Oesophagus Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. Which is the most commonly affected site in systemic sclerosis after the oesophagus?

a. Small bowel

b. Colon

c. Stomach

d. Anorectal

e. Oropharynx

A

d. Anorectal

Esophagus is most frequently affected (75-90%) followed by ano-rectum (50-70%), small bowel (40%) and colon (10-50%). The stomach is the least affected in the GIT.

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2
Q

Which of the following are CT criteria for T3 rather than T2 oesophageal cancers?

A. Transmural enhancement

B. Focal wall thickening measuring 14mm

C. A few <1⁄3 small linear strands of soft tissue extending in to fat planes

D. Depth of 11mm

E. Slight stenosis

A

D. Depth of 11mm

T3 disease usually involves a large tumour more than 10mm in depth where > 1⁄3 tumour extension or a blurred fat plane around the lesion is associated with moderate/severe stenosis.

Focal wall thickening of 5-15mm is still T2 disease.

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3
Q

Which of the following represent a case of oesophageal pouch in the lower 1⁄3 of the oesophagus?

A. Intraluminal diverticulosis

B. Defect through Killian-Jamieson space

C. Mucosal tear/Mallory-Weiss

D. Zenker’s diverticulosis

E. Traction following treatment for TB

A

C. Mucosal tear/Mallory-Weiss

Mucosal tears from Mallory-Weiss syndrome or post-endoscopy are typically in lower 1⁄3 of the oesophagus.

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4
Q
  1. A 46-year-old woman with a multisystem disorder presents with dysphagia and heartburn. Barium swallow reveals a dilated oesophagus with aperistalsis of the lower two-thirds of the oesophagus, a patulous lower oesophageal sphincter and gastro-oesophageal reflux. Which other organ system is most likely to be affected?

A. respiratory

B. cardiovascular

C. skin

D. central nervous

E. renal

A

C. skin

The patient is suffering from systemic sclerosis, a multisystem connective tissue disorder of unknown etiology, classified by extent of skin involvement and overlap with other autoimmune disorders.

The skin is the most commonly involved organ, demonstrating thickening, atrophic changes and fibrosis.

The gastrointestinal system is the next most commonly affected, with around 50% of patients having symptomatic disease.

The oesophagus is most frequently involved, with fibrosis of the circular layer of smooth muscle resulting in a dilated oesophagus with absent or reduced peristalsis in the lower two-thirds.

The lower oesophageal sphincter is wide, in contrast to the tapered narrowing seen in achalasia.

Patients suffer from reflux that predisposes to Barrett’s oesophagus and distal strictures.

The cardiovascular, respiratory, central nervous and renal systems may all be affected in systemic sclerosis, though less commonly than the skin and gastrointestinal systems.

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5
Q

A 65-year-old man undergoes endoscopy for dysphagia, during which an ulcerated mass is seen in the distal oesophagus. Biopsy confirms oesophageal adenocarcinoma. What is the most accurate imaging modality for local staging of oesophageal cancer?

A. endoscopic ultrasound

B. CT

C. 18FDG PET/CT

D. MRI

E. barium swallow

A

A. endoscopic ultrasound

CT is the most commonly used imaging investigation for staging of oesophageal cancer. However, the overall accuracy of T staging is poor, particularly with T1 and T2 tumours, and CT also tends to overestimate tumour length.

Endoscopic ultrasound scan is the most accurate imaging method for local staging, but is limited in its assessment of nodal and metastatic disease.

18FDG PET/CT is useful in evaluation of nodal and metastatic disease, particularly in patients being considered for surgical resection, but has limited resolution for T staging and often fails to demonstrate T1 lesions.

MR is useful I characterization of indeterminate liver lesions seen on CT.

Barium swallow is not used in the staging of oesophageal cancer.

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6
Q
  1. A 23-year-old man with dysphagia undergoes a double-contrast barium swallow, which demonstrates a smooth, well-defined, 12 cm submucosal lesion in the distal oesophagus causing deformity of the lumen. CT demonstrates coarse calcification within the mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. oesophageal lipoma

B. oesophageal duplication cyst

C. oesophageal carcinoma

D. oesophageal varices

E. oesophageal leiomyoma

A

E. oesophageal leiomyoma

Leiomyomas are benign tumours of smooth muscle, and represent the most common benign neoplasm of the oesophagus. They are often asymptomatic but may present with dysphagia and rarely hematemesis.

They appear on barium swallow as large, well-defined, intramural masses causing luminal deformity.

A characteristic finding is of coarse calcifications – leiomyoma is the only calcifying oesophageal tumour.

Oesophageal lipomas and duplication cysts also appear as well-defined submucosal lesions (of fat and of water density respectively on CT), but are less common, and internal calcification is not a feature.

Oesophageal carcinoma usually appears as an irregular ulcerated stricture.

Oesophageal varices are seen as serpiginous filling defects.

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7
Q
  1. A 70-year-old man with a history of several months of dysphagia undergoes double-contrast barium swallow. This demonstrates a moderately dilated oesophagus with reduced peristalsis and smooth tapering of the distal oesophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. primary achalasia

B. gastric carcinoma

C. scleroderma

D. oesophageal carcinoma

E. presbyoesophagus

A

B. gastric carcinoma

Primary achalasia is an abnormality of the myenteric plexus resulting in reduced or absent peristalsis and failure of relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter. The oesophagus is typically markedly dilated with absent primary peristalsis and a smooth tapered narrowing at the contracted lower oesophageal sphincter. It usually presents in young adults with long-standing dysphagia.

In contrast, secondary achalasia due to malignancy usually presents in older patients with a short duration of dysphagia. Decreased peristalsis and distal oesophageal tapering in these patients result from tumour infiltration of the myenteric plexus of the distal oesophagus by gastric carcinoma, lymphoma or metastatic disease.

Distal oesophageal carcinoma tends to give rise to irregular, asymmetrical narrowing.

Scleroderma typically appears as a dilated esophagus with a patulous lower oesophageal sphincter.

Presbyoesophagus is a disorder of oesophageal motility, characterized by oesophageal dilatation and repetitive, non-peristaltic, tertiary contractions in the distal oesophagus.

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8
Q
  1. A 56-year-old man presents acutely with chest pain after a night out. On examination he is febrile, tachycardic and hypotensive. Chest radiograph demonstrates extensive pneumomediastinum, with left pleural effusion and left lower lobe atelectasis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. acute pulmonary embolism

B. spontaneous oesophageal rupture

C. aortic dissection

D. lobar pneumonia

E. acute pancreatitis

A

B. spontaneous oesophageal rupture

Iatrogenic injury is the most common cause of oesophageal rupture, but, in 15% of cases, rupture is spontaneous and occurs during vomiting (Boerhaave’s syndrome). Patients present with pain and dysphagia, and rapidly develop sepsis. Characteristic chest radiograph findings are of extensive pneumomediastinum and subcutaneous emphysema, pleural effusion or hydropneumothorax, and left lower lobe atelectasis. Widening of the mediastinum may accompany the development of mediastinitis. Pleural effusion and atelectasis may be seen in acute pulmonary embolism, acute pancreatitis and aortic dissection, but pneumomediastinum is not a recognized feature of these conditions. Other common causes of pneumomediastinum include asthma, chest trauma and perforation of a hollow viscus with extension of gas via the retroperitoneum.

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9
Q
  1. A 26-year-old man known to have AIDS presents with a 2-week history of difficult and painful swallowing. He undergoes double-contrast barium examination of the oesophagus, which demonstrates multiple, small, superficial, round ulcers in the mid-oesophagus. The intervening mucosa is normal and no plaques are seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. HIV esophagitis

B. cytomegalovirus esophagitis

C. reflux esophagitis

D. candida esophagitis

E. herpes simplex esophagitis

A

E. herpes simplex esophagitis

Candida esophagitis is the commonest cause of infectious esophagitis and is particularly seen in immunosuppressed individuals. It is frequently associated with oral thrush. It tends to affect the upper half of the oesophagus, and typical appearances are of linear, longitudinally oriented filling defects representing heaped-up areas of mucosal plaques consisting of necrotic debris and fungal colonies.

In contrast, a normal intervening mucosa in esophagitis is suggestive of a viral aetiology.

Findings in cytomegalovirus and HIV esophagitis are similar, with typical appearances of one or more large flat ulcers seen in the distal oesophagus. Distinction between the two is made by brushings or biopsy at endoscopy.

In herpes simplex infection, the typical features of multiple, small, superficial ulcers are similar at all sites of potential involvement, including the oesophagus, oral cavity, rectum and anus.

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10
Q
  1. A 45-year-old man undergoes barium swallow for dysphagia, which demonstrates multiple flask-shaped outpouchings of barium arranged in longitudinal rows paralleling the long axis of the oesophagus. Which of the following is a commonly associated condition?

A. scleroderma

B. rheumatoid arthritis

C. chronic obstructive airway disease

D. AIDS

E. diabetes

A

E. diabetes

Oesophageal intramural pseudo diverticulosis is a condition causing dilatation of the ducts of the submucosal glands of the oesophagus. These appear on barium meal as multiple, tiny, flask-shaped collections of barium arranged in longitudinal rows. They may appear to ‘float’ outside the oesophagus, as the connection to the lumen may not be appreciated. Associated strictures in the distal oesophagus are common. The condition is commonly associated with diabetes and chronic alcoholism, but may also occur with severe esophagitis of any cause. Candida may be cultured in around half the cases, but this may be a secondary infection due to stasis of secretions within the glands.

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11
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of varices affecting the upper third of the oesophagus?

A. portal hypertension due to cirrhosis

B. splenic vein thrombosis

C. inferior vena caval obstruction

D. superior vena caval obstruction

E. hepatic vein obstruction

A

D. superior vena caval obstruction

Oesophageal varices are dilated submucosal veins, which may be classified by their direction of flow as uphill or downhill varices.

Uphill varices occur in the lower esophagus and represent collateral blood flow conveying portal venous blood to treasons vein. They usually result from portal hypertension due to liver cirrhosis, but may also occur with splenic vein thrombosis, and obstruction of the hepatic veins or IVC.

Downhill varices result from obstruction of the SVC.

If it is obstructed superior to the entry of the azygos vein, varices will be confined to the upper third of the oesophagus.

If the SVC is obstructed below the entry of the azygos vein, the varices convey all of the systemic venous blood from the upper half of the body into the portal vein and IVC, and they will run the entire length of the oesophagus.

SVC obstruction is most commonly due to lung cancer or lymphoma.

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12
Q
  1. A 76-year-old woman presents with dysphagia and regurgitation of undigested food. She undergoes barium swallow, which demonstrates a barium-filled pouch extending from the posterior oesophageal wall at the level of C5–6 that is causing oesophageal compression. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. intramural pseudodiverticulum

B. Epiphrenic diverticulum

C. lateral pharyngeal diverticulum

D. interbronchial diverticulum

E. Zenker’s diverticulum

A

E. Zenker’s diverticulum

A Zenker’s diverticulum is a herniation of the mucosa and submucosa through the midline of the posterior oesophageal wall at cleavage plane between the oblique and transverse fibres of cricopharyngeus (Killian’s dehiscence) at the level of C5–6.
The diverticulum is narrow necked and extends caudally, resulting in trapping of undigested food and compression of the adjacent oesophagus.

Epiphrenic diverticula are rare, usually occurring on the right lateral wall of the distal oesophagus in association with hiatus hernia.

Lateral pharyngeal diverticula are herniations of pharyngeal mucosa through the lateral pharyngeal wall, which occur most commonly in wind instrument players, reflecting increased intrapharyngeal pressure.

An interbronchial diverticulum is a traction diverticulum that occurs in the interbronchial segment of the oesophagus in response to adjacent fibrous adhesions following lymph-node infection (usually tuberculous).

Intramural pseudodiverticula represent dilated excretory ducts of mucosal glands, which appear as multiple flask-shaped outpouchings and are commonly seen in association with candidiasis.

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13
Q
  1. A 68-year-old man undergoes barium swallow for dysphagia. During the examination the patient has an episode of coughing, and barium is noted to enter the larynx and proximal trachea. What is the appropriate management?

A. no action needed

B. physiotherapy

C. prophylactic antibiotics

D. chest radiograph in 48 hours

E. admission to hospital for observation

A

B. physiotherapy

Barium aspiration is a recognized complication of barium swallow, and may occur particularly in patients with swallowing disorders or recent oesophageal surgery. It is usually clinically insignificant, but complications have been reported, especially with aspiration of larger amounts of barium, and include pneumonitis and granuloma formation. Physiotherapy is the only treatment recommended. Of the water-soluble contrast agents, Gastrograffin (ionic and hyperosmolar) may cause pulmonary oedema if aspirated. Gastromiro (non-ionic and iso-osmolar) is safe to use if aspiration is a significant possibility

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14
Q
  1. Which structure marks the transition from squamous oesophageal to columnar gastric epithelium?

A. A-ring

B. B-ring

C. Z-line

D. oesophageal vestibule

E. gastro-oesophageal junction

A

C. Z-line

The transition from squamous oesophageal epithelium to columnar gastric epithelium is marked by the Z-line, an irregular zigzag line. It is not a reliable indicator of the gastrooesophageal junction, however, and may lie some distance above it if there is columnar transformation of the distal oesophagus, as seen in Barrett’s oesophagus. The gastrooesophageal junction may be identified by a thin, shelf-like ring known as the B-ring. It is visible on barium swallow only when the gastro-oesophageal junction lies above the diaphragmatic hiatus. Approximately 2–4&hairsp; cm above this is a thicker ring produced by active muscle contraction known as the A-ring. The oesophageal vestibule is the saccular termination of the lower oesophagus, which lies between the A-ring and the B-ring, and corresponds with the lower oesophageal sphincter.

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15
Q

@# 12. At endoscopic ultrasound scan for staging of an oesophageal carcinoma, the tumour is seen extending into the hypoechoic fourth layer of the oesophagus but not beyond this. What is the T staging of the tumour?

A. Tis

B. T1

C. T2

D. T3

E. T4

A

C. T2

Endoscopic ultrasound is the most accurate method for local staging of oesophageal cancer.

At endoscopic ultrasound, the oesophageal wall appears as five distinct alternating hyperechoic and hypoechoic bands that correspond to the histological layers of the oesophagus.

The innermost hyperechoic layer represents the interface between the lumen and the mucosa.

The hypoechoic second layer is a hypoechoic band that represents the muscularis mucosa.

The third layer is a hyperechoic band that represents the submucosa.

The fourth layer is a hypoechoic band that represents the muscularispropria.

The fifth outermost layer is a hyperechoic band that represents the oesophageal adventitia.

The fifth layer in the stomach, duodenum and rectum represents the serosa.

For oesophageal cancer, T1 tumours invade the lamina propria or submucosa.

T2tumours invade the muscularis propria,

T3 tumours invade the adventitia

and T4tumours invade adjacent tissue.

Tis represents carcinoma in situ.

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16
Q
  1. A 47-year-old woman with dysphagia undergoes barium swallow, which demonstrates a persistent smooth posterior bulge at the pharyngo-oesophageal junction at the level of C5–6 with mild proximal pharyngeal dilatation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. normal findings

B. impaired cricopharyngeus relaxation

C. pharyngeal web

D. anterior cervical osteophytes

E. thyroid enlargement

A

B. impaired cricopharyngeus relaxation

Impaired cricopharyngeus relaxation (or cricopharyngeal achalasia) is hypertrophy of the cricopharyngeus muscle with failure of relaxation. It is seen in up to 10% of asymptomatic adults as a normal variant, as a compensatory mechanism in gastro oesophageal reflux, and in association with a range of neuromuscular disorders. It appears on barium swallow as a smooth, shelf-like posterior projection at the level ofC5–6 that persists during a swallow. In severe cases, it may result in functional obstruction or overflow aspiration. Symptomatic patients may be treated by cricopharyngeal myotomy. Pharyngeal webs are thin, anterior, shelf-like protrusions into the cervical oesophagus. They are frequent incidental findings but occasionally cause dysphagia. There is an association with Plummer–Vinson syndrome. Anterior osteophytes may cause an indentation of the posterior oesophagus, but these are usually asymptomatic. Thyroid enlargement may cause a smooth impression on the lateral wall of the oesophagus.

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17
Q

10 A young man presents to severe central chest pain following episode of vomiting. On questioning he reports that he has been drinking alcohol the night before. The CT shows an eccentric hyperattenuating mass within the wall of the oesophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Mallory-Weiss tear

(b) Intramural oesophageal dissection

(c) Boerhaave syndrome

(d) Transmural perforation

(e) Intramural hematoma

A

(e) Intramural hematoma

The CT features indicate an intramural haematoma. Such patients often have a history of instrumentation, vomiting or food impaction and present with sudden onset pain, dysphagia or odynophagia. Haematemesis tends to occur later in the clinical course. Mallory-Weise tear is a longitudinal mucosal laceration at the gastro-osophageal junction. Dissection gives a double-barreled -appearance of the lumen due to mucosal flap. Options (c) and (d) are full-thickness injuries and demonstrates mediastinal air or fluid on CT.

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18
Q

A 58-year-old lady is referred for staging of a carcinoma in the middle third of the oesophagus. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) Lymphatic drainage is likely to be via the upper abdominal lymph nodes

(b) A PET study can reliably exclude the presence of involved loco-regional nodes

(c) EUS is superior to PET-CT in the evaluation of loco-regional lymph nodes

(d) Following treatment, EUS most commonly under-stages residual disease.

(e) The adrenal glands are the commonest site Of metastatic disease

A

(c) EUS is superior to PET-CT in the evaluation of loco-regional lymph nodes

The upper and middle thirds of the oesophagus usually drain superiorly. Local staging is best performed with endoscopic US. PET-CT is the most accurate modality for distant lymph nodes or metastases but the intense uptake of the primary tumour may obscure local nodes. Following treatment, it is difficult to distinguish fibrosis from active tumour at EUS; PET is more accurate in this circumstance. The most common sites of metastases are, in order, liver, lungs bones and adrenal glands.

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19
Q

13 The junction of the squamous and columnar epithelium, the barium swallow, is given what term?

(a) A-ring

(b) B-ring

(c) Schatzki ring

(d) Barrett’s line

(e) Z-line

A

(e) Z-line

The A-ring is transient and muscular. The B- or Schatzki ring is a fixed mucosal/ muscular ring which may cause dysphagia or obstruction. Barrett’s stricture a complication of GE reflux disease and is premalignant.

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20
Q

7.A 42-year-old undergoes a barium swallow. This shows hold up of contrast medium in the lower oesophagus resolves completely when the patient is given a cup of hot water. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Oesophageal varices

(b) Diffuse oesophageal spasm

(c) Presbyoesophagus

(d) Primary achalasia

(e) Intramural diverticulosis

A

(d) Primary achalasia

Patients often report that hot drinks provide relief in achalasia. On imaging, sphincter relaxes and oesophagus is seen clear.

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21
Q

17.A 46-year-old presents dysphagia and weight loss. He is noted to have hyperkeratosis of the palms and soles. Barium small shows a malignant stricture of the mid oesophagus. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

(a) Dermatomyositis

(b) Epidermolysis bullosa

(c) Pemphigus vulgaris

(d) Scleroderma

(e) Tylosis

A

(e) Tylosis

Tylosis is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by thickening (hyperkeratosis) of the palms and soles, oral leukoplakia, and SCC of the oesophagus (in 95 % by 70 yrs). Epidermolysis bullosa has a high association with SCC of the skin, there are rare case reports of associated oesophageal cancer. Pemphigus has a rare paraneoplastic form, typically associated with lymphoma. Dermatomyositis has a high association with various internal malignancies, in such cases it is thought to be a ‘paraneoplastic’ phenomenon, indicating the presence of cancer. Scleroderma results in oesophageal dysmotility, predisposing to reflux and increasing the risk of oesophageal cancer.

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22
Q

21.A patient a primary oesophageal tumour undergoes a PET.CT study using 18FDG before and after receiving 1 course of chemotherapy. In order to achieve a partial response, by how much does the standardized uptake value (SUV) need to fall between these 2 studies?

(a) 10 %

(b) 15 %

(c) 20 %

(d) 25 %

(e) 50%

A

(b) 15 %

The EORTC define a partial response as a 15% reduction at 1 cycle or 25% reduction at 2 or more cycles. Progressive disease is a 15% increase after 1 cycle or 25% after 2 or more cycles.

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23
Q

22.A 47-year-old woman undergoes a barium swallow. It is reported to show a diverticulum in the mid-oesophagus. What is the most likely etiology?

(a) Structural defect

(b) Pulsion

(c) Traction

(d) Reflux

(e) Achalasia

A

(c) Traction

In the upper oesophagus, a pharyngeal pouch may be seen as a structural defect. In the mid-oesophagus, traction from adjacent mediastinal or pulmonary fibrosis is most common, whereas pulsion causes lower-third diverticula.

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24
Q

A 47-year-old attends for a barium swallow. This shows a lacelike pattern in the oesophagus above a lax lower oesophageal sphincter. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Barrett’s oesophagus

(b) Oesophageal varices

(c) Oesophageal carcinoma

(d) Oesophageal candidiasis

(e) Normal oesophageal mucosa

A

(a) Barrett’s oesophagus

Barrett’s oesophagus is dysplasia of the lower oesophageal mucosa as a consequence of chronic gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. It is a premalignant condition and patients are usually enrolled in a surveillance program.

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25
Q
  1. With regard to squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus, which of the following statements is not true?

(a) It is associated with alcohol ingestion

(b) It most commonly occurs in the middle third of the oesophagus

(c) It is common in Afro-Carribean population

(d) It is associated with smoking

(e) It is more common in women

A

(e) It is more common in women

It is most commonly seen (50% cases) in the middle third, between the aortic arch and the inferior pulmonary vein. Smoking and alcohol are the major risk factors and appear to have a synergistic effect in increasing incidence. It is more commonly seen in men.

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26
Q
  1. A 71 year old female with scleroderma undergoes a barium swallow examination. Which one of the following findings concerning the oesophagus would not be consistent with this diagnosis?

a. Oesophageal dilatation

b. Superficial ulcers

c. Hypoperistalsis in the upper third of the oesophagus

d. Stricture 5 cm above the gastro-oesophageal junction

e. Oesophageal shortening

A
  1. c. Hypoperistalsis in the upper third of the oesophagus

The oesophagus is the most commonly involved location of the gastro-intestinal tract in patients with scleroderma. Smooth muscle atrophy causes hypoperistalsis and eventually aperistalsis in the lower two-thirds of the oesophagus. The upper third of the oesophageal wall contains skeletal muscle and is therefore unaffected by the disease process.

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27
Q
  1. A 32 year old male is referred for a barium swallow by his GP due to dysphagia resistant to medical treatment. A smooth, lobulated, eccentric mass is seen in the middle third of the oesophagus containing foci of calcification. The diagnosis is most likely to be which one of the following?

a. Leiomyoma

b. Squamous cell carcinoma

c. Adenocarcinoma

d. Oesophageal web

e. Intramural pseudo diverticulosis

A
  1. a. Leiomyoma

Oesophageal leiomyoma is the most common benign submucosal tumour of the oesophagus, typically occurring in young men. The classical features of oesophageal leiomyoma include a smooth intramural mass in the lower or middle third of the oesophagus with intact overlying mucosa. It is the only tumour of the oesophagus that calcifies, although calcification is rare.

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28
Q
  1. A 67 year old man is referred for a barium swallow from the surgical outpatient department with a history of dysphagia to solids. A mid-oesophageal stricture is demonstrated. Which one of the following causes is unlikely to be in the differential?

a. Barrett’s oesophagus

b. Squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus

c. Schatzki ring

d. Caustic substance ingestion

e. Epidermolysis bullosa

A
  1. c. Schatzki ring

All are reasonable differentials for a mid-oesophageal stricture, albeit with varying degrees of frequency, with the exception of a Schatzki ring which is found in the lower oesophagus. It occurs near the squamocolumnar junction and is associated with reflux. It is non-distensible and best seen in the prone position on barium swallow examinations. Schatzki rings are often asymptomatic, but oesophageal dilatation may be required where dysphagia is severe.

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29
Q
  1. A 51 year old male patient has a barium swallow for the investigation of dysphagia. This shows a 10 cm tapered stricture in the mid oesophagus along with multiple fine linear projections perpendicular to the lumen, each 3–4mm long, in this segment. There are occasional 3ry contractions & mild GE reflux. What is diagnosis?

a. Chagas disease

b. Oesophageal intramural pseudo diverticulosis

c. Oesophageal varices

d. Cytomegalovirus infection

e. Oesophageal carcinoma

A
  1. b. Oesophageal intramural pseudo diverticulosis

Oesophageal intramural diverticulosis relates to dilated excretory ducts of the deep mucous glands of the oesophagus. They are best demonstrated on barium swallow and have the classical appearance as described in the question. The pseudodiverticular can appear to float outside the oesophagus when no communication with the lumen is seen. Most patients have dysphagia at presentation and associated conditions include diabetes, candida infection, esophagitis, stricture and alcohol abuse.

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30
Q
  1. A 29-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of dysphagia, associated with retrosternal pain. A barium swallow demonstrates a markedly dilated oesophagus containing food debris. There is a smooth narrowing of the distal oesophagus with barium intermittently spurting into the stomach. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Oesophageal achalasia

B Oesophageal leiomyoma

C Paraoesophageal hiatus hernia.

D Peptic oesophageal stricture

E Squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus

A

A Oesophageal achalasia

Clinical features of oesophageal achalasia also include relief of retrosternal pain with carbonated and hot drinks (relaxes the lower oesophageal sphincter).

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31
Q
  1. A 49-year-old man presents to his GP with increasing dysphagia and weight loss. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals a tumour in the distal oesophagus and biopsies confirm oesophageal adenocarcinoma. The patient undergoes a contrast-enhanced CT of the chest and abdomen which shows mucosal thickening in the distal oesophagus but no other abnormality. An endoscopic ultrasound is performed and shows that the tumour infiltrates through the muscularis propria and adventitia but does not extend beyond the serosa. A round 13-mm peritumoral node is noted. From this information, what is the TNM staging of this tumour?

A T2 NO MO

B T2 N1 MO

C T3 NO MO

D T3 N1 MO

E T4 N1 MO

A

D T3 N1 MO

In oesophageal cancer, Tl tumours are limited to the mucosa only, T2tumours invade the muscularis propria and T3 lesions extend into the adventitia. T4 lesions breach the serosal surface and can invade mediastinal

32
Q
  1. A 52-year-old man undergoes a thoracic abdominal esophagectomy for squamous cell carcinoma of the mid oesophagus. The patient has an uncomplicated postoperative recovery and is discharged home. Four weeks later, a chest radiograph is performed. Which one finding would be unexpected on this chest radiograph?

A Absence of right 5th rib posteriorly

B Retrocardiac air: fluid level

C Right paramediastinal soft tissue density mass

D Moderate left hydropneumothorax

E Vertical staple line in the mediastinum

A

D Moderate left hydropneumothorax

Oesophagectomy may be performed by a trans hiatal approach or by thoracotomy, depending on the location of the tumour and condition of the patient (a posterior rib resection is a useful radiographic clue). In this patient, it is likely that a ‘neo-oesophagus’ has been formed by anastomosing the esophageal remnant with the stomach in the upper chest. The neo-oesophagus will appear as a paramediastinal soft tissue density mass on plain radiographs and may contain an air fluid level. Presence of a hydropneumothorax at this stage suggests anastomotic leakage and is a significant abnormal finding.

33
Q
  1. A 52-year-old man has a 3-year history of dysphagia and heartburn. There is no history of hematemesis and the patient’s weight is stable. A barium swallow is performed and demonstrates a smooth narrowing of the mid-oesophagus. Small, saccular projections of barium are seen at the level of the stricture, extending perpendicular to the oesophagus. What is the cause of this appearance?

A Aphthous ulceration

B Candida albicans plaques

C Epiphrenic pulsion diverticulae

D Infiltration by adjacent non-small cell lung cancer

E Intramural pseudo diverticulosis

A

E Intramural pseudo diverticulosis

This rare condition is secondary to chronic inflammation causing dilated excretory ducts (‘flask shaped’ projections of barium) in the oesophageal wall.

34
Q
  1. A 45-year-old man undergoes an upper GI endoscopy following a 2-monthhistory of weight loss and dysphagia to solids. The endoscopy demonstrates a tumour in the mid-oesophagus and biopsies confirm a squamous cell carcinoma. An endoscopic ultrasound is subsequently performed and demonstrates a hypoechoic tumour mass in the anterior aspect of the mid oesophagus. The tumour is seen to infiltrate the muscularis propria and extends beyond the serosal surface of the oesophagus. Which structure is most at risk of direct invasion by this oesophageal tumour?

A Azygos vein

B Left lobe of liver

C Left main bronchus

D Right diaphragmatic crus

E Right ventricle

A

C Left main bronchus

The mid-oesophagus has the heart, pericardium and left main bronchus as its key anterior relations.

35
Q
  1. A 49-year-old woman has experienced increasing difficulty swallowing over the past 6 months, with associated retrosternal discomfort. A barium swallow is performed and demonstrates virtually no peristaltic activity within adulated oesophagus. The gastro-oesophageal junction appears widened and there is marked reflux of barium when the patient lies supine. An upper GI endoscopy shows moderate reflux esophagitis. Given these findings, what is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

A Achalasia

B Oesophageal web

C Presbyoesophagus

D Scleroderma

E Squamous cell carcinoma of oesophagus

A

D Scleroderma

The oesophagus is the most commonly involved part of the GI system in scleroderma. Oesophageal strictures can develop due to the severe reflux.

36
Q
  1. A 32-year-old female patient attends for a barium swallow with a history of a sensation of food sticking in her throat. The barium swallow reveals uniform horizontally orientated folds in the lower oesophagus. There is a change in the texture of the mucosa 1 cm above the hiatus, which is sited 25cm from the origin of the oesophagus. There is a slight smooth narrowing noted 2 cm above the hiatus, beyond which there is a slight dilatation of oesophagus prior to it joining stomach. Which of following is an unusual finding?

A. The appearance of the oesophageal folds.

B. The change in mucosal appearance 1 cm above the hiatus.

C. The distance of the hiatus from the origin of the oesophagus.

D. The slight narrowing 2 cm above the hiatus.

E. The distal bulge just before the stomach.

A
  1. A. The appearance of the oesophageal folds.

The oesophageal folds are normally longitudinally orientated. Horizontally orientated folds are described as feline oesophagus. The change in mucosal appearance is the normal Z line – the squamo-columnar junction. The narrowing described is the A line at the origin of the vestibule of the distal oesophagus. The position of the hiatus is normally stated as being 40 cm. This is the distance from the teeth at gastroscopy –distance from the origin of the oesophagus is 25 cm.

37
Q
  1. A 55-year-old man presents with dysphagia. He gives no history of weight loss and investigations reveal a normal full blood picture. He is referred for a barium swallow, which reveals a long stricture (several centimeters) in the mid to distal oesophagus with a fine reticular pattern adjacent to the distal aspect of the stricture and distal oesophageal widening. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Reflux esophagitis.

B. Candidiasis.

C. Barrett’s oesophagus.

D. Oesophageal adenocarcinoma.

E. Hiatus hernia.

A
  1. C. Barrett’s oesophagus.

