Colon Flashcards
Which of the following favors appendiceal carcinoid over appendiceal adenocarcinoma?
A. Bulbous swelling involving the distal third of the appendix
B. Slow growth
C. Direct extension into caecum
D. Ileocecal lymph node enlargement
E. Periappendical fat standing
A. Bulbous swelling involving the distal third of the appendix
Carcinoid often appears as a bulbous swelling of the distal third of the appendix, in contrast to adenocarcinoma which tends to involve the proximal third and causes diffuse thickening of the appendiceal wall.
A 60-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain and diarrhoea six weeks post-hip replacement surgery, with her recovery being complicated by a hospital-acquired pneumonia. CT is performed. When considering a diagnosis of pseudomembranous colitis (PMC) which is the most common finding?
A. Intense mucosal enhancement
B. Enlarged peri-colic blood vessels
C. An irregular or discontinuous mucosal lining
D. Pericolonic fat stranding
E. Colonic wall thickening
E. Colonic wall thickening
Although all of the above are recognized findings in PMC, colonic wall thickening from minor to gross thickening is the most common feature.
The relatively mild pericolonic stranding with marked colonic wall thickening may help to distinguish PMC from other colonic pathologies.
Which of the following most favors Crohn’s versus pseudomembranous colitis?
A. Ascites
B. Absence of small bowel involvement
C. Fibro fatty mesenteric proliferation around involved colon
D. Colonic wall thickening of 11mm
E. Low attenuation mural thickening (accordion sign)
C. Fibro fatty mesenteric proliferation around involved colon
Fibro fatty mesenteric proliferation around involved colon is more likely to indicate crohn’s disease.
Which of the following frequencies would most help in the differentiation between recurrent tumour and fibrosis in a 62-year-old with prior chemoradiotherapy for low rectal cancer?
A. Axial and coronal balanced gradient echo
B. Sagittal T2 fat suppressed fat-spin echo (FSE)
C. Axial TIW fat suppressed FSE before and after gadolinium
D. Sagittal TIW fat suppressed FSE post gadolinium
E. Coronal TIW fat suppressed FSE post gadolinium
C. Axial TIW fat suppressed FSE before and after gadolinium
May help differentiate tumour from fibrosis and improves destruction of tumour spread to adjacent structures/vessels.
Axial and coronal balanced gradient echo are rapidly acquired breath hold sequences providing anatomical overviews.
Granulation tissue, hematoma and radiation-induced inflammatory change can all display SI similar to tumour.
Peripheral enhancement with central necrosis is commonly seen in recurrent disease.
A 70-year-old man with sudden onset left-sided abdominal pain underwent evaluation with CT. Fat stranding and colonic wall thickening is noted in the distal descending/ proximal sigmoid colon. Diverticulae are noted. Which feature is most likely to represent a colonic tumour rather than diverticulitis?
A. Colonic wall thickening
B. Pericolonic fat stranding
C. Fluid in the sigmoid mesentery
D. Engorgement of the mesenteric vessels
E. Increased permeability on CT perfusion
E. Increased permeability on CT perfusion
Increased blood volume, increased blood flow, decreased mean transit time and increased permeability are parameters on CT perfusion which have been shown to favor a diagnosis of cancer rather than diverticulitis. C and D have high positive predictive values in diagnosing diverticulitis and A and B occur in both.
A usually fit and well 30-year-old female presents with left-sided abdominal pain. Normal uterus and ovaries are identified. In the left iliac fossa there is a 4cm hyperechoic mass which is non-compressible between the colon and abdominal wall. No colonic wall changes are identified. There is no free fluid. The lesion is surrounded by a hyperechoic border with no Doppler flow. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Epiploic appendigitis
B. Diverticulitis
C. Omental infarction
D. Omental metastases
E. Mesenteric panniculitis
A. Epiploic appendigitis
Self-limiting condition with fat density mass 1-4cm between colon and abdominal wall.
The absence of blood flow on Doppler due to torsion helps distinguish from acute diverticulitis.
Omental infarcts are usually large, right-sided and cake-like in appearance.
Which is the most common source of false positives in cathartically prepared CT colonography by Computer aided detection (CAD)?
A. Haustral folds
B. Untagged/poorly tagged stool
C. Ileocecal valve
D. Electronic cleansing and tagging artefact
E. Extrinsic compression
A. Haustral folds
Most common source of FP in CAD in cathartically prepared CT colonography.
