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Frontier > OEG Revised > Flashcards

OEG Revised Flashcards

1
Q

For abnormal procedures during take-off, which checklist is read first: After Takeoff Checklist or the Abnormal Checklist?

A

ATO is completed first, and the abnormal checklist is completed second

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2
Q

What is the required response to an “AUTOLAND” warning light during CAT II/III approach?

A

An immediate missed approach is required, as caused by:

Excessive ILS deviation (1/4 dot loc, 1 dot GS)

The loss or disco of both APs

ILS transmitter failure

RAs differ > 15’

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3
Q

During single engine taxi, the # 2 engine must be started a minimum of how many minutes prior to take off and why?

A

Start the #2 engine at least 3 minutes prior to takeoff to allow for engine stabilization and to alleviate the risk of thermal shock to the engine. This also allows the CENTER FUEL TANK pumps to run for the 2 minutes required prior to takeoff to insure they are operating properly.

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4
Q

What indications do you get when performing an engine fire test with AC power?

A

(7)

CRC

Master Warning lights (2)

FIRE light on the ENG Panel

SQUIB light/DISCH lights (2)

Respective fire push-button light

ECAM “FIRE”

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5
Q

When is a DDA required?

A
  • When conducting an approach with an MDA or MDH.
  • Add 50’ to MDA
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6
Q

Indications for APU fire test with AC power

A

(5)

Master Warning lights

CRC

APU FIRE push button

SQUIB light/DISCH light

ECAM “APU FIRE” warning

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7
Q

Is it OK to leave the cockpit unattended when the parking brake is released?

A

No. A Frontier pilot or mechanic shall be at the duty station any time the parking brake is released, or at the discretion of maintenance when work is being performed.

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8
Q

Do Bat 1 & 2 need to be in “auto” for APU start?

A

Yes

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9
Q

Mechanical Backup

A

Pitch via manual trim wheel

Lateral via rudder pedals

Must have hydraulic power

TLs (FADECs are self powered)

Red MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY on PFD

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10
Q

An RNAV GPS approach has LPV as well as LNAV/VNAV and VNAV minimums. Which minimums can F9 use?

A

LNAV/VNAV and VNAV are authorized

LPV is NA

Any minimums with a climb gradient as part of the published missed are NA

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11
Q

Ground Speed Mini

A

Ground speed mini takes advantage of aircraft inertia when the wind conditions vary during the approach. It does so by providing the crew with an adequate indicated speed target. When the aircraft flies this speed target, the energy of the aircraft is maintained above a minimum level ensuring standard aerodynamic margins against a stall.

During the approach, the FMGs continuously compute the speed target using the wind experienced by the aircraft, in order to keep the ground speed at or above “Ground Speed Mini.”

Range is Vapp to Vfe-next-config.

This eliminates the need to compute gust factor into Vapp, as the aircraft automatically does this for you when using “Ground Speed Mini.”

FMGS computes present headwind, compares to entered tower reported wind, takes the difference, and adds it to approach speed to account for anticipated sheer on final.

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12
Q

When is an alternate required?

A

123 – (Domestic) +/- 1 hour, < 2000’ ceiling OR < 3sm

++ – (Flag) - < 2000’ ceiling/MDA+1500’ OR < 3sm/vis+2sm

Marginal Weather - within 100ft and the visibility is within 1/2SM of the minimums for the destination airport and the ceiling is within 100ft and the visibility is within 1/2SM of the derived alternate minimums for the first alternate. 2ALT required

Method 2 - If the aircraft weight is such that it cannot meet the terrain clearance requirements of Method 1 you can file Method 2 which requires the aircraft to maintain 2000ft above terrain within 5 miles of the centerline for that route segment being flown. Requires that, if an engine failure occurs at cruise altitude, the aircraft be able to divert to at least one suitable airport from a normal cruise altitude along that segment of the driftdown flight plan.

Offline Charter - If either the Departure airport or the Destination airport are not listed as a “R” regular airport in the AIP “Blue Pages” an alternate airport must be listed on the release.