This represents progressive columnar metaplasia of the distal oesophagus secondary to reflux esophagitis. It is a premalignant condition associated with an increased risk of adenocarcinoma, 40-fold that of the general population. Strictures are more common in the distal, then mid-oesophagus, rather than the classically described proximal third. The typical finding is of 1-cmlongstrictures or ulceration with associated gastro-oesophageal reflux and hiatus hernia. These findings are non-specific and may result from a variety of other causes such as corrosive ingestion, nasogastric intubation, Crohn’s disease, or neoplasm (primary or secondary). However, the presence of a fine reticular pattern extending distally from the stricture appears to be specific for Barrett’s. A reticulonodular pattern has been described in patients with a superficial spreading adenocarcinoma, but this is rare and not classically associated with a stricture.

38
Q
  1. A 74-year-old female patient undergoes a barium swallow and meal as part of investigation of anaemia, as she refuses endoscopy. She denies any weight loss, dysphagia, or odynophagia. The swallow reveals multiple rounded plaques and nodules in the mid oesophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Oesophageal candidiasis.

B. Herpes esophagitis.

C. HIV esophagitis.

D. Glycogenic acanthosis.

E. Cytomegalovirus esophagitis.

A
  1. D. Glycogenic acanthosis.

This is a common condition affecting elderly people. Cytoplasmic glycogen accumulates in the squamous epithelial lining of the oesophagus, producing the findings described in the question. Patients usually have no oesophageal symptoms, and the disease is not a precursor of malignancy (although extensive glycogenic acanthosis has been shown to be associated with Cowden’s syndrome). The major differential diagnosis is candidiasis, but the plaques of candidiasis have a more linear, rather than rounded, appearance and it usually occurs in immunocompromised patients who complain of odynophagia. Options C, D, and E typically cause ulceration, notplaques.

39
Q
  1. A 75-year-old woman presents with severe chest pain radiating to her back and some hematemesis. The surgical team have considered a differential diagnosis of aortic dissection or aorto-enteric fistula and requested a CT scan to assess the aorta. No aortic dissection is seen, but there is a long eccentric filling defect identified within the oesophageal wall, extending from the level of the carina to the gastro-oesophageal junction. This area did not enhance after contrast administration but did measure 75 HU on a pre-contrast scan. Barium swallow revealed a longitudinal impression on the oesophagus, which had resolved on a repeat swallow 6 weeks later. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Aorto-oesophageal fistula.

B. Mallory–Weiss tear.

C. Boerhaave syndrome.

D. Oesophageal varices.

E. Intramural haematoma of the oesophagus.

A
  1. E. Intramural haematoma of the oesophagus.

Submucosal dissection of the oesophagus may be spontaneous or secondary to direct trauma or coagulopathy. Patients may present with chest pain, dysphagia, and nausea, often followed by hematemesis. The high attenuation in the wall of the oesophagus is the clue to the diagnosis. This feature and lack of enhancement are inconsistent with any alternative diagnosis. Follow-up with endoscopy is usually performed to exclude a predisposing pathological condition. The natural history is complete resolution without surgical intervention.

40
Q
  1. A patient with recently diagnosed oesophageal carcinoma is referred for endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) staging. This shows a hypoechoic area at 36 cm involving the mucosa extending into the submucosa, muscularis propria, and adventitia. It lies close to the aorta but there is no obvious invasion. There is a further hyperechoic lesion noted centrally within this area that only involves the mucosal layer. A subsequent staging CT scan shows an area of oesophageal thickening, which is in contact with 60% of the aorta and there is loss of fat plane between it and the pericardium. There is a lymph node noted adjacent to the oesophagus which measures 15 mm in diameter. Three 12-mm nodes are noted in the para-aortic region in the abdomen. There is a hypoattenuating lesion in segment six of the liver, which demonstrates nodular peripheral enhancement. A delayed scan shows that this lesion has filled in completely. For completion of staging, a PET-CT scan is performed and this shows increased uptake in the primary lesion. The lymph nodes in the abdomen have an SUV maximum of 3, and the paraoesophageal node has an SUV maximum of 13. There is mottled uptake in the liver. What is the radiological staging of this lesion?

A. T4, N1, M0.

B. T2, N1, M0.

C. T3, N1, M1.

D. T4, N2, M1.

E. T3, N1, M0.

A
  1. E. T3, N1, M0.

The T staging of oesophageal tumours is most accurately carried out by EUS. The staging isT1 invading submucosa, T2 invading muscularis propria, T3 invading the adventitia, T4 invading adjacent structures. This is more accurate than the CT staging. Loss of fat planes on CT and the finding of tumour abutting the aorta—if it is in contact with less than 90% of the circumference—often does not preclude resectability, especially if these margins are clear on EUS. In the assessment of lymphatic spread, PET-CT has been shown to be more sensitive (81–99%) than CT alone (50–95%). Lymphatic spread is graded: N0, no spread; N1, loco-regional spread. There is no N2 grading of oesophageal carcinoma as further lymphatic spread is considered M1. Whilst the abdominal nodes may be involved, the low SUV max is reassuring. The para-oesophageal node is almost certainly involved. The finding described in the liver is classical of a haemangioma and a mottled uptake in the liver is a normal finding on PET-CT, thus there is no evidence of metastatic disease radiologically.

41
Q
  1. A 45-year-old woman is referred by her GP for a barium swallow for investigation of dysphagia. Gastro-oesophageal reflux into the lower third of the oesophagus is demonstrated and delicate transverse striations in the lower oesophagus are observed as a transient phenomenon. What is the next appropriate action appropriate for the radiologist?

A. Recommend a staging CT of chest and abdomen.

B. Recommend oesophagoscopy and biopsy of the affected area.

C. Recommend to the GP that the study was unremarkable but for mild reflux.

D. Recommend referral for manometry.

E. Recommend endoscopic ultrasound.

A
  1. C. Recommend to the GP that the study was unremarkable but for mild reflux.

The findings described are in keeping with a ‘feline’ oesophagus. This is thought to be due to spasm in the muscularis mucosa. It is associated with gastro-oesophageal reflux, but is a benignentity

42
Q
  1. A 50-year-old woman presents with dysphagia. At barium swallow, contrast passes sluggishly into the oropharynx. No peristaltic waves are seen in the upper oesophagus. After swallowing, the lumen of the hypopharynx and upper oesophagus remain patent and distended. The lower oesophagus outlines normally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Achalasia.

B. Scleroderma.

C. Polymyositis.

D. Chagas disease.

E. SLE.

A
  1. C. Polymyositis.

This condition and dermatomyositis affect skeletal muscle, which is found at the upper third of the oesophagus. These conditions begin in the upper oesophagus and extend caudally. Other findings at fluoroscopy include retention of barium in the valleculae and wide atonic pyriform fossae, regurgitation and nasal reflux, aspiration, and failure of contrast to progress in the upper oesophagus without the aid of gravity. Polymyositis and dermatomyositis are associated with underlying malignancy. The latter also involves a heliotrope rash and Gottrons papules on flexor surfaces. The lower oesophagus is composed of smooth muscle and is affected by conditions such as scleroderma and SLE, which result in atony and lack of peristalsis in the lower two-thirds, beginning caudally and moving cranially. Achalasia and Chagas disease result in dilatation of the whole oesophagus, with a ‘rat-tail’ deformity at the lower end.

43
Q
  1. A 30-year-old man with a long history of dysphagia presents with food impaction. He has a past medical history of allergies but nothing else of note. The food bolus passes spontaneously, and a water-soluble followed by a barium swallow are requested prior to endoscopy, to ensure there has been no perforation due to chicken/fish bones. The barium study reveals a moderately long stricture in the lower oesophagus, with multiple distinct ring-like indentations. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Idiopathic eosinophilic esophagitis (IEE).

B. Crohn’s disease.

C. Oesophageal carcinoma.

D. Oesophageal perforation.

E. Peptic stricture.

A
  1. A. Idiopathic eosinophilic esophagitis (IEE).

The cause of this condition is uncertain, but most authors believe it occurs as an inflammatory response to ingested food allergens. A history of allergies is more closely correlated in children with the condition than in adults. Only a minority of adults with IEE have peripheral blood eosinophilia or eosinophilic gastroenteritis. The condition is most common in males aged20–40 who have a history of dysphagia and recurrent food impactions. The appearance of the stricture, with its distinctive ring-like indentations, has been termed a ‘ringed’ oesophagus. These indentations are characterized by multiple closely spaced concentric rings that traverse the stricture. A similar finding may be seen in congenital oesophageal stenosis, which typically occurs in the same demographic group, with similar symptoms. The ‘ringed’ oesophagus is thus relatively specific for IEE, but is not a necessary finding (in the study quoted, it was only present in 7 of the14 patients, although these 7 all had strictures). In peptic strictures, the fixed transverse folds are incomplete and further apart, producing a characteristic step-ladder appearance as a result of trapping of barium between the folds.

44
Q
  1. A 70-year-old woman presents with a history of high dysphagia. Barium swallow reveals a barium-filled sac extending postero-inferior from the C5/6 level to the left of the upper oesophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pulsion diverticulum.

B. Traction diverticulum.

C. Zenker diverticulum.

D. Early intramural diverticulosis.

E. Oesophageal perforation.

A
  1. C. Zenker diverticulum.

The findings are classical of a Zenker diverticulum or pharyngeal pouch, a pseudo-diverticulum of the posterior hypopharyngeal wall between the fibres of cricopharyngeus. 50% of cases occur in the seventh and eighth decades. Other symptoms can include halitosis, regurgitation of undigested food, aspiration pneumonia, oesophageal perforation, and carcinoma. It is associated with hiatus hernia, achalasia, and gastro-duodenal ulcer. Treatment options include surgical excision, laser therapy, and endoscopy with stapling. Traction diverticula classically occur in the mid-oesophageal region and in the past were most often a secondary manifestation of mediastinal fibrosis associated with TB. True oesophageal pulsiondivertcula are most commonly in the epiphrenic region (last 10 cm of the oesophagus).Oesophageal perforation is more commonly iatrogenic, being rarely spontaneous (Boerhaave syndrome)

45
Q

1- 54-year-old female presented with dysphagia and an endoscopy was unsuccessful due to a pharyngeal pouch, hence a barium swallow was performed. This showed a mass-like filling defect in the mid third of the oesophagus. A CT showed a focal oesophageal wall mass and histology was obtained, which was consistent with metastatic disease from a distant primary. What is the most likely site of the primary?

a Breast

b Colon

C Hepatic

d Ovarian

e Pancreas

A

1 Answer A: Breast

The most common direct extension to the oesophagus is from the bronchus. The most common metastases from a distant primary are from breast, which are usually submucosal.

46
Q

2 A middle-aged woman presented with reflux and underwent a barium swallow. There was an incidental finding in the cervical oesophagus near the cricopharyngeus where a thin membrane of uniform thickness (2 mm) extending from the anterior oesophageal wall was visible. Her past medical history includes treated hypothyroidism and investigations for iron deficiency anaemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a Complications related to hypothyroidism

b Epidermolysis

C Oesophageal stricture

d Plummer-Vinson syndrome

e Schatzki ring

A

2 Answer D: Plummer-Vinson syndrome

Plummer-Vinson syndrome is characterized by oesophageal webs, iron deficiency anaemia, stomatitis, glossitis, dysphagia, thyroid disorders and spoon-shaped nails. An oesophageal web is usually seen near the cricopharyngeus and arises at right angles from the anterior oesophageal wall. It is usually asymptomatic unless there is severe stenosis.

47
Q

An immunocompromised patient with HW presented acutely with odynophagia. Particularly severe substernal chest pain occurred during swallowing. A double contrast barium swallow was performed which showed multiple small (<1 cm) superficial ulcers in the upper and mid oesophagus without plaque formation. These ulcers had a punctate configuration and were surrounded by radiolucent mounds of oedema. On the basis of the radiological findings what is the most likely diagnosis?

a Candida esophagitis

b CMV esophagitis

C Herpes esophagitis

d HIV esophagitis

e Tuberculous esophagitis

A

Answer C: Herpes esophagitis

48
Q

A 32-year-old female was investigated for severe odynophagia with a barium swallow which reproduced the patient’s symptoms. The findings were recorded as `compartmentalisation of the oesophagus with numerous tertiary contractions’. Very high pressures were noted on manometry studies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a Achalasia

b Chalasia

c Diffuse oesophageal spasm

d Presbyesophagus

e Plummer-Vinson syndrome

A

Answer C: Diffuse oesophageal spasm

The classic presentation of diffuse oesophageal spasm is with severe intermittent pain while swallowing. These swallow appearances are characteristic and extremely high pressures are seen on manometry.

49
Q

A patient presented with dysphagia initially to liquids then also gradually to solids. A barium swallow demonstrated a stricture of the distal oesophagus and a subsequent biopsy confirmed malignancy. What cell type would be most likely?

a Lymphoma

b Metastases

C Squamous cell carcinoma

d Leiomyosarcoma

e Adenocarcinoma

A

Answer C: Squamous cell carcinoma

Squamous cell carcinoma in 95%, associated with head and neck carcinoma, smoking, alcohol, achalasia and Lye ingestion. Adenocarcinoma (5%) usually occurs in the lower oesophagus at the GOJ and is associated with Barrett’s oesophagus. It is increasing in frequency.

50
Q

A 62-year-old woman presented with dysphagia. She was otherwise well but was known to have long-standing diabetes. A barium swallow was performed which showed multiple tiny collections of barium adjacent to the oesophageal lumen. A short distal oesophageal stricture was also noted. With what diagnosis are these radiological findings most consistent?

a Adenomyomatosis

b Erosive esophagitis

c Oesophageal intramural pseudo diverticulosis

d Pharyngeal pouch

e True oesophageal diverticulum

A

Answer C: Oesophageal intramural pseudo diverticulosis

The characteristic features of oesophageal intramural pseudo diverticulosis on barium swallow include multiple tiny `floating’ barium collections and oesophageal structuring. In 90% of cases it is associated with diabetes, alcoholism, esophagitis and structuring.

51
Q

A 21-year-old woman with a long history of recurrent episodes of aspiration pneumonia was noted to have a fluid level within the mediastinum on her chest radiograph. A barium swallow was then performed which showed absence of primary peristalsis and evidence of non-peristaltic contractions. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a Chagas disease

b Peptic stricture

c Primary achalasia

d Scleroderma

e Secondary achalasia

A

Answer C: Primary achalasia

Primary achalasia is characterized by failure of organised peristalsis and relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter. Imaging features include: megaoesophagus, absent primary peristalsis, nonperistaltic contractions and rat-tail'/bird-beak’ oesophagus.

52
Q

A patient presented to the Emergency Department with epigastric and retrosternal pain. A significant oesophageal injury was suspected clinically. Which of the following clinical, radiological or surgical findings are more suggestive of Boerhaave’s syndrome than a Mallory-Weiss tear?

a Distal oesophageal injury

b Haematemesis

c History of alcoholism

d Oesophageal mucosal irregularity

e Pneumomediastinum

A

Answer E: Pneumomediastinum

Spontaneous oesophageal perforation (Boerhaave’s syndrome) typically results from persistent vomiting following an alcoholic binge. Radiographic features typically include: pneumomediastinum, pleural effusion and mediastinal haematoma.

53
Q

A 53-year-old gentleman was investigated for mild dysphagia. He was found to have an area of focal wall thickening at the junction of the mid and distal thirds of the oesophagus, which was shown to be squamous cell carcinoma on biopsy. After further assessment there was no evidence of distant disease and depending on local staging the patient could be a candidate for aggressive surgery. What would be the modality of choice for accurate local staging?

a Dual-phase contrast-enhanced CT of chest, abdomen and pelvis

b Endoscopic ultrasound

c MRI

d PET-CT

e Triple-phase contrast-enhanced CT of chest, abdomen and pelvis

A

1 Answer B: Endoscopic ultrasound

Endoscopic ultrasound can identify the five separate layers of the oesophageal wall.

54
Q

2 A 55-year-old male with a history of drug and alcohol abuse underwent an elective barium swallow for follow-up after surgery for laryngeal carcinoma. This demonstrated tortuous longitudinal filling defects in the lower third of a partially collapsed oesophagus. What is the most likely cause of these radiological findings?

a Achalasia

b Mucosal oedema associated with esophagitis

c Oesophageal lymphoma

d Oesophageal varices

e Varicoid oesophageal carcinoma

A

2 Answer D: Oesophageal varices

55
Q

5 A patient with Parkinson’s disease had an elective barium swallow to investigate symptoms of dysphagia. Which radiological appearance is most consistent with the presence of tertiary contractions?

a Local peristaltic wave elicited through oesophageal distension

b Local peristaltic wave identical to primary wave

c Orderly peristaltic sequence

d Stripping wave clearing the barium

e ‘YoYo’ motion of the barium

A

5 Answer E: ‘Yo-Yo’ motion of the barium

Tertiary oesophageal contractions are non-propulsive motor events characterized by disordered up and down movement of the bolus without clearing of the oesophagus.

56
Q

6 A 47-year-old male inpatient was investigated for vague symptoms of dysphagia. Both an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy study and a barium swallow were performed. What appearances most support the diagnosis of scarring secondary to reflux esophagitis?

a Fixed rigid folds with abrupt demarcation

b Fixed transverse folds with stepladder appearance of distal oesophagus

c Longitudinal folds >3 mm with evidence of submucosal inflammation

d Tortuous folds effaced by oesophageal distension

e Mass within the oesophageal wall

A

6 Answer B: Fixed transverse folds with stepladder appearance of distal oesophagus

The fixed folds are due to the scarring and are often in a transverse orientation. Reflux esophagitis changes are most commonly seen in the distal oesophagus.

57
Q

7 A patient underwent a barium swallow to investigate dysphagia. There was an indentation on the anterior aspect of the oesophagus vertebral body. The remainder of the study is unremarkable. What is the most likely cause for this appearance?

a Oesophageal web

b Cricoid impression

C Oesophageal diverticulum

d Oesophageal neoplasm

e Oesophageal dysmotility

A

b Cricoid impression

58
Q

8 A middle-aged man presented with symptoms of epigastric pain worse after eating. A diagnosis of Barrett’s oesophagus was made. What are the most likely histological findings?

a Columnar epithelium replacing stratified squamous epithelium

b Stratified squamous epithelium replacing columnar epithelium

c Transitional cell epithelium replacing stratified squamous epithelium

d Transitional cell epithelium replacing columnar epithelium

e Infiltration with adenocarcinoma

A

8 Answer A: Columnar epithelium replacing stratified squamous epithelium

Barrett’s is caused by chronic reflux damaging the epithelium and there are numerous associations. It is a pre-malignant condition hence follow-up is indicated.

59
Q

9 Following a barium swallow, the reporting radiologist proposes a likely diagnosis of Barrett’s oesophagus. Which of the following radiological findings are likely to have supported this diagnosis?

a A short proximal stricture

b A long distal stricture

C An oesophageal diverticulum

d A large shallow ulcer

e An extrinsic compressive mass

A

Answer B: A long distal stricture

Common radiological findings in Barrett’s oesophagus include: a long stricture in the mid or lower oesophagus, a large deep solitary ulcer (Barrett’s ulcer), a fine reticular mucosal pattern, thickened irregular mucosal folds, a fine granular mucosal pattern and distal oesophageal widening

60
Q

10 A 60-year-old female patient complained of intermittent episodes of dysphagia to solid foods, which were particularly severe when eating steak. A contrast swallow demonstrated a thin constriction at the gastro-oesophageal junction. The narrowing was smooth, symmetrical and very short (2 mm). What is the diagnosis?

a Achalasia

b Barrett’s oesophagus

c Lymphoma

d Oesophageal carcinoma

e Schatzki ring

A

10 Answer E: Schatzki ring

A Schatzki ring is a symptomatic, narrow-calibre stenotic ring at the gastrooesophageal junction. It produces a typical episodic solid dysphagia, which is sometimes known as `steakhouse syndrome’. The short height (typically 2-4 mm) and regular, symmetrical appearance help to distinguish it from malignant, peptic and other strictures.

61
Q

1 A 55-year-old male with a history of drug and alcohol abuse underwent an elective barium swallow for follow-up after surgery for laryngeal carcinoma. This demonstrated tortuous longitudinal filling defects in the lower third of a partially collapsed oesophagus. What is the most likely cause of these radiological findings?

a Oesophageal varices

b Mucosal oedema associated with esophagitis

c Oesophageal lymphoma

d Varicoid oesophageal carcinoma

e Achalasia

A

Answer A: Oesophageal varices

62
Q

4 A 44-year-old female underwent an elective barium swallow to investigate a long history of reflux esophagitis, which was poorly controlled with proton pump inhibitors. The report concluded that an inflammatory oesophagogastric polyp was identified, which was confirmed on endoscopy. What descriptive findings would be most likely to support this conclusion?

a Large pedunculated mass with sausage-shaped appearance

b Plaque-like, sessile polyp

C Polypoid protuberance arising near cardia

d Sessile, slightly lobulated polyp

e Smooth submucosal mass in distal third of oesophagus

A

4 Answer C: Polypoid protuberance arising near cardia

This is the most common appearance of an inflammatory polyp.

63
Q

5 A patient from South America had an elective barium swallow to investigate weight loss. This showed diffuse oesophageal dilation. He has a history of cardiomyopathy and megacolon. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a Amyloidosis

b Chagas disease

C Oesophagitis

d Scleroderma

e Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

5 Answer B: Chagas disease

Chagas disease characteristically involves diffuse oesophageal dilatation, megacolon and Cardiomegaly.

64
Q

6 A 35-year-old male presented with weight loss and dysphagia to both solids and liquids. A plain CXR and AXR were unremarkable and a contrast swallow showed a mildly dilated oesophagus with absent primary and secondary peristaltic waves. Tertiary contractions were seen and the lower oesophagus had a beak-like appearance. What is the most likely pathology?

a Achalasia

b Adenocarcinoma

C Presbyesophagus

d Oesophageal spasm

e Scleroderma

A

6 Answer A: Achalasia

In achalasia the lower oesophageal sphincter fails to relax due to Wallerian degeneration of Auerbach’s plexus. Relaxation only occurs when hydrostatic pressure exceeds that of the sphincter. There are three forms: (1) primary (idiopathic) or (2) secondary due to metastases or invasion of adenocarcinoma of the cardia, or (3) infectious (e.g., Chagas disease). The primary form classically occurs in 20-30 yearolds, with dysphagia to both solids and liquids with weight loss. Two diagnostic criteria are absent primary and secondary waves, and failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to relax. Other features are tertiary contractions, oesophageal dilatation and a bird’s beak appearance. There may be an air fluid level on plain films. Complications include recurrent aspiration and pneumonia in 10%, and an increased incidence of oesophageal malignancy. It is important to distinguish idiopathic achalasia from malignancy and oesophageal spasm.

65
Q

7 A middle-aged male had a barium swallow to investigate dysphagia. This showed a smooth, lobulated, well-defined lesion that was subsequently found to be intramural. What is the most likely cause of this appearance?

a Oesophageal polyp

b Squamous cell carcinoma

C Presbyesophagus

d Oesophageal leiomyoma

e Hiatus hernia

A

7 Answer D: Oesophageal leiomyoma

Leiomyomas are the commonest benign oesophageal neoplasm. They arise in smooth muscle and are therefore normally intramural. They are commoner in men and in the third to fifth decades. Most are asymptomatic and found incidentally, but they can cause dysphagia and pain.

66
Q

8 A patient, who was known to be HIV positive, underwent a contrast swallow to investigate painful swallowing. A large oesophageal ulcer with a well-defined rim was demonstrated. The oesophageal mucosa was otherwise normal and there were no strictures or motility anomalies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a Barrett’s oesophagus

b CMV esophagitis

c Drug-induced esophagitis

d Malignant ulceration

e Radiation esophagitis

A

8 Answer B: CMV esophagitis

The finding of a large solitary oesophageal ulcer in an HIV positive patient is most likely to represent either CMV esophagitis or HIV esophagitis. These two conditions are radiologically indistinguishable.

67
Q

9 A previously fit and well 36-year-old man developed dysphagia to solid food and was referred for a contrast swallow. The reporting radiologist noticed large volume mediastinal lymphadenopathy and following contrast a large, polypoidal oesophageal mass was visible. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a Oesophageal carcinoma

b Lymphoma

C Oesophageal haematoma

d Submucosal metastases

e Oesophageal varices

A

9 Answer B: Lymphoma

The presence of a polypoidal mass associated with mediastinal lymphadenopathy is most suggestive of oesophageal lymphoma. The oesophagus is the least common site of gastrointestinal lymphoma. More common sites include the stomach, small bowel and colon.

68
Q

10 A 92-year-old woman presented with repeated episodes of aspiration pneumonia. A contrast swallow showed an oesophageal diverticulum. What feature would make a Zenker’s diverticulum more likely than an alternative diagnosis?

a Anterior position

b Multiple diverticula

C Origin below cricopharyngeus

d Origin at Killian’s dehiscence

e Static appearance of diverticulum during swallow

A

10 Answer D: Origin at Killian’s dehiscence

Zenker’s diverticulum originates in the midline of the posterior oesophageal wall at a point known as Killian’s dehiscence (above cricopharyngeus). It bulges during swallowing. Killian Jamieson diverticula originate below cricopharyngeus.

69
Q

11 A 54-year-old man with histologically confirmed adenocarcinoma at the gastro-oesophageal junction underwent FDG PET-CT for further staging. This demonstrated significant uptake (>2.5 SUV) at the site of the tumour, an adjacent local nodal mass and gastro-hepatic and coeliac axis nodes. No other abnormal uptake was seen in the chest, abdomen or pelvis. What is the most appropriate staging for this patient?

a N1 M1b

b N2 MO

c Ni Mla

d N1 M1b

e N1 Mx

A

11 Answer D: N1 M1b

Assuming the primary shows uptake then PET-CT allows accurate assessment of nodal disease particularly if they are normal by size criteria. The presence of a positive coeliac axis node in this patient upstages him to N1, M1b and makes him unsuitable for curative surgery. Tumour staging is assessed by endorectal ultrasonography (EUS).

70
Q
  1. A 47-year-old diabetic man with recent renal transplant, presents with dysphagia. Double-contrast barium swallow shows longitudinally oriented filling defects in the upper and mid oesophagus. CT shows circumferential thickening of the upper half of oesophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Reflux esophagitis

(b) Viral esophagitis

(c) Candida esophagitis

(d) Oesophageal varices

(e) Carcinoma

A
  1. (c) Candida esophagitis

This is seen in immunocompromised patients and is caused by Candida species. It spares the lower oesophagus and typically shows longitudinally oriented filling defects on double-contrast barium swallow.
Reflux usually extends proximally from gastro-oesophageal junction with ulcers in distal oesophagus. Viral esophagitis (due to herpes virus or cytomegalovirus) usually shows multiple discrete ulcers. Cytomegalovirus may show giant ulcers (> 1 cm). Varices show serpiginous longitudinal defects, best seen on mucosal relief views.

71
Q
  1. A 21-year-old man presents with dysphagia and weight loss. Barium swallow shows absence of a primary peristaltic wave and a dilated and tortuous oesophagus with a smooth, tapered narrowing at the oesophago-gastric junction. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Oesophageal carcinoma

(b) Achalasia of the oesophagus

(c) Gastric carcinoma

(d) Peptic stricture

(e) Diffuse oesophageal spasm

A
  1. (b) Achalasia of the oesophagus

This is a primary motility disorder which is secondary to failure of organised peristalsis and relaxation at the oesophago-gastric junction. A ‘bird beak’ or ‘rat tail’ appearance of distal oesophagus is typical on a barium swallow study. Oesophageal and gastric carcinoma show mucosal irregularity, shouldering and mass effect. Peptic strictures are commonly associated with a hiatus hernia and show small mucosal ulcers. Diffuse oesophageal spasm is seen as a ‘cork screw’ appearance on barium study.

72
Q
  1. A 28-year-old man smelling of alcohol presented to the casualty department with chest pain and vomiting. The chest radiograph shows pneumomediastinum, surgical emphysema and left hydropneumothorax. What is the likely diagnosis?

(a) Mallory–Weiss syndrome

(b) Boerhaave syndrome

(c) Spontaneous pneumothorax

(d) Post traumatic

(e) None of the above

A

(b) Boerhaave syndrome

This is characterized by spontaneous distal oesophageal perforation following vomiting or violent straining. The tear usually is seen at the left lateral wall of distal oesophagus just above the oesophago-gastric junction. Diagnosis is made by demonstrating leak of extraluminal air & contrast around oesoph. A perforated Mallory–Weiss tear is a Boerhaave $.

73
Q
  1. A 40-year-old man with history of lymphoma presents with recurrent hematemesis. The chest radiograph shows mediastinal widening. Mucosal relief views on barium study show tortuous, serpiginous, longitudinal radiolucent filling defects in the upper oesophagus. Endoscopic ultrasound shows multiple anechoic spaces in the submucosal region with thin walls. What is the most likely diagnosis of the appearance in barium study?

(a) Oesophagitis ulceration

(b) Superior vena cava obstruction with downhill varices

(c) Candida esophagitis

(d) Oesophageal pseudo diverticulosis

(e) Primary oesophageal lymphoma

A

(b) Downhill oesophageal varices secondary to superior vena cava obstruction

Mucosal relief views are suggestive of oesophageal varices secondary to superior vena cava obstruction by enlarged mediastinal nodes. Downhill varices usually involve upper half of the oesophagus while the uphill varices involve the lower half.

74
Q
  1. A 70-year-old man with history of history of alcoholism, presents with progressive dysphagia. Barium studies of the upper gastrointestinal tract show irregular narrowing of the oesophagus just above the gastro-oesophageal junction, with abrupt transition to normal mucosa proximally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Ulcerating carcinoma of the oesophagus

(b) Barrett’s oesophagus

(c) Schatzki rings

(d) Oesophageal polyps

(e) Achalasia of oesophagus

A

(a) Ulcerating carcinoma of the oesophagus

In patients with risk factors and irregular stricture in the oesophagus, carcinoma should be considered as first diagnosis and direct visualization with histopathology is recommended.

75
Q

@#e 6. The following statements concerning oesophageal carcinoma are correct: (T/F)

(a) 90% of cases are squamous cell carcinomas.

(b) Most commonly located in the upper third of the oesophagous.

(c) Plummer-Vinson syndrome is a recognised predisposing factor.

(d) It is associated with ulcerative colitis.

(e) Commonest appearance on double contrast barium swallow is of a large ulcer within a bulging mass.

A

Answers:

(a) Correct
(b) Not correct
(c) Correct
(d) Not correct
(e) Not correct

Explanation:

Oesophageal carcinoma most commonly located in the middle and lower third of the oesophagus. Only 20 occur in the upper one third. Polypoidal or fungating form is the commonest type. Predisposing factors for oesophageal carcinoma include Barrett’s esophagus, alcohol abuse, smoking, coeliac disease & Achalasia.

76
Q
  1. The following statements regarding Achalasia are correct: (T/F)

(a) Dilatation of the oesophagus begins in the upper third.

(b) Multiple non-peristaltic contractions are seen on barium swallow.

(c) A prominent gastric air bubble is seen on erect CXR.

(d) There is an association with plummer-Vinson syndrome.

(e) Squamous cells carcinoma of the oesophagus is a recognised complication.

A

Answers:

(a) Correct
(b) Correct
(c) Not correct
(d) Not correct
(e) Correct

Explanation:

Achalasia is not associated with Plummer-Vinson syndrome.
Gastric air bubble is usually absent on erect chest x-ray.
Dilatation of the oesophagus begins in the upper one third and progresses to involve the entire length.