Untagged/poorly tagged stool is the second most common FP in cathartically prepared and most common source of FP in non-cathartically prepared CT colonography.
A 37-year-old man on the intensive care unit, 3 weeks post-operatively for complicated small bowel resection for Crohn’s disease, is noted to have an oozing from a site on his anterior abdominal wall. His renal function remains normal and inflammatory markers are persistently elevated with White Cell Count (WCC) 15.9 and C-reactive Protein (CRP) 124. On a CT of the abdomen 5 days ago, no collection was demonstrated. CT fistulography is being considered. Which is the best answer with regards to CT fistulography?
A. Conventional fistulography has a higher spatial resolution
B. Iodinated contrast should be used, diluted 1 in 100
C. Oral contrast is helpful in most cases
D. Intravenous (IV) contrast should be avoided
E. CT fistulography has a greater temporal resolution
A. Conventional fistulography has a higher spatial resolution
CTF helps to delineate fistulous tracks in critically ill patients where prolonged contrast studies are not feasible.
Iodinated contrast (300mg iodine/ml) should be diluted 1 in 10, with a volume based on an estimate of the length of bowel or volume of cavity being investigated.
Oral contrast can confuse the origin of intraluminal contrast and is best avoided, whereas IV contrast is helpful.
Conventional fistulography has a higher spatial and temporal resolution.
With regards to MRI in patients being investigated for Crohn’s disease, which of the following is the least desirable characteristic of ultrafast sequences based on steady state precession?
A. A high sensitivity to motion artefact
B. The time taken to acquire an image
C. The degree of contrast between bowel wall and lumen
D. Degree of soft-tissue differentiation when compared to other sequences
E. A black boundary effect
E. A black boundary effect
These sequences have become the main MR technique for imaging small and large bowel in Crohn’s disease in recent years.
Uniform luminal opacification is obtained with high contrast between bowel wall, lumen and mesentery.
The sequences are relatively insensitive to motion artefact.
Black boundary artefact can obscure small lesions on the bowel wall, although fat-suppression can reduce the artefact.
In the MR staging of rectal tumours, which of the following is the single best answer?
A. A distance of less than 3mm from the mesorectal fascia is most likely to reflect circumferential resection margin (CRM)
B. There is a prognostic difference between different types of T3 tumours depending on tumour size
C. Untreated mucinous and non-mucinous tumours are difficult to distinguish on T2 sequences
D. Untreated tumour signal is similar to muscle on T2
E. Non-mucinous tumour signal intensity is similar to fat
B. There is a prognostic difference between different types of T3 tumours depending on tumour size
The MERCURY Trial showed patients with T3 disease with more than 5mm of extramural spread have a markedly worse prognosis than those with less than 5mm spread beyond the outer muscle layer.
A distance less than 2mm from mesorectal fascia indicated Circumferential resection margin (CRM) involvement.
Tumour signal is usually in between SI of muscle and fat.
Mucinous tumour is higher signal than non-mucinous which is higher than fat on T2.
A 37-year-old man on the intensive care unit, 3 weeks post-operatively for complicated small bowel resection for Crohn’s disease, is noted to have an oozing from a site on his anterior abdominal wall. His renal function remains normal and inflammatory markers are persistently elevated with White Cell Count (WCC) 15.9 and C - reactive protein (CRP) 124. On a CT of the abdomen 5 days ago, no collection was demonstrated. CT fistulography is being considered. Which is the best answer with regards to CT fistulography?
A. Iodinated contrast should be used, diluted 1 in 100
B. Oral contrast is helpful in most cases
C. Intravenous (IV) contrast should be avoided
D. Conventional fistulography has a higher spatial resolution
E. CT fistulography has a greater temporal resolution
D. Conventional fistulography has a higher spatial resolution
CTF helps to delineate fistulous tracks in critically ill patients where prolonged contrast studies are not feasible.
Iodinated contrast (300mg iodine/ml) should be diluted 1 in 10, with a volume based on an estimate of the length of bowel or volume of cavity being investigated.
Oral contrast can confuse the origin of intraluminal contrast and is best avoided, whereas IV contrast is helpful.
Conventional fistulography has a higher spatial and temporal resolution.
- A 70-year-old hospitalized male patient presents with watery diarrhoea and abdominal pain. CT of the abdomen demonstrates marked circumferential bowel wall thickening involving the entire colon, with minimal pericolonic stranding and a small amount of ascites. The small bowel appears normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Crohn’s disease
B. ischaemic colitis
C. diverticulitis
D. pseudomembranous colitis
E. ulcerative colitis
D. pseudomembranous colitis
Pseudomembranous colitis is an acute infectious colitis caused by Clostridium difficile and its toxins A and B; this pathogen has become increasingly common largely due to widespread use of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
The commonest CT finding is of colonic wall thickening (due to mural edema and the presence of pseudomembranous), which is typically greater than in other causes of colitis apart from Crohn’s disease. Pericolonic inflammatory changes are disproportionately mild relative to the marked wall thickening. Ascites is common, and this, together with the lack of small bowel involvement, can help to distinguish pseudomembranous colitis from Crohn’s colitis.
Ischaemic colitis demonstrates a lesser degree of wall thickening, and is usually segmental, tending to affect the watershed areas of the colon.
- A 34-year-old man presents with acute left lower quadrant pain following unaccustomed exercise. CT of the abdomen demonstrates a 2.5 cm oval lesion with attenuation value of –60 HU abutting the sigmoid colon, with surrounding inflammatory changes. The sigmoid colon itself appears normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. omental infarction
B. diverticulitis
C. epiploic appendagitis
D. liposarcoma
E. appendicitis
C. epiploic appendagitis
Acute epiploic appendagitis is thought to result from torsion of one of the fatty epiploic appendages arising from the serosal surface of the colon.
It usually occurs in young men, presenting as acute lower quadrant pain, and is associated with obesity and unaccustomed exercise.
Typical CT findings are of an oval pericolonic fat density lesion of<5 cm, with surrounding inflammatory changes, most commonly in the sigmoid, descending or right hemi colon.
Right-sided epiploic appendagitis may be mistaken clinically for appendicitis.
Omental infarction typically appears as a larger, heterogeneous lesion, usually affecting the caecum or ascending colon.
Acute diverticulitis usually occurs in older patients, and is associated with colonic diverticula and wall thickening.
Liposarcoma is rare, but is included in the differential of a fat-containing intra-abdominal mass.
- What is the primary imaging investigation for staging of colon cancer diagnosed at colonoscopy?
A. CT of the abdomen and pelvis
B. CT of the thorax, abdomen and pelvis
C. abdominal ultrasound scan
D. double-contrast barium enema
E. 18FDG PET/CT
B. CT of the thorax, abdomen and pelvis
Patients with colon cancer diagnosed endoscopically or suspected following barium enema should be imaged for staging purposes. Objectives of staging include determination of size and local extent of tumour, assessment of the extension of tumour into adjacent structures, and detection of local and distant nodal involvement and presence of metastatic disease. Abdominal ultrasound scan alone is not considered sufficient, and CT of the chest, abdomen and pelvis with oral and intravenous iodinated contrast medium is the primary imaging investigation. The liver is the commonest site of distant metastases, but pulmonary metastases occur in 5–50% of patients. 18FDG PET/CT is not used in initial staging but is particularly useful for detecting recurrent disease.
- A 78-year-old man presents with abdominal pain. A plain abdominal radiograph demonstrates a distended, inverted U-shaped loop of bowel devoid of haustra, extending from the left iliac fossa inferiorly to just beneath the left hemidiaphragm superiorly. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. caecal volvulus
B. sigmoid volvulus
C. paralytic ileus
D. large bowel obstruction due to distal malignancy
E. small bowel malrotation and volvulus
B. sigmoid volvulus
Sigmoid volvulus usually occurs when the sigmoid loop twists around its mesenteric axis, creating a closed loop obstruction.
Typical features are of an inverted U-shaped loop converging on the left side of the pelvis.
The bowel loop is usually markedly distended, appears ahaustral, and may overlap the lower border of the liver (liver overlap sign) or the haustrated dilated descending colon (left flank overlaps sign).
The apex of the volvulus usually lies under the left hemidiaphragm with its apex above the level of T10.
Caecal volvulus occurs when the caecum is on a mesentery, and involves the caecum either twisting and inverting so the caecal pole lies in the left upper quadrant, or twisting in an axial plane so that the caecum remains right sided or central.
Appearances are of a large, gas-distended viscus, usually with haustral markings, and occasionally the gas-filled appendix may be identified.
- A 34-year-old woman presents with bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain. Which feature on barium enema favors a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis rather than Crohn’s disease?
A. thickened ileocecal valve
B. circumferential wall involvement
C. fistula formation
D. skip lesions
E. normal rectum
B. circumferential wall involvement
Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease are idiopathic inflammatory diseases of the bowel.
Ulcerative colitis predominantly involves the mucosa and submucosa, and characteristically produces continuous, circumferential involvement of the colon.
Crohn’s disease produces transmural inflammation, may affect the entire gastrointestinal tract, and is characterized by eccentric and discontinuous involvement.
Typical features of ulcerative colitis include predominantly left-sided colonic involvement with rectosigmoid involvement in 95% of cases, a patulous ileocecal valve and shallow ulceration.
Typical features of Crohn’s disease include skip lesions (discontinuous disease), terminal ileal involvement with a thickened ileocaecal valve and fistula formation.
- A 23-year-old man presents with acute lower abdominal pain. An abdominal radiograph demonstrates a rounded, laminated calcific density projected over the right lower quadrant. What is the approximate likelihood of a diagnosis of acute appendicitis?
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 70%
E. 90%
E. 90%
A laminated calcified appendicolith is seen in only 7–15% of patients with acute appendicitis. However, the presence of acute abdominal pain with an appendicolith on abdominal plain film indicates a 90% probability of acute appendicitis, and also indicates a high probability of gangrene/perforation. Other plain film signs of acute appendicitis include caecal wall thickening, small bowel obstruction and focal extraluminal gas collections.
- A 73-year-old man presents with lower abdominal pain and a change in bowel habit. A contrast enema demonstrates a stricture in the sigmoid colon. Which feature would favor a diagnosis of colorectal carcinoma rather than diverticulitis?
A. long (>10 cm) segment of involvement
B. mucosal ulceration
C. presence of a Colo vesical fistula
D. multiple diverticula in the sigmoid colon
E. smoothly tapered stricture margins
B. mucosal ulceration
The differentiation between complicated diverticular disease and a perforating colorectal carcinoma may be difficult.
Both may appear as a focal area of eccentric luminal narrowing on contrast enema.
A longer segment of involvement favors diverticulitis, as well as other inflammatory causes of colitis.
In addition, stricture margins in diverticulitis tend to be smoothly tapered rather than the abrupt narrowing of carcinoma.
Mucosal ulceration occurs in most cases of colorectal carcinoma, and is not a particular feature of diverticulitis.
Fistula formation may occur in both conditions, most commonly between the colon and the bladder, though this is more commonly seen in diverticulitis.
The presence of diverticula does not exclude the possibility of colorectal carcinoma, and the two conditions may coexist, as both are common in elderly people
- In patients with cystic fibrosis, which gastrointestinal pathology may occur as a result of high dose lipase supplementation?
A. rectal prolapse
B. fibrosing colonopathy
C. pneumatosis intestinalis
D. gastro-oesophageal reflux
E. meconium ileus equivalent syndrome
B. fibrosing colonopathy
Fibrosing colonopathy is a condition causing progressive submucosal fibrosis predominantly affecting the proximal colon. It was first described in 1994 in children with cystic fibrosis taking high-dose lipase supplementation to relieve the symptoms of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency. It causes structuring and longitudinal shortening of the right colon, and patients present with obstruction. Overall, the gastrointestinal tract is affected in 85–90% of patients with cystic fibrosis, and all of the above pathologies may occur, though only fibrosing colonopathy is associated with high-dose lipase supplementation.
- A 73-year-old woman presents with intermittent lower gastrointestinal bleeding and iron deficiency anaemia. She is clinically suspected to have angiodysplasia. What are the most likely findings on barium enema?
A. normal appearances
B. multiple small polyps in the colon
C. multiple shallow ulcers in the colon
D. multiple, serpiginous, filling defects in the colon
E. a focal, irregular, circumferential narrowing in the colon
A. normal appearances
In angiodysplasia, there is degenerative dilatation of the normal vessels in the submucosa of the bowel wall. It is associated with increasing age, and in about 20% of cases with aortic stenosis. It occurs most commonly in the right colon and presents with intermittent, low-grade bleeding. Barium enema shows no abnormality, as the lesion is submucosal, but increased tracer accumulation may be seen at the site of haemorrhageon99 mTc-labelled red cell scanning.
Angiography, if performed, may demonstrate a cluster of vessels along the antimesenteric border during the arterial phase and early opacification of the draining ileocolic vein.
- A 50-year-old woman undergoes CT colonography for a change in bowel habit, which demonstrates a well-defined, broad-based, 3 cm submucosal mass of density –40 HU in the ascending colon. It is noted to change shape between prone and supine images. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. adenomatous polyp
B. endometriosis
C. primary pneumatosis coli
D. lipoma
E. enteric duplication cyst
D. lipoma
The colon is the commonest site for gastrointestinal lipomas. They typically appear as abroad-based mass, but may develop a short pedicle as a result of repeated peristaltic activity. They are soft lesions, and a change in shape or size may be noted on compression. At CT colonography, endoluminal features are non-specific, but the demonstration of fat attenuation on 2D images is diagnostic.
Primary pneumatosis coli usually appears as a cluster of air-filled cysts in the left colon. These may mimic polyps at endoscopy or on endoluminal CT colonography, but the demonstration of air attenuation on 2D images is again diagnostic.
Endometriosis and enteric duplication cyst are causes of submucosal lesions but are of soft-tissue and fluid density respectively.
Adenomatous polyps are mucosal lesions of soft-tissue density.
@# (Ped) 48) A 17-year-old girl presents with abdominal pain and rectal bleeding. She undergoes colonoscopy, which demonstrates multiple polypoid lesions in the colon. Which feature would favour a diagnosis of juvenile polyposis rather than familial adenomatous polyposis?
a. a total of 10 polyps in the colon
b. a histological diagnosis of tubulovillous polyps
c. involvement of the rectum
d. mucocutaneous pigmentation
e. a first-degree relative with multiple colonic polyps
a. a total of 10 polyps in the colon
In familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), multiple (usually around 1000) tubular or tubulovillous adenomatous polyps are seen in the GI tract, predominantly in the colon.
Patients usually become symptomatic in the third to fourth decades and present with abdominal pain, weight loss and diarrhoea.
Juvenile polyposis (JP) is the commonest cause of colonic polyps in children, and usually presents with rectal bleeding. The polyps are hamartomatous and may occur throughout the GI tract. They are less numerous than in FAP, and the condition may be diagnosed with five or more polyps.
Both conditions are autosomal dominant, with 80% penetrance in FAP and variable penetrance in JP.
The rectosigmoid is involved in 80% of cases of JP, whereas the rectum is always involved in FAP. In both conditions, patients are at increased risk of associated adenocarcinoma, seen in 15% of patients by 35 years of age in JP, but in 100% of patients by 20 years after diagnosis in FAP.
Mucocutaneous pigmentation is a feature of Peutz–Jeghers syndrome.
- In the staging of rectal cancer by MRI, which sequence provides optimum visualization of the tumour?
A. T1W
B. contrast-enhanced T1W
C. T2W
D. FLAIR
E. proton density
C. T2W
MR is a highly accurate method of local staging of rectal cancer, with better assessment of locoregional nodal involvement than CT and clear depiction of the mesorecta fascia, allowing accurate prediction of whether the circumferential resection margin will be tumour free. T2W images provide optimal visualization of the tumour, which appears as an intermediate signal-intensity mass. Contrast-enhanced T1W images result in enhancement of the normal bowel wall as well as the tumour, which may lead to upstaging. FLAIR sequences are not routinely used for rectal cancer staging.
- A 67-year-old man presents with a sensation of incomplete evacuation and passage of thick mucus per rectum. Serum electrolytes demonstrate hypokalemia and hyponatremia. He undergoes barium enema, which demonstrates a broad-based, papillary, 2 cm lesion in the rectum with poor mucosal coating of barium. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. lipoma
B. tubular adenoma
C. villous adenoma
D. colorectal carcinoma
E. solitary rectal ulcer syndrome
C. villous adenoma
Villous adenomas are a histological subtype of adenomatous polyps with predominantly villous elements, representing 10% of adenomatous polyps. Typical appearances are of abroad-based lesion often over 2 cm in diameter, with frond-like surface projections. They have a higher malignant potential than the other subtypes of adenomatous polyp (tubular and tubulovillous adenomas), which increases further with the size of the adenoma. Lesions under 5 cm have a 9% risk of malignant transformation to adenocarcinoma, whereas lesions over 10 cm have a 100%risk. Villous adenomas are associated with excretion of large amounts of thick mucus, which may result in diarrhoea and electrolyte depletion, as well as poor mucosal coating at barium enema.
Lipomas are typically seen as smooth, rounded, submucosal masses. Tubular adenomas are usually <10 mm and, like lipomas, are not associated with electrolyte depletion.
Solitary rectal ulcer syndrome may appear as polypoid lesions in the rectum and be associated with mucus secretion; however, it is normally associated with ulceration and is usually seen in young women.