

Type IV Hypersensitivity - Delayed type

  • Name most important effector mechanism
  • Name one condition/disease
A
  • T lymphocytes (Th1)

- Tuberculin reaction

93
Q

Where is IgD most commonly found? Form secreted and number of valence?

A

Surface of B cells
Membrane bound
2

94
Q

What are three secondary lymphoid organs? What occurs here?

A
  1. Spleen, Lymph nodes, MALT/GALT

2. Site of immunological response

95
Q

Name two professional phagocytes

A

Neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cells

96
Q

What changes happen to a macrophage when it is activated?

A
  1. Greater ability to phagocytize

2. Secretes cytokines, ROIs, chemotactic factors resulting in destruction of the tissue and inflammation

97
Q

What kind of infectious organisms to neutrophils usually kill?

A

Bacteria

98
Q

Name one tissue specific macrophage

A

microglia - brain

kupffer cells - liver

99
Q

List two functions of macrophages

A
  1. Phagocytize bacteria and present antigen to lymphocytes

2. Release cytokines that stimulate inflammatory process

100
Q

How long does it take for the innate immunity to become effective?

A

Immediately

101
Q

List two ways that innate immunity is different from adaptive immunity

A
  1. Innate immunity is non-specific, and adaptive immunity is highly specific
  2. Innate immunity is effective immediately and does not require memory, while the adaptive response take days before it is activate and requires memory
102
Q

What are 3 cells or molecules that play a primary role in the adaptive immune response?

A

B cells, T cells, antibodies

103
Q

Antibody produced during a secondary or anamnestic response has higher affinity to the antigenic epitopes than antibody during primary immune response. What mechanisms results in this?

A

Somatic hypermutation

104
Q

List two of the body’s reaction to injury resulting in inflammation?

A
  1. Emigration/accumulation of leukocytes

2. Vasodilaton, cytokines

105
Q

Innate or adaptive: Recognition of PAMPs is critical beginning the immune response

A

Innate

106
Q

Innate or adaptive: Macrophages, neutrophils, complement, and NK cells are the primary cells responsible for the immune response

A

Innate

107
Q

Innate or adaptive: Memory is important in generating an effective immune response

A

Adaptive

108
Q

Innate or adaptive: Antigen processing is critical for generation of immune response

A

Adaptive

109
Q

What is a hapten and how does it stimulate an immune response? What makes a hapten clinically important?

A

Haptens are small molecules that do not elicit an immune response, unless bound with other peptides that are native to the organism

110
Q

How can cross-reactivity of antibodies be beneficial to the host?

A

Cross-reactivity means that one paratope can recognize more than one epitope. This is beneficial because then one Ab can protect against more pathogens
- Used in vaccines

111
Q

Once a B cell class switches to IgE it can no longer produce IgG, but can still switch to IgA. Briefly explain this phenomenon.

A

Loss of genes; during class switching, parts of DNA are deleted. Class switching can only occur in forward sequence

112
Q

When a CD4 helper cell recognizes antigen presented by MHC it can become either Th1 or Th2. List one cytokine important for inducing a Th1 and Th2 response and the effector cell the helper T cell sets in motion.

A

Th1: IL-2 and cytotoxic T cells
Th2: IL-4 and B-cells

113
Q

What happens to a T cell if only the first signal is received, with NO second signal?

A

Tolerance

114
Q

What is meant by polymorphism and polygeny in regard to MHC molecules?

A

Polymorphism - large numbers of alleles for each gene that are co-dominantly expressed
Polygeny - expression of several different but related genes with similar functions
Heterozygous advantage**

115
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to cytokines?
A. cytokines are pre-formed molecules
B. cytokines typically act only on one cell type
C. cytokines are primarily produced by endocrine cells
D. cytokines play an important role in maintenance of homestasis
E. cytokines primary roles are to influence inflammation and the immune response

A

E. cytokines primary roles are to influence inflammation and the immune response

116
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to cytokines?
A. cytokines are pre-formed molecules
B. cytokines are responsible for cell signaling
C. cytokines are primarily produced by endocrine cells
D. cytokines play an important role in maintenance of homestasis
E. cytokines typically act only on one cell type

A

B. cytokines are responsible for cell signaling

117
Q

Which is not a property of cytokines?
A. mediate the immune response
B. stored as pre-formed molecules in cell granules
C. influence other cytokines
D. one cytokine can act on many different cell types
E. exert their action through receptors

A

B. stored as pre-formed molecules in cell granules

118
Q

Anemia may result from decreased production of erythropoietin when this organ is damaged/diseased

A

Kidney

119
Q

Which cytokine down-regulates the immune response by inhibiting activation of macrophages?