International Flights - If the flight time will exceed 6.0 hours an alternate must be listed on the release due to the reliability limitation on the IRs of 6.2 hours. An alternate must also be listed for international flights if the destination airport is single runway.

Severe Icing - If severe icing conditions are forecast +/- 1 hour of ETA, a suitable alternate must be listed on the release.

Thunderstorms - If thunderstorms are forecast +/- 1 hour of arrival time dispatch will provide an alternate and 45 minutes of additional contingency fuel. If the alternate is not provided the crew will contact dispatch and discuss the probability of the TS or VCTS and determine a course of action that both feel comfortable with.

Takeoff Alternate - If the weather at the departure airport is below CAT I landing minimums a take off alternate is required

RNAV Only Approach - If the destination airport does not have any operational ground based approaches an alternate must be filed with a suitable non-RNAV approach

Supplemental Ops

3585 - Flight can be dispatched to destination or an alternate airport when the weather forecast for either or both airports use conditional words such as “BECMG” , “PROB” , “TEMPO” in the remarks section. If this is the case, two alternates must be listed on the dispatch release and the remarks section of the release must show that the flight is being dispatched under exemption 3585.

Destination airport, 1/2 the visibility required for the instrument approach to be used

1st Alternate, NLT 1/2 the DV cig & vis airport

2nd Alternate, at least DVs

Fuel Requirements for 3585
Fly to destination
Fly to and land at most distant the alternate, taking expected ATC routing into account

Fly for at 45’ normal cruising fuel consumption (CI 0)

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13
Q

How do you verify that your EPE does not exceed your RNP of 1.0?

A

NAV ACCUR HIGH denotes that the EPE does not exceed appropriate criteria for the procedure.

GPS PRIMARY displayed = NAV accuracy check not required.

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14
Q

When performing the brake check during taxi, the FO announces “pressure zero.” This indicates that green pressure has taken over yellow pressure. T or F

A

True. When the Green Hydraulic system is operating normally, the Yellow Hydraulic system and the Triple Brake indicator pressure should read 0, telling the pilots that the Green System is supplying the brakes.

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15
Q

Is A-Floor available in Alternate Law? What about Direct Law?

A

No. A-Floor is only available in Normal Law.

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16
Q

When is a full alignment of the ADIRS required?

A

GAG CCI

GPS NA and NAVAID coverage is poor on the expected route

Alaska flights

GPS NA and expected flight time exceeds 3 hours

Crew change: Wait at least five minutes after gate arrivalbefore switching turning off any of the ADIRs

Class II airspace

International flights

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17
Q

What temp and conditions must the engine ice be turned on, and in what phase of flight?

A

All ground/flight operations when in icing conditions (visible moisture and OAT/SAT at or below +10C to -40C), except climb and cruise below -40C.

Must be on during ground operations with visible moisture, or slush, standing water, ice, or snow present on taxiways and runways.

Must be turned on at all times when the aircraft is in a descent in icing conditions, even when below -40°C.

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18
Q

What is the proper terminology for the transition at 18,000’, climbing and descending?

A

Climbing

PF: “Pull standard, 18,000”

PM: “Standard pulled, altitude checked”

Descending

PF: “Push QNH, FL180”

PM: “QNH pushed, altitude checked”

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19
Q

In flight, when will the speed brakes automatically retract?

A

SEA FAT

SEC 1 and SEC 3 fault
Elevator L or R fault (in this case only 3 & 4 are inhibited)
Alpha Protection active
Flaps full
Alpha Floor active
Thrust levers > MCT

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20
Q

Weight and Balance (what ways can you get a valid W&B?)

A
  1. AWP
  2. Computer generated via LM or CLP
  3. Flight Crew Readback form via LM or CLP

(Use W&B worksheet - white copy to preplan/AWP, pink copy for final/AWP)

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21
Q

What should the settings be on RMP 3 (if installed)?

A

On

STBY NAV off

HF and AM off

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22
Q

What are the maneuvering speeds in the Airbus? Green dot, S, F for selected flap position?

