OFFICE OF THE FIRE MARSHAL and TRAINING Flashcards
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following is not an objective of a standardized reporting system for fire occurrence?
A) To provide uniform data to national agencies for the documenting of national fire occurrences B) To provide a set of minimum requirements for fire safety within and around existing buildings and facilities for emergency response
C) To provide information to measure the impact of fires, of fire prevention initiatives and to identify emerging trends or issues in fire occurrence
D) To provide for the collection of data required for understanding of the fire problem and as mandated by the FPPA
B) To provide a set of minimum requirements for fire safety within and around existing buildings and facilities for emergency response
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; an objective of a standardized reporting system for fire occurrence is provide uniform data at the municipal and provincial level that aims to:
A) Make the full extent of the fire and emergency problem known
B) Reveal facts that require action
C) Develop and administer codes and standards; and for fire prevention and fire protection research D) All of the Above
D) All of the Above
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; an ___________ is an incident that results in a fire department emergency response.
A) Alarm B) Occurrence
C) Event
D) Episode
B) Occurrence
T/F: According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; a fire or explosion occurrence is defined as any instance of destructive and uncontrolled burning, including explosion of combustible solids, liquids, or gases.
A) True
B) False
A) True
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following shall not be used as a ‘No Loss Outdoor Fire’:
A) For any fire where there was property loss, injury or death
B) For any fire where there was fire spread resulting in an exposure fire
C) For any fire where the fire department suspects that the fire was intentionally ignited or a result of children playing D) All of the above
D) All of the above
T/F: According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; the Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act (FIPPA) provides the public with the right of access to information that is collected by public institutions. However, this does not include data that is collected by fire departments.
A) True B) False
B) False
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; you are the Officer at an outdoor trash fire – with no loss, no injury, no fatality – but is suspected vandalism. The type of occurrence should be reported as:
A) 01 Fire or Explosion
B) 03 Outdoor fire/explosion
C) 23 Open air burning/unauthorized controlled burning
D) 33 Human – Malicious intent, prank
A) 01 Fire or Explosion
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; you are the Officer at an outdoor trash fire – with no loss, no exposure fire – caused by improperly discarded ignited material. The type of occurrence should be reported as:
A) 01 Fire or Explosion B) 03 Outdoor fire/explosion
C) 35 Human Accidental
D) 39 Other False Fire Call
B) 03 Outdoor fire/explosion
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; when a fire in a garage attached to a residence spreads to the residence, or a fire in a vehicle parked within a structure that spreads to the structure are not considered ‘exposure fires’ because:
A) The fire originates in a vehicle in the detached garage, it is a structure fire, with the first ignited object being the vehicle in the garage
B) The structure fire is not an exposure fire as the vehicle is viewed as the structure contents. The area of origin is the garage.
C) The fire originates in a vehicle in the attached garage, it is a structure fire, with the first ignited object being the vehicle D) Both B and C are correct
D) Both B and C are correct
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; you are the Officer at a rupture of a steam boiler due to internal pressure in the boiler. This incident is considered to be:
A) 02 Explosion B) 11 Over pressure Rupture
C) 29 Other pre fire conditions (no fire)
D) 39 Other False Fire Call
B) 11 Over pressure Rupture
T/F: According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; a fire or explosion occurrence is defined as any instance of destructive and uncontrolled burning, including explosion of combustible solids, liquids, or gases.
A) True
B) False
A) True
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; where an illegal operation is encountered, regardless of the nature of the initial call it shall be coded:
A) 922 Illegal drug operation (no fire) or 92 Assisting Police B) 921 Illegal grow operation (no fire) or 922 Illegal drug operation (no fire)
C) 921 Illegal grow operation (no fire) or 92 Assisting Police
D) 922 Illegal drug operation (no fire) or 59 Other Public Hazard
B) 921 Illegal grow operation (no fire) or 922 Illegal drug operation (no fire)
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following incidents would not be considered a rescue:
A) People trapped in an elevator B) People evacuated from an occurrence area for precautionary measures
C) Vehicle extrication
D) Water ice rescue
B) People evacuated from an occurrence area for precautionary measures
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following is incorrect regarding Application of Agent or Decision to Defer?
A) Report the time that the extinguishing agent is initially applied by the fire department to supress the fire B) Report the time using the 24 hour clock, record an estimate of the hour (0-23), minute (0-59), and second (0-59)
C) Report the time that the commanding officer makes a decision to defer the application of agent
D) Report the time using the 24 hour clock, record the exact hour (0-23), minute (0-59), and second (0-59)
B) Report the time using the 24 hour clock, record an estimate of the hour (0-23), minute (0-59), and second (0-59)
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; when would a Fire Under Control be reported? A) When the fire will not make further progress, no further resources will be required for fire attack, the fire is sufficiently surrounded and quenched that it no longer threatens further spread or destruction of additional property
B) When the fire will not make further progress, further resources will be required for fire attack, the fire is sufficiently surrounded and quenched that it no longer threatens further spread or destruction of additional property
C) When the fire’s progress has not been stopped, no further resources will be required for fire attack, the fire is sufficiently surrounded and quenched that it no longer threatens further spread or destruction of additional property
D) When the fire will not make further progress, further resources will be required for fire attack, the fire is not sufficiently surrounded and quenched, and threatens further spread or destruction of additional property
A) When the fire will not make further progress, no further resources will be required for fire attack, the fire is sufficiently surrounded and quenched that it no longer threatens further spread or destruction of additional property
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; you are the Officer at a call where a person smoking has fallen asleep which results in a couch fire. The code for fire ‘possible cause’ that should be used is:
A) Code 44 Unattended
B) Code 45 Improperly Discarded
C) Code 46 Used or Placed Too Close to Combustibles
D) Code 50 Other misuse of Ignition Source/Material Ignited
A) Code 44 Unattended
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following statements is correct when determining the estimated dollar loss.
A) The total revenue losses or costs involved to business interruption shall be added to the estimated loss
B) The property assessment value is an appropriate value for estimating loss C) The estimated dollar loss is the cost of actual damage to property and property contents, including open area losses
D) In accordance with Canadian insurance practices, damages and/or destruction of buildings, installed equipment and contents shall be estimated and reported at the original cost to purchase
C) The estimated dollar loss is the cost of actual damage to property and property contents, including open area losses
T/F: According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; a multi vehicle collision fire shall be considered an exposure fire. Total exposures should be the number of vehicles, and exposure reports are required for each additional vehicle.
A) True B) False
B) False
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following is not considered a fire injury?
A) A person injured as a direct result of a fire/explosion (burns, asphyxia) B) A person injured by fire/explosion which results from an accidental vehicle collision (burns, asphyxia)
C) A person injured that was caused by escaping the fire explosion (jumps from third floor, falls down a stairwell)
D) A person injured as a result of destruction caused by the fire/explosion (wall falls, roof collapse, projectiles hurled)
B) A person injured by fire/explosion which results from an accidental vehicle collision (burns, asphyxia)
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following statements regarding civilian fire deaths is correct?
A) One injury form can encompass multiple fatalities
B) In all instances, death must occur within 30 days of the incident to be classified as a fire death C) Includes a person who is known to have committed suicide by fire or explosion
D) An Incident Report and Injury Report is not required for injuries and fatalities when the OFM investigation is conducted
C) Includes a person who is known to have committed suicide by fire or explosion
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; once the first in apparatus provides their initial radio report and assumes command, knowing that the senior officers and C73, C74 will report directly to the scene, how should the remaining dispatched firefighting apparatus respond?
A) The next truck only responds directly to the scene B) The next two trucks respond directly to the scene
C) All trucks report directly to the scene
D) None of the above
B) The next two trucks respond directly to the scene
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; what does ‘staged’ mean?
A) Units stage in the direction of travel, committed to a hydrant, approximately 50 metres from the scene B) Units stage in the direction of travel, uncommitted, approximately 60 metres from the scene
C) Units stage in the direction of travel, uncommitted, approximately 90 metres from the scene
D) Units stage in the direction of travel, committed to a hydrant, approximately 60 metres from the scene
B) Units stage in the direction of travel, uncommitted, approximately 60 metres from the scene
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; a timely and efficient means of air replacement and rehydration of companies assigned to a Sector or Division is known as ____________.
A) Rehabilitation
B) Air Management C) Recycling
D) Medical
C) Recycling
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; a formal assignment where members decontaminate prior to entry and are medically evaluated before being rehydrated and replenished is known as _________________.
A) Rehabilitation
B) Air Management
C) Recycling
D) Medical
A) Rehabilitation
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; a _______ _________ involves using either the deck gun mounted on top of the engine, a 2 ½-inch handline, or a ground monitor to attack a fire.
A) Quick Hit
B) Master Stream C) Blitz Attack
D) Indirect Attack
C) Blitz Attack
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; a _____ ______ is an application of water from an exterior hoseline (not a master stream device) as a straight stream to the ceiling above a fire.
A) Quick Hit
B) Master Stream
C) Blitz Attack
D) Direct Attack
A) Quick Hit
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; which of the following statements about quick hits is incorrect?
A) Using a quick hit should be considered when an exterior flow of water would be faster than attempting to reach the fire from the inside B) A quick hit essentially is an offensive attack in which we are sending all our water at once onto the seat of the fire
C) A quick hit does not mean that an interior attack is eliminated
D) A quick hit is a tactic to help facilitate an aggressive interior attack. It will cool the room, limit fire growth and increase victim survivability in the structure
B) A quick hit essentially is an offensive attack in which we are sending all our water at once onto the seat of the fire
According to the 2023 Captain Preparation Introduction presentation; which of the following statements about report writing is incorrect?
A) Notes are taken in chronological order following the sequence of the event and includes all pertinent information related to report
B) Notes are factual and should be comprehensive C) Notes with statements or words that refer to derogatory language, contain sarcasm, or opinions are acceptable
D) Notes are completed as incident / events occur and reports completed immediately following the incident
C) Notes with statements or words that refer to derogatory language, contain sarcasm, or opinions are acceptable
According to the 2023 Captain Preparation Introduction presentation; you are writing your report after an alarm, what should be included in your report summary?
A) Provide appropriate detail, ongoing patient care – be specific on actions or care being provided, for Incident reports short forms or abbreviations of words is acceptable B) Include your size up in summary, detail your actions, indicate probable cause
C) Detail your actions, indicate if Police or EMS were on scene, provide your opinion as to what happened
D) None of the above
B) Include your size up in summary, detail your actions, indicate probable cause
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; there are a number of reasons to complete a 360 of the building prior to entry. Which of the following statements contain correct reasons for completing a 360?
A) View the fire’s size, location, and extent, identify hydrant location, ventilation profile of the structure (Identify flow paths)
B) Confirm the structure has a basement and if so, what type, confirmation of the initial strategy, determine accountability location C) View the fire’s size, location, and extent, identify life safety / rescue requirements, determine safest, most appropriate attack position
D) View the fire’s size, location, and extent, confirmation of the initial strategy, determine accountability location
C) View the fire’s size, location, and extent, identify life safety / rescue requirements, determine safest, most appropriate attack position
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; the primary reason to complete a 360 on residential occupancies is to identify:
A) Immediate life safety issues
B) Determine roof type and dead loads on the roof
C) Identify locations for master stream devices
D) Determine exposures
A) Immediate life safety issues
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; there are times where you may not be able to complete a 360 of a structure. Which of the following are reasons to not complete a 360.
A) Immediate Life Safety Need – Rescue of the Alpha, Bravo, Delta side
B) Fire has breached the roof
C) Wires down D) Both A and C are Correct
D) Both A and C are Correct