A

IL-10

120
Q

The function of which of the following cytokines is dependent on the amount of cytokine present in circulation?

A

TNF-alpha

121
Q

Erythropoietin is produced by what cell type?

A

Renal fibroblasts

122
Q

Which of the following are complications reported in association with erythropoietin therapy in animals?

  1. pain at injection site
  2. anaphylactic reaction to recombinant EPO
  3. development of polycythemia (too many RBC)
  4. development of antibodies to recombinant EPO
  5. development of auto-antibodies against endogenous EPO
A

3, 4, 5

123
Q

IL-5 plays a role in hypersensitivity reactions and anti-parasite reactions through its effects on what cell type?

A

Eosinophils

124
Q

Superoxide (O2) is produced through the action of which enzyme?

A

NADPH oxidase

125
Q

Which cell type requires activation by IL-2 to become an effective killer of virally infected cells?

A

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs)

126
Q

Nitric oxide is produced through the action of what enzyme?

A

NADPH oxidase

127
Q

Where in the cell is NADPH oxidase found?

A

Lysosome or cell membrane

128
Q

Which cell type requires functional MHC I to recognize and destroy virus infected cells?

A

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs)

129
Q

What is the basic pathogenesis of immunosuppression due to parvovirus infection?

A
  • Destruction of rapidly dividing cells

- Decrease in bone marrow hematopoiesis and lymphoid function

130
Q

What is the basic pathogenesis of immune dysfunction in CID Arabian foals?

A

Hypoplasia of both T and B cell tissues and lack of lymphocyte mediated immunity

131
Q

What is the defect in animals with Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

A

Lysosomal function is abnormal

132
Q 
All of the following are common modes of transmission for FeLV except:
A. sexual contact 
B. fight or bite wounds
C. lactating and nursing
D. respiratory inhalation
E. direct contact with saliva
A

D. respiratory inhalation

133
Q

What is (self) tolerance?

A

Lack of response to self antigen

134
Q

What is clonal deletion or abortion?

A

Elimination of immature B and T cell clones with self-reactive antigen receptors

135
Q

What is clonal anergy?

A

Suppression of mature B and T cell clones with self-reactive antigen receptors

136
Q

T cell clones that are selected for survival during thymopoiesis are…

A

not self-reactive and do not recognize self MHC antigens

137
Q

Definition of auto-immunity

A

loss of self-tolerance

138
Q

What can cause auto-immunity (immune-mediated response to self-antigens)?
A. defective deletion of self-reactive T and B cell during their “education” in thymus and bone marrow
B. Release of hidden antigens from immunologically priveledged sites
C. formation of new epitopes on self antigens by peptides released from infectious agents or drugs
D. molecular immunity
E. all of the above

A

E. all of the above

139
Q

What regulates the duration of the adaptive immune response?
A. elimination of the antigen that elicited the response
B. high levels of antibodies produced during the response provide negative feedback on further B cell proliferation and differentiation into plasma cells
C. CD4/CD25 T regulatory cells and natural suppressor cells
D. all of the above
E. A and B only

A

D. all of the above

140
Q

How is T and B cell self-tolerance established?

A

clonal anergy and clonal deletion

141
Q

What are two mechanisms for removal of bacteria opsonized by C3b?

A
  1. MAC lysis of the cell

2. Phagocytosis

142
Q

What innate immune response provides a first line of defense against bacterial infections?

A

Activation of the alternate complement pathway by the bacterial surfaces

143
Q

What is the most important difference between the classical and alternate complement pathways?

A

Classical pathway is activated by antigen-antibody complexes

144
Q

If an animal has a C3 deficiency, what would be the most common clinical sign?

A

Recurrent bacterial infections

145
Q

What complement pathway is activated by binding of IgG to antigens on cell surface?

A

Classical pathway

146
Q

What is the key enzyme formed by both the classical and alternate pathway that allows for completion of the cascade?

A

C3 convertase

147
Q

What is the key protein generated by the C3 convertase enzyme that “coats” bacterial surfaces and infected cell surfaces?

A

C3b

148
Q

What are the most important effector functions that result from complement activation by bacterial infection?

A

Lysis of bacteria, phagocytosis of bacteria, inflammation

149
Q

What is the general purpose of immunodiagnostic assays?

A

Detection of an antigen or antibody in patient samples

150
Q

After euthanizing a raccoon that bit your technician, you submit the animal’s head to a diagnostic laboratory for testing for rabies virus infection. What test will the lab likely perform?

A

Direct immunoflourescent antibody test

151
Q

You would like to test a canine patient’s blood sample for antibodies to Ehrlichia canis to determine if the patient has been infected by this organism transmitted by tick bites. Which test do you select for the diagnostic laboratory to perform?

A

Indirect immunofluorescent antibody test

152
Q

IDEXX has asked you to design an ELISA to detect equine infectious anemia (EIA) antibodies in horse serum to serve as the Coggin’s test. What is the correct combinations of reagents for this ELISA? (Remember what you are testing for in the patient sample)

A

EIA antigen to coat wells, patient serum, anti-horse IgG antibody conjugated to HRP as the detection antibody, HRP substrate

153
Q

Your EIA antibody capture ELISA worked so well that IDEXX has now asked you to design an ELISA to detect foot and mouth disease virus (FMDV) antigens in cow serum. What is the correct combination of reagents for this ELISA?

A

Anti-FMDV antibody to coat wells, patient serum, anti-FMDV antibody conjugated to HRP as the detections antibody, HRP substrate

154
Q

IDEXX wants to develop a new SNAP test that simultaneously tests for heartworm antigen and heartworm antibody in feline serum samples. What reagents would you add to the serum sample in order to capture HW-antigen and HW-antibody?

A

It is not possible to test for both HW antibody and antigen in the same test because the capture antibody will detect the capture antigen

155
Q

You suggest to IDEXX that they develop a SNAP 3Dx that simultaneously tests for heartworm antigen, FeLV antigen, and FIV antibody in feline serum samples. What reagents would you add to the serum sample in order to capture heartworm antigen, FeLV antigen and FIV antibody?

A

Mouse anti-heartworm antibody conjugated to HRP, mouse anti-FeLV antibody conjugated to HRP, and FIV antigen conjugated to HRP

156
Q

You would like to test canine patient’s blood sample for the presence of antigens from infectious agent X. What immunodiagnostic test would you select on the laboratory form to submit with the blood sample?

A

Direct immunofluorescent antibody test that uses the patient’s blood smear as a substrate and FITC-labeled antibody specific for agent X

157
Q

You would like to test an equine patient’s blood sample for the presence of antibody from infectious agent Y. What immunodiagnostic test would you select on the laboratory form to submit with the blood sample?

A

Indirect immunofluorescent antibody test that uses tissue culture cells infected with agent Y as the substrate and FITC-labeled goat anti-equine IgG as detection antibody

158
Q

IDEXX has asked you to design an antigen capture ELISA to detect bovine leukemia virus (BLV) antigens in cow serum. What is the correct combination of reagents for this ELISA? (Remember what you are testing for?

A

anti-BLV antibody to coat wells, patient serum, anti-BLV antibody conjugated with to HRP as the detection antibody, HRP substrate

159
Q

Which one of the following is not a reason for failure of the immune response in cancer patients?
A. development of tolerance
B. down-regulation of MHC I receptors on cancer
C. Suppressor cells
D. Blocking antibodies
E. up-regulation of MHC I receptors of cancer

A

E. up-regulation of MHC I receptors of cancer

160
Q

Which one of the following is not an example of the current approach to cancer vaccines?
A. aloe vera
B. genetically altered whole-cell vaccines
C. Dendritic cell vaccines
D. heat shock protein based vaccines
E. tumor antigen based vaccines

A

A. aloe vera

161
Q

Hurdles that need to be overcome in cancer vaccine development include the following, except:
A. Overcoming immune tolerance of antigens
B. Identification of unique tumor antigens
C. Avoidance of auto-immune reactions
D. consistent tumor cell culture results especially for autologous vaccine production
E. Deletion of tumor associated lymphocyte clones

A

E. Deletion of tumor associated lymphocyte clones

162
Q

Macrophages play no role in the body’s immune response to cancer - T/F

A

False

163
Q

With MHC restricted tumor antigen presentation, lack of inflammation and lack of co-stimulatory molecule expression can lead to tolerance (clonal anergy) - T/F

A

True

164
Q

What are unique features of the mucosal immune system?

A

Peyer’s patches, M cells, secretory IgA, adhesion molecules for homing

165
Q

What is meant by “common mucosal immune system”?

A

Homing of IgA-committed B cells and CD4 T cells primed by antigen contact at one mucosal site to other mucosal tissues

166
Q

If a kennel cough vaccine was administered to a dog (or equine influenza vaccine) via the intranasal route, what type of antibody would predominate the nasal secretions?

A

Secretory IgA

167
Q 
If a  vaccine was administered to a cow via the intra-mammary route, where would you expect to find vaccine-induced antibodies?
A. bronchial secretions
B. GI secretions
C. milk
D. nasal secretions
E. all of the above
A

E. all of the above

168
Q

Unique features of secretory IgA include

A

Synthesis in mucosal tissues only and resistant to protease digestion

169
Q

Which of the following statements are correct for nonconventional intraepithelial lymphocytes in mucosal tissues?
A. T cells with a gamma/delta TCR and a CD8 alpha/alpha co-receptor
B. CD8 T cells that are memory effector cells “poised to act”
C. CD8 T cells that originate in the bone marrow
D. CD8 T cells with non-MHC-restricted cytolytic function (NK-like)
E. all of the above

A

E. all of the above

170
Q

What is the predominant antibody in the milk of non-ruminants?

A

Secretory IgA

171
Q

What is the predominant antibody in colostrum?

A

Dimeric IgG

172
Q

What is the major target in a graft that is recognized as foreign in the immune system of a recipient?

A

non-self MHC

173
Q

Why is bone marrow transplantation different that other organ transplantations?

A

With bone marrow transplants, the hosts immune system is being replaced entirely by an foreign immune system

174
Q

What general immunological concept underlies the difference in a first set rejection when compared with a second set rejection?

A

In the second response, memory cells will be mounted and ready, with a quicker rejection reaction (2-3 days vs 7-14 days for the initial rejection)

175
Q

Although offspring almost always accept a graft from their parents, why do the parents nearly always reject a graft from their offspring?

A

The offspring will express both parents’ MHC, where as the parent only expressed their own; therefore, the parent will recognize the other parent’s MHC as foreign

176
Q

What is the difference between major and minor cross-matching?

A

Major - RBC donor and serum recipient

Minor - donor serum and recipient RBC

177
Q

A graft transplanted between two genetically different members of the same species

A

Allograft

178
Q

What is the most common tissue transplanted that results in Graft vs. Host disease?

A

Bone marrow

179
Q

When doing a major cross match for transfusion, the RBCs do not agglutinate. Is this a good donor for the trasnfusion?

A

Yes, this means that the recipient does not have antibodies to donors RBC

180
Q

What causes neonatal isoerythrolysis in foals?

A

Consume colostrum of mother, which contain antibodies to baby’s RBC, causing massive cell lysis

181
Q

Several udderfuls are necessary for complete passive transfer - T/F

A

False

182
Q

Absorption (passive immunity) is mediated by pinocytosis that is non-selective - T/F

A

True

183
Q

Only IgG is present in colostrum - T/F

A

False

184
Q

Animal makes colostrum during the last 4 weeks of pregancy - T/F

A

True

185
Q

Name the most important consequence of passive transfer

A

Provides immunity to neonates against pathogens that its immune system is not ready to fight

186
Q

Name two consequences of passive transfer which may also be deleterious

A
  1. Neonates take longer period of time to produce own antibodies
  2. Colostrum may contain antibodies that recognize neonates RBC as antigen
187
Q

Many times an animal fails to actually ingest colostrum, however there are several more reasons while failure of transfer occurs - name two

A
  1. Premature parturition - colostrum does not have enough Ig

2. Undeveloped or malformation in the GI of neonates

188
Q

Which species does not, in general, need to have a cross-matches performed between donor and recipient for first transfusion?

A

Ruminants: cows, goats

189
Q

Dog/cat: placentation, transfer of IgG?

A

Endotheliochorial, some

190
Q

Ruminant: placentation, transfer of IgG?

A

Epitheliochorial, none

191
Q

Horses: placentation, transfer of IgG?

A

Epitheliochorial, none

192
Q

Name three ways pathogens evade the immune response

A
  1. decrease expression of MHC proteins
  2. stimulate inappropriate immune responses
  3. acquire host antigens
193
Q

The organism first exceeds the outer defenses composed of the 1. Then the organism divides, exudes mediators which increases the blood supply to the area resulting in migration of 2. 3 on the organism are recognized by 4 receptors on the phagocytes which cause the phagocyte to become activated. Complement and the components of the organism in turn recruit and activate 5 (cells).

A
  1. epithelium
  2. leukocytes
  3. PAMPs
  4. toll-like
  5. macrophages
194
Q

Name two problems that can occur with any vaccine

A
  1. Recipient might not be stimulated enough and immune response is suppressed
  2. Hypersensitivity
195
Q

Name two goals of vaccination that are independent of eradication

A
  1. Increase overall population health (herd immunity)

2. Prevent transmission

196
Q

What is the right combination that may result in eradication of a dz by vaccination?

A

Short incubation, limited wildlife reservoir, long duration of immunity after dz, highly pathogenic dz

197
Q

Killed vaccine - description, adjuvant, replicate in host, proposed Ag processing (endogenous/exogenous/both)

A
  • Whole organism that is inactivated
  • Needed
  • No
  • Exogenous
198
Q

Modified live vaccine - description, adjuvant, replicate in host, proposed Ag processing (endogenous/exogenous/both)

A
  • Whole live organism
  • Not needed
  • Yes
  • Endogenous
199
Q

Subunit vaccine - description, adjuvant, replicate in host, proposed Ag processing (endogenous/exogenous/both)

A
  • Part of whole Ag/toxin inactivated
  • Needed
  • No
  • Exogenous
200
Q

Recombinant vaccine - description, adjuvant, replicate in host, proposed Ag processing (endogenous/exogenous/both)

A
  • Whole modified or naked DNA with piece of organisms genetic material, usually live
  • Not needed
  • Yes
  • Both
201
Q

What do you predict the primary effector mechanism of protection to be for a vaccine against tetanus toxoid?

A

Neutralizing antibody

202
Q

Name two differences between passive and active immunization

A

Passive is immediate and has short effective duration, while active is sustained protection that has a delayed effect - may need booster

203
Q

Ideal immunogenicity of a vaccine

A

Size - large
Dose - intermediate
Route - ID > SQ > IM > IV > Mucosal
Composition - complex

204
Q

Hypersensitivity

A

inappropriate immune response to a foreign antigen that causes host damage

205
Q

A graft transplanted between two genetically identical members of a species (twins)

A

Syngraft/Isograft

206
Q

Hyperacute rejection - hypersensitivity type, predominant immunity involved, rejection time

A

Type II
Humoral
Hours to days

207
Q

Acute rejection - hypersensitivity type, predominant immunity involved, rejection time

A

Type IV
Cellular
Weeks to months

208
Q

Chronic rejection - hypersensitivity type, predominant immunity involved, rejection time

A

Type III and IV
Both
Months to years

209
Q

General protection against helminthes

A

IgE activates eosinophils, basophils, mast cells (humoral)

210
Q

Innate or adaptive: APC for generation of immune response

A

adaptive

211
Q

Name two effects of activation of macrophages by PAMPs

A
  1. antimicrobial

2. antigen presentation

212
Q

What is used in toxin mediated disease and intestinal infection?

A

Antibody neutralizing (humoral)

213
Q

What cells are used in innate immunity protection of West Nile virus?

A

NKCs

214
Q

What is used in short term adaptive protection against West Nile virus?

A

Antibody opsonizing (humoral)

215
Q

What is used in long term adaptive protection against West Nile virus?

A

CD8 T cells (cell-mediated)

216
Q

What is used in immunity against intracellular bacteria?

A

IFN gamma activates macrophages; CD4/CD8 (cell-mediated)

217
Q

List two functions of the spleen

A
  1. hematopoietic

2. RBC reservoir

218
Q

Immunity against a small extracellular protozoa?

A

Opsonizing antibody (humoral)

219
Q

Adaptive immune response is always generated after and innate immune response - T/F

A

False

220
Q

Adaptive Immunity always requires priming - T/F

A

True

Hematology & Immunology (2 decks)

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