A

Green Dot = L/Dmax (best glide performance, maneuvering speed, LRC)

S Speed = Minimum slat retract speed

F Speed = Minimum flap retract speed

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23
Q

What powers the AC ess bus and DC ess bus if both engine-driven gens are lost and the airspeed is above 100kts?

A

RAT extends automatically when both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are lost. This system supplies power to the AC ESS BUS and the DC ESS BUS through the ESS TR.

PFD1/EWD will initiall be powered

ND1/MCDU1 will be recovered when emer gen is powerd

140 kts – the RAT will begin to stall

125 kts – the RAT will stall, ND1/MCDU1 will be depowered

100 kts – DC BATT bus connects for APU starting

50 kts – AC ESS BUS sheds and all screens shut off (MAV)

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24
Q

When is an auto-land required?

A

< CAT I minimums

Policy: set up/brief an autoland if the reported RVR/visibility <= 1/2 mile or 2400 RVR, and all of the requirements for an autoland can be met (environmental, aircraft approach capability, ground equipment, etc.)

NOTE: If one of the autoland requirements cannot be met (e.g., strong crosswind), a non-autoland CAT I approach may be conducted down to our lowest authorized CAT I minimums, i.e., 1800 RVR or as published

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25
Q

During engine start with the thrust levers out of the idle position, will the engines start?

A

Yes, the engines will start. Caution must be used, as thrust will increase rapidly to the corresponding thrust lever position.

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26
Q

During engine start, the electric power supply is interrupted. What is our action?

A

Abort start by switching off the master switch. Perform 30-second dry crank.

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27
Q

If you lose blue hydraulic system fluid, is the RAT available?

A

No.

The blue system supplies hydraulic fluid power the RAT for the emergency generator electrical power.

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28
Q

If brake accumulator pressure is not in green band, how can it be charged?

A

Select the YELLOW ELECTRIC pump switch to on.

Do not switch the Y electric pump to the on position at the gate without first consulting with the ground crew to make sure everyone is clear of the aircraft.

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29
Q

While conducting an ECAM procedure, what are the 5 things the PF is responsible for?

A

Thrust levers

Control of flight path/airspeed

Aircraft configuration (request configuration changes)

Navigation

Communications

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30
Q

What protections are available in Normal Law, Alternate Law, Direct Law?

A

NORMAL LAW PROTECTIONS (BYPALS)

BANK = 67° (green =)

YAW = Turn coordination and yaw damping

PITCH

20-30° nose up pitch depending on speed/config (green =)

15° nose down protection (green =)

AOA

Vls (lowest selectable) if autoflight active, OR

Alpha Protection/Alpha Floor (AT function), OR

Alpha Max

LOAD =

-1 - +2.5 G clean

0 - +2.0 G flaps out

SPEED

High Speed protection: Vmo +6/Mmo + .01

Full down stick limit Vmo+30/Mmo+.07

ALTERNATE LAW PROTECTIONS

BANK

No bank angle protections

Amber X 67° of bank

YAW = YD only, no TC

PITCH

No pitch protections

Amber X at 15° down/30°up

AOA =

No protections

Aircraft will give Vstall warning “STALL-STALL-STALL”

LOAD = same as Normal Law

SPEED

No high-speed protections

DIRECT LAW PROTECTION

BANK

Same as Alternate Law (no protection, amber X)

YAW

Mechanical rudder

PITCH

Same as Alternate Law (no protection, amber X’s)

AOA

Same as Alternate Law (“STALL-STALL-STALL”)

LOAD

No protections

SPEED

No high-speed protections

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31
Q

If you were preparing for a CAT IIIB approach and the standby altimeter failed, would it affect your CAT status or capability in any way?

A

Yes, you would be limited to a CAT I approach

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32
Q

What is the lowest RVR you could use for takeoff from DEN 34R, assuming all lights are working?

A

5/5/5

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33
Q

What is the minimum oil quantity for flight?

A

11.5 qts + 0.5 qts / estimated flight hour

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34
Q

When is a TO alternate required?

What are the requirments for a TO alternate?

A

If the weather at the departure airport is below CAT I landing minimums for the departure airport, a takeoff alternate is required that meets the following requirements:

Single-engine cruise speed

Still air

(Be within 330 NM of departure airport)

Method 1 dispatch

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35
Q

What do the FACs do?

A

BeSWiFT RATTY

Beta target

“Speed speed speed” (flaps 2-FULL/100-2,000 AGL)

Wind shear reactive to 1300agl

Flight Envelope Protections (airspeed scale)

Tail:

Rudder limiting

Alternate law yaw

Trim for THS

Turn coordination

Yaw damping

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36
Q

After landing when do we perform an IRS performance check? What are the limits?

A

NAV TIME is the cumulate block time since the latest IRS alignment (fast or complete).

On the MCDU POSITION MONITOR page, compare the deviation of each IRS position to the FMGC position and check that the values do not exceed the charted values.

5 hrs baseline number

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37
Q

If a circuit breaker pops on the ground or in flight, can we reset them?

A

On the ground

Do not reset fuel pump or LiveTV CBs

May reset any other CB provided the action is coordinated with MOC, and the cause of the tripped CB has been ID’d

In flight

Do not reset any CB unless the Captain judges it necessary for the safe continuation of flight, and only as a last resort.

May only reset once.

Do not reset LiveTV CB.

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38
Q

What items are checked on the T.O. Config?

A

Rudder or THS out of range

Flaps/slats

Speed brakes

Side stick fault

Door

Brakes hot

Fuel tank low pressure

Hydraulic pump low pressure

Parking brake on

Gen fault/Gen off/IDG disco

39
Q

At the gate with engines off, you turn on the yellow electric hydraulic pump. Will this action pressurize the green hydraulic system?

A

Yes. The YELLOW ELECTRIC pump will pressurize both the GREEN and YELLOW hydraulic systems VIA the PTU (Power Transfer Unit) when > 500 psid between the YELLOW and GREEN hydraulic systems.

40
Q

When is it appropriate to call “continuing” on an approach?

A

“Continuing” is called by the PF if ALS is in sight

41
Q

Indications for APU fire test without AC power

A

(2)

APU FIRE pushbutton

SQUIB light/DISCH light

42
Q

How do you perform an alternate brake check?

A

Y ELEC PUMP………. Check Off

CHOCKS …………….. Check Installed

PARKING BRAKE……OFF

BRAKE PEDALS…….. PRESS

Apply maximum pressure on both pedals

BRAKE PRESSURE……Check

Pressure build-up should occur symmetrically and without delay on both sides. With full deflection of the brake pedals, pressure MUST be between 2000 and 2700 PSI on the triple indicator gauge.

BRAKE PEDALS………Release

PARKING BRAKE…….On

43
Q

MEL/CDL/NEF Repair Categories/Durations

A

A - As specified

B - 3 calendar days

C - 10 calendar days

D - 120 calendar days

L - CDLs - 365 calendar days

R - NEFs - 120 calendar days

44
Q

What is the required response to a “SINK RATE” aural warning?

A

“Go around” because vertical speed has become greater than 1000 fpm, and the approach is no longer stabilized

45
Q

Explain Method 1 & Method 2, and Standard Strategy & Obstacle Strategy.

Where is the information listed?

A

Method 1

  • V1 to destination
  • 1000’ above within 5 sm
  • All TO alternates

Method 2

  • Cruise altitude to DD alternate
  • 2000’ above within 5 sm

STANDARD STRATEGY

MCT @ M.78/300

Descend to LRC cig/speed

Thence, idle/M.78/300/250

OBSTACLE STRATEGY

MCT @ Green Dot

Obs cleared: Use Standard Strat to accel to LRC

Obs not cleared: Keep MCT @ Green Dot

Thence, idle/M.78/300/250

33% increase in fuel burn over BEI burn

Listed on dispatch release

46
Q

What are speed additives for icing conditions?

A

CONF Full = Vls + 5

Conf 3 - Vls + 10, and 1.15 x LD

47
Q

What color is the NW STRG DISC ECAM message?

A

Green with both engines off
Amber with one or both engines running

48
Q

What flight release paperwork is required to be onboard before a flight can block out?

A

Dispatch/flight release

Flight plan

Latest available weather (METAR/TAF)

NOTAMs

Performance information (AWP or TLR)

Weight and balance manifest

49
Q

When may a single engine auto-land be done, and in what configuration?

A

Frontier limitations prohibit the use of single-engine autoland approaches. However, if the flight crew determines it to be the safest course of action for the approach, they may use their emergency authority to complete the single-engine autoland approach. If the single-engine auto-land is used, it will be done in the “CONFIG FULL” configuration.

50
Q

Use of MEL vs. QRH, on ground and in flight

A

MEL is the controlling document until application of takeoff power.

In flight, refer to MI/OEB/ECAM/QRH.

51
Q

What are the 4 requirements to accept an RNAV departure?

A

Cross track error deviation should be limited to .5nm

SID/STAR must be retrieved from the nav DB by name

Pilot must use FD or AP in LNAV

Pilot must be able to engage the RNAV flight guidance no later than 500’ AFE

52
Q

What equipment must be operating prior to entering RVSM airspace?

A

Flight Warning Computer (altitude alerter)

Flight Control Unit

AP

Transponder

2 PFD’s

2 ADR’s (Air Data Reference) (#1 is required)

2 DMC’s (Display Monitoring Computer)

53
Q

How does a pilot initiate the call to the FAs to inform them to prepare the cabin for possible evacuation?

How does a “cabin advisory” differ from an “emergency preparation”?

A

TEST

  • Emergency call button
  • Type of emergency
  • Evac is anticipated
  • Signals (3)
    • Brace x3
    • Remain seated x3
    • Evacuate x3
  • Time to landing

Cabin Advisory

  • Normal Call button
  • Nature of irregularity
  • New flight plan
  • Emergency Prep is not anticipated
54
Q

Holding Speeds (US & Mexico)

A

US

6,000 - 200

6,001 - 14,000 - 230

14,001 - 265

Mexico

6,000 - 200

6,001 - 14,000 - 210

14,001 - 230

55
Q

Which leading edge devices are ice protected? Is the tail ice protected?

A

The outboard 3 slats on each wing are heated (3, 4, 5)

The tail is not ice protected

56
Q

After engine start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine drain mast. What is our action?

A

Run the engine for 5 minutes at idle speed. If the leak disappears in those 5 minutes, no further action is required by the flight crew. If the leak is still present after those 5 minutes, maintenance action is required before flight.

57
Q

What does centering the beta target with the bank index do?

Under what conditions are beta target displayed?

A

In the event of an engine failure during TOGA, the sideslip index changes to blue. When this index is centered with the roll index, the sideslip equals the sideslip target for optimum performance.

(ENG N1 >= 80% with > 35% difference in N1)

58
Q

What action is taken at minimums when landing from a non-precision approach?

A

If appropriate visual references are in sight:

AP off

FDs off

59
Q

Which ECAMs are not inhibited on takeoff?

A

Engine fire/APU fire

Side stick fault/dual input

L and R elevator fault

FWC 1 and 2 fault

Dual engine failure

60
Q

Minimum battery voltage, and what it assures

A

25.5 V, which ensures a charge above 50% on the batteries

61
Q

When is an exterior inspection required?

A

Preflight and postflight

Postflight may be omitted if crew must proceed to customs, or if outbound crew is present

62
Q

When do you select flaps full on a single engine approach?

A

“FLAPS FULL” should not be selected on a single engine approach until the aircraft is established on the final descent to an assured landing. If a level off is expected during the final approach the approach and landing should be performed at “FLAP 3.”

63
Q

Alpha Lock

A

Inhibits Slats retraction at high angles of attack and low speeds.

Active when AOA > 8.5° UP until < 7.6°, or

when airspeed < 148 kts until > 154 kts.

64
Q

What is the definition of marginal weather?

A

The weather is considered marginal if the ceiling is within 100 ft or the visibility is within 1⁄2sm of the minimums for the destination airport and the weather at the alternate airport is within 100 ft and 1⁄2sm of the derived alternate minimums.

65
Q

Alternate Law

A
  • MFORS

Amber X’s on PFD

Amber ALTN LAW: PROT LOST on ECAM

BYPALS

  • BANK - X’s at 67 degrees
  • YAW - YD only
  • PITCH - X’s at 30 up/15 down
  • AOA - Vls & Vsw
  • LOAD - Same as Normal
  • SPEED -

Modes

  • GROUND - Same as Normal
  • FLIGHT - Same as Normal, but goes to Direct with LG and AP off
    • No AOA protections - A/C will pitch down if slow, but side stick can override all the way to stall/”crickets”
    • No Vmax, but Vmo/Mmo exceedance will cause pitch up, which side stick can override

Jet Upset

Entered with extreme attitudes

After recovery from the unusual attitude, the following laws are active for the remainder of the flight:

  • Pitch: Alternate law without protections and with auto trim.
  • Roll: Direct law
  • Yaw: Alternate law

There is no reversion to Direct Law when the landing gear is extended.

66
Q

Why should the Captain wait to call for the After Start Checklist until after visually confirming that the tow bar has been disconnected?

A

To visually confirm that the tow bar is disconnected

67
Q

Do you have anti-skid if you lose your normal braking?

A

Yes, provided the ANTI-SKID & N/W STRG switch is on. The BSCU controls the anti-skid through the alternate servo valves.

68
Q

What is the max recommended thrust to be used to get the aircraft to move on the ramp?

A

Not to exceed 40% N1. Once the aircraft starts to move, very little thrust is required.

69
Q

Explain Normal Law

A

NORMAL LAW - Normal operating configuration of the system.

BYPALS

  • Bank - 33/67 (45/40), roll rate demand
  • Yaw - TC & YD
  • Pitch - LF demand (AOA below A-Prot)
    • 0-3 - 25-30, (25/22)
    • Full - 20-25 (25/22)
    • 15 down (13/10)
  • AOA - Vmax, Vls, A-Prot, A-Max, A-Floor
  • Load - Design structural
  • Speed - Vmo+6, Vmo+30 override

PHASES

  • Ground - Direct proportional relationship between sidestick deflection and deflection of the flight controls.
  • Flight - TO + 5 seconds
  • Flare - 50’ snapshot, 30’ 8sec/2deg pitch down
  • Ground - Resets THS to 0
70
Q

During cockpit preparation, when turning bat 1 & 2 off then on, what are we looking for?

A

Initiates charging cycle.

Look for 25.5V minimum, which ensures > 50% battery charge

If amperage does not drop, the crew must wait until the charging cycle of the batteries is complete (20 minutes) before re-testing.

(ECAM ELEC page should show bat amps drop < 60A within 10 seconds and continue to decrease.)

71
Q

If the pilot manually tunes a frequency thru the RAD/NAV function, does it affect the auto tuning of the FMGC?

A

Yes. It may prevent the FMGC from automatically tuning a VOR/DME to compute a position.

72
Q

What does “RNAV 1” mean?

A

RNAV 1 SIDs and STARs must maintain a total system error of not more than 1.0nm for 95% of the total flight time. (RNP 1.0) All pilots are expected to maintain route centerlines, as depicted by onboard flight guidance during all RNAV operations unless authorized to deviate by ATC or under emergency conditions. Cross-track errors/deviation should be limited to 0.5 NM.

73
Q

Is F9 authorized to fly circle to land approaches? Is F9 authorized to perform circle to land maneuvers? If so, what are the minimums?

A

Frontier is not authorized to conduct Circle to Land approaches.

To perform a circle to land maneuver you must have at least 1000/3 or published circling minimums, whichever is greater

FRONTIER AIRLINES DOES NOT HAVE ANY AIRCRAFT LISTED IN OPS SPECS C070 TO DO A CIRCLE TO LAND MANEUVER AT A PUBLISHED MDA BELOW 1000FT HAA.

74
Q

How do you get out of “TOGA LOCK” triggