Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Food Microbio > Old Exam Questions > Flashcards

Old Exam Questions Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Gourmet Food flashcards
1
Q

LAB are predominantly which genus?

A

Lactobacillus spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or False. Lower the pH, higher energy is required by cell to maintain cell intracellular pH neutrality and less energy is left for the growth.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many hours does milk need to cool down to 4 - 7 C?

A

2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which pathogen dominates in fish and shellfish?

A

Vibrio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

True or False. Lactic acid bacteria are always a good and positive bacteria to have in your dairy products?

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most common minimum Aw for mold

A

0.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which will require the highest “intervention” dose for inactivation?

A

Clostridium spore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does VBNC stand for?

A

Viable but not culturable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does temperature regulate?

A

The growth of bacteria
The lipid content of the cell membrane
Gene expression of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain the how and why ground meat products are more correlated to increases in outbreaks.

A

Ground meat products are correlated to increase outbreaks given the composition of low quality meat and improper cooking/handling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What bacteria are apart of the spoilage of fish and shellfish products

A

Pseudomonas
Vibrio
Morganella spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True or False. Common microorganisms and foodborne pathogens that are present on food (e.g., beef) surfaces show seasonal variation

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Coliforms ferment lactose to produce?

A

CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

At what stage would bacteria produce their byproducts (toxins, enzymes, etc)

A

Late log phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

True or False. Do microorganisms need both processes of adapting to acid protection in order to survive?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common minimum Aw for yeast?

A

0.80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mold is able to survive low Aw because?

A

Compatible solutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Psychotropic bacteria that cause sweet curdling do so by attacking?

A

Casein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Stickiness on meat starts at what CFU?

A

10^8 CFU/cm^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most important bacterial foodborne pathogen that can multiply in raw milk stored at low temperatures and can cause foodborne outbreaks?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Food spoilage includes

A

Reduction of the texture of food
It can be harmful to the consumer
Reduction of the nutritional value of food
Reduction of the flavor of food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is biofilm?

A

Aggregation of bacteria living together on a solid surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

True or False.The minimum Aw of bacteria, mold, and yeast to grow is the same as the minimum Aw for them to produce toxins.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Minimum water activity needed for the growth of gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria.

A

0.97: 0.9, respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is one of the main specific issues with leaving fish for too long at improper temperature conditions?

A

Histamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is infection and intoxication?

A

Ingestion of organism grow, replicate, colonize, and potentially release toxins in the host’s intestine; Ingestion of bacteria that was growing on food and releasing toxins, respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the purpose of pasteurization?

A

Reduce microbial load and enzyme activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

pH levels of meat from a well rested animal is

A

5.4-5.6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The Most important psychrotrophic bacteria in milk that can multiply at low temperatures and can result in milk spoilage

A

Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The application of two or more hurdles to control the growth of foodborne pathogens facilitates

A
  1. It can be more effective than one intervention treatment
  2. Facilitates application of milder intervention treatment
  3. Helps retain organoleptic properties of food after intervention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Proteolysis produce?

A

Bitter, putrid flavor and coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Major agents of dairy spoilage?

A

LAB
Coliforms
Psychotropic bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which milk protein is more susceptible to the susceptible microbial proteolysis?

A

Casein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A main byproduct of spoilage bacteria on fish is an enzyme. What is the main issue with these bacteria and enzyme?

A

Even if the bacteria is killed the enzyme can still be active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

True or False. At low cellular pH, cells have to spend more energy to maintain neutrality and less energy is left for their growth.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Common source of spoilage bacteria in meat products is

A

Hide, hooves, feathers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Sources of contamination of raw milk

A

Soil, skin tissue, water quality and utensils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Sweet Curding is predominately caused by which genus?

A

Bacillus spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Lipolysis produce?

A

Rancid and fruit flavors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

True or False. Biofilms are more difficult to get rid of compare to bacteria.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What methods of growth are most likely to be related to Psychrotropic Bacteria?

A

Proteases and lipases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is NOT an intrinsic factor? water activity, temp, naturally occurring compounds, pH, nutrients

A

Temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the primary energy source found in milk?

A

Lactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Why is milk a good growth media?

A

neutral pH, sugar, high water content, protein, fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

At neutral pH which will response/mechanism will be turned on?

A

Homeostatic response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Modified Atmosphere Packaging (MAP) works by increasing the concentration of

A

CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the source of microorganisms in beef?

A

Hair
hooves
hide
GI Tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the USDA and FDA responsible, respectively?

A

Meat and poultry and all other food products, respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the purpose of the FoodNet?

A

Designed to monitor each of the events that occur along the foodborne diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

True or False. Aerobic and anaerobic pathways are both high energy productions

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Why does the Emetic toxin (Cereulide) have such a fast onset for illness?

A

The toxin is an amino acid synthetase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

True or False. Only coagulase-positive Staphylococcus aureus strains are pathogenic

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Bacillus is a….

A

Gram-positive, spore-forming, rod-shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Diarrheal Food Poisoning and Emetic Food Poisoning by B. cereus are commonly from which sources?

A

Fish and meats; Starchy food (rice), respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the most distinct symptom of Emetic syndrome associated with a cereulide -producing Bacillus strain?

A

Vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Fermentation of vegetable is a way of preserving food and its nutritive values. Which microorganism they use also depends on their culture. What are they?

A

America/Europe: LAB and Yeast
Asia: Mold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are Indicator Organisms used to assess?

A

Food safety and food quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Extracellular protease acts on casein molecules resulting in free amino acids and peptides. What are they used for or cause?

A

1) Required for the growth of many LABs
2) Flavor development during ripening process of cheese
3) Generation of either bitter peptides or non-bitter peptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Heterofermentation are responsible for?

A

Aroma and flavor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Emetic Food Poisoning is caused by

A

Cereulide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which Bacillus species has the ability to grow in the cold (below 7C)?

A

Bacillus weihenstephanensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are some of the reasons that we ferment foods?

A

We ferment foods due to climate, food preservation, digestibility of grains and flavor/aroma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which fermentation pathway is the most efficient and common?

A

Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are Index organism and Indicator organism?

A

Microorganism or group of microorganisms that is indicative of a specific pathogen; Microorganism or group of microorganisms that are indicative that a food has been exposed to conditions that pose an increased risk, but not necessarily pathogenic, respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Sugar is converted to what product(s) during fermentation?

A

CO2
Acetic acid
Lactic Acid
Ethanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Homofermentation are responsible for?

A

Acid production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is mandatory criteria?

A

A limit which may not be exceeded. If exceeded food need to destroyed, reprocessed, diverted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Staphylococcal toxin

A

Highly resistant to proteolytic enzymes
Heat-stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Common reservoir of S. aureus?

A

Hair, nose, respiratory droplets, skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which factors determine which pathway organism uses

A

Oxygen conditions
Availability of sugar e.g. pentoses, hexoses
Genetic make up
Membrane proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

True or False. B. cereus outbreaks are highly underestimated.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Microbiological Criteria represent a level of microorganism above which action is required. Below mentioned are a few examples. Select the most relevant example for Microbiological criteria.

A

Listeria number is 10 CFU/g in cheese; we need to take action

71
Q

Microbiological Criteria are focused on

A

Bacterial metabolite, bacteria toxin, fecal coliforms, presence of bacteria

72
Q

Who has the ability to issue recalls?

A

FDA

73
Q

What is the biological process of fermentation?

A

The production of byproducts (vinegar, antibodies, citric acid, etc) in the presence or absence of oxygen.

74
Q

Which will have the shortest incubation period?

A

Bacillus strain with emetic toxin

75
Q

B. Cereus and their spores are?

A

1) Spores survive the pasteurization
2) It is important in foodborne illness: cells are resistant to treatment and can grow at lower temperature.
3) Spore more hydrophobic than the vegetative cells and repel sanitizers allowing them to survive on surfaces

76
Q

Which one of the following does not have GRAS status?

A

Salmonella

77
Q

Microbiological criteria consist of:

A

1)toxins and metabolites
2) sampling plan
3) analytical methods used for identification
4) The organism of concern

78
Q

Complete oxidation and fermentation of glucose generates

A

34 ATP and 1 to 2 ATP, respectively

79
Q

True or False. Homo and hetero fermentative strains are usually mixed in a fixed ratio to generate a flavor profile in a fermented product

A

True

80
Q

A mandatory criterion is established when

A

No other effective tool/intervention method is available

81
Q

What is the common source of non-starter lactic acid bacteria (NSLAB) in cheese?

A

Surrounding where cheese is aged

82
Q

Staphylococcal-associated gastric distress is classified as

A

Food intoxication

83
Q

Entner doudoroff pathway is important for fermented dairy products as it allows the use of __________ disaccharide. The ED pathway enables the bacteria to use ______ sugar which is mostly excreted by other bacteria.

A

Lactose and galactose

84
Q

Most staphylococcal food poisoning is traced to food contaminated

A

By humans during preparation

85
Q

True or False. The variable sampling plan is used for when the target microorganism is uniformly distributed

A

True

86
Q

Which one is a heterofermentative microorganism?

A

Propionibacterium

87
Q

S. aureus is bacteria that is responsible for?

A

Staphylococcal food poisoning, an intoxication, which is caused by a heat stable toxin

88
Q

Who Established Microbiological Criteria?

A

FAO
NACMCF
NAS
ICMSF

89
Q

True or False. Fermentation can be used for the detoxification of foods

A

True

90
Q

Fecal coliforms are

A

of animal origins
contain both pathogen and nonpathogenic bacteria

91
Q

Clostridium is divided into Groups I, II, III, and IV based on the physiological difference. Which of these four physiological groups causes concern and is involved in human infection?

A

Group I and II

92
Q

True or False. You can neutralize the botulinum toxin by boiling for 10 minutes

A

True

93
Q

During a Salmonella outbreak investigation, which of the following foods would you prioritize for sampling if interviews reveal it was frequently consumed by those infected.

A

Fresh lettuce salads

94
Q

True or False. Listeria strains love growing in moist areas.

A

True

95
Q

Listeriosis is a ________

A

infection

96
Q

What is the most common form of Clostridium infection in humans?

A

infant botulism

97
Q

Which one the following can survive in the acidic environments (pH: 4.2)

A

E. coli O157
Botulinum Neurotoxin

98
Q

The Actin “Rocket“ (ActA Protein) that is found in some pathogens are used for?

A

Hijacks the host’s actin filaments, pushing itself around the host cell and into neighboring cells

99
Q

What are the reasoning for listeria high cause of death

A

1) Widely distributed in nature
2) Grows inside human phagocytes
3) 13-30% mortality rate
4) Long lag time

100
Q

Listeria monocytogenes targets what in the body

A

liver and spleen

101
Q

Shigella has

A

1) very low infective dose
2) spread through person-to-person contact
3) Very low infective dose and highly contagious

102
Q

Which is the most common Shigella species in the United States?

A

Shigella sonnei

103
Q

EHEC mainly targets what in the body?

A

kidney

104
Q

The Top 7 serogroups for the EHEC are

A

O121
O45
O26
O145
O111
O103
O157

105
Q

The most important feature of Listeria which facilitates its occurrence in a food processing facility.

A

Availability of moisture and cold temperature

106
Q

Salmonella produce_________ colored colonies on XLD and HE agar plates

A

Black

107
Q

Which category of food is most commonly associated with Clostridium botulinum outbreaks?

A

Home-canned

108
Q

In a foodborne outbreak investigation, which method is commonly used to confirm the link between a suspected food and the illnesses

A

Performing genetic fingerprinting on pathogen strains from patients and food samples

109
Q

Clostridium botulinum results in _______________

A

intoxication

110
Q

Name a food product that in the past has been associated with the Listeria monocytogenes outbreak.

A

mexican-style cheese

111
Q

What are the virulence factors of EHEC?

A

Shiga toxin
Intimin

112
Q

Clostridium botulinum is a

A

1) spore former
2) gram positive
3) obligate anaerobe
4) rod

113
Q

Clostridium strains infecting humans does not grow and germinate below

A

pH 4.6

114
Q

The O-antigen is located on

A

LPS on the external surface of the bacterial membrane

115
Q

Isolation of Clostridium botulinum use of

A

1) Heat treatment of the sample
2) Anaerobic incubator
3) Cooked meat media

116
Q

In the case of a Listeria outbreak in a food production facility, which of the following conditions would most likely contribute to persistent contamination?

A

Moist environments and equipment that are hard to clean

117
Q

Why does the isolation of Clostridium require heat treatment of samples at 60-80°C for 10 minutes?

A

Kills the vegetative cells and spores survives

118
Q

pH value below which Clostridium botulinum does not grow?

A

4.6

119
Q

Which is the most commonly used food preservative for controlling the Clostridium botulinum in food products?

A

Nitrate

120
Q

What are some facts of Listeria?

A

1) Poor competitor under room temperature
2) Outcompete others in refrigerated conditions
3) Can lead to miscarriage
4) Correlated with ready to eat foods

121
Q

What is a “12D thermal process”?

A

achieve a 12-log reduction

122
Q

Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of botulism caused by Clostridium botulinum?

A

Blurred vision and difficulty swallowing

123
Q

What is the incubation period of Listeria?

A

1-4 weeks

124
Q

What is the virulence characteristics of Enteroaggregative Escherichia coli (EAEC)?

A

1) Persistent diarrhea
2) Stacked brick-like appearance on the cell
3) EAEC adheres to the intestinal mucosa

125
Q

The most common animal reservoir of EHEC is

A

Cattle

126
Q

What is the primary reason for conducting environmental sampling in a food processing facility during an outbreak investigation?

A

To identify potential sources and points of contamination

127
Q

The presence of five different outbreak-associated strains at a site indicates

A

Long term presence

128
Q

Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC) is biochemically, genetically, and pathogenetically closely related to

A

Shigella

129
Q

True or False. In the U.S., there is a zero-tolerance policy for Listeria monocytogenes in ready-to-eat foods.

A

True

130
Q

Which of the following conditions best promotes the growth and toxin production of Clostridium botulinum in food?

A

Low oxygen and low acidity

131
Q

Salmonellosis ranges clinically from the

A

1) enteric fevers
2) common gastroenteritis

132
Q

What is the primary toxic target of aflatoxins produced by mold species?

A

Hepatotoxicity

133
Q

Which mycotoxins can be passed through the milk of the animal?

A

Aflatoxin M1 and M2

134
Q

True or False. Mycotoxins (Aflatoxins, Ochratoxins, Patulin, Citrinin) are heat-stable toxins.

A

True

135
Q

What are key prevention strategies for Vibrio cholerae transmission?

A

1) Chlorination of drinking water
2) Cooking seafood thoroughly
3) Proper sanitation and hygiene practices

136
Q

What is the most common symptom of Vibrio cholerae infection?

A

Profuse rice-watery diarrhea

137
Q

Which of the following is a significant post-infection complication of Campylobacter jejuni?

A

GBS

138
Q

What are the health impacts of ochratoxin A contamination in food?

A

Nephrotoxicity

Carcinogenicity

Immune suppression

139
Q

What are the main conditions favoring mold growth?

A

Moderate temperatures
High humidity

140
Q

Which factors contribute to the survival of Vibrio species in the environment?

A

1) Presence in molluscan shellfish
2) Estuarine water conditions

141
Q

Which pH level is most suitable for mold growth?

A

2.0-4.5

142
Q

Which of the following foods is a common source of Vibrio infections?

A

Raw shellfish

143
Q

Which Vibrio species is associated with severe tissue necrosis and high mortality in septicemia cases?

A

Vibrio vulnificus

144
Q

Which symptom is most characteristic of Campylobacter infection?

A

Bloody diarrhea

145
Q

What is the main environmental factor that limits the survival of Campylobacter outside a host?

A

High oxygen levels

146
Q

Which species of Campylobacter are most commonly associated with foodborne outbreaks?

A

Campylobacter coli
Campylobacter jejuni

147
Q

There are 200 serogroups of Vibrio cholerae, but how many of those serogroups produce the toxins?

A

2

148
Q

True or False. Vibrio infection CAN be controlled through shellfish sanitation program.

A

False

149
Q

True or False. Up to 100% of poultry that makes it to the retail could be contaminated with Campylobacter

A

True

150
Q

What are signs of food spoilage from molds?

A

Slimy or mushy textures
Discoloration
Off-flavors and musty odors
Fuzzy growth

151
Q

Which virulence factors are associated with Vibrio parahaemolyticus?

A

TDH

152
Q

What is the primary benefit of using PCR over traditional culture methods for microbial detection?

A

It is faster and highly specific

153
Q

True or False. A blood stream infection by V. vulnificus has a high mortality rate (50%)

A

True

154
Q

True or False. Vibrio toxins are heat-stable.

A

False

155
Q

Which mold-produced toxin is a leading cause of liver cancer in areas with high dietary exposure?

A

Aflatoxin B1

156
Q

Which mycotoxins are associated with Nephrotoxicity?

A

Citrinin and Ochractoxins

157
Q

Which fungal genus is not associated with pathogenic mycotoxin production?

A

cladosporium

158
Q

Which enzyme activity is most likely to increase during fungal spoilage of fruits?

A

Pectinase activity

159
Q

Which detection method offers high specificity by amplifying microbial DNA?

A

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

160
Q

What are the virulence factors of Campylobacter jejuni?

A

Enterotoxin production

161
Q

Which genus is most associated with food spoilage under refrigeration?

A

Cladosporium

162
Q

Which of the following describe ochratoxin A’s mechanism of toxicity?

A

Disrupting mitochondrial function
Binding serum albumin
Inducing oxidative stress

163
Q

Which enzymes are involved in food spoilage by molds?

A

Amylases
Cellulases
Proteases

164
Q

What are the advantages of immunomagnetic separation (IMS)?

A

1) Concentration of target bacteria
2) Removal of non-specific targets

165
Q

What are the primary symptoms of acute aflatoxicosis?

A

Jaundice
Abdominal pain
Nausea and vomiting

166
Q

Which detection method is the fastest but requires a calibrated microscope?

A

DMC

167
Q

Which toxin produced by Vibrio cholerae is responsible for causing watery diarrhea?

A

Cholera toxin (CT)

168
Q

Cholera is an intestinal infection associated with:

A

1) Natural and man-made disasters
2) Overcrowding
3) Contamination of food during or after its preparation
4) Improper elimination of human waste

169
Q

Which symptoms are commonly associated with Vibrio vulnificus infections?

A

Skin lesions
Septicemia
Wound infections

170
Q

Which condition is ideal for Campylobacter growth?

A

Microaerophilic conditions and temperatures around 42°C

171
Q

What is the primary virulence mechanism of Vibrio cholerae that leads to dehydration?

A

Activation of adenylate cyclase by cholera toxin

172
Q

What is a typical outcome from long term exposure of consuming food contaminated with mycotoxins?

A

Cancer

173
Q

Which of the following is the primary risk associated with molds contaminating animal feed?

A

Introduction of mycotoxins into the food chain

174
Q

Which prevention strategies are recommended to reduce Vibrio infections from seafood?

A

1) Cooking shellfish thoroughly
2) Avoiding raw oysters during warm months

175
Q

Which of the following are common risk factors for mold growth on food?

A

Storage in warm, humid conditions
Inadequate drying before storage
High water activity

176
Q

Which species of Vibrio are most commonly associated with foodborne illness?

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Vibrio cholerae
Vibrio vulnificus

Food Microbio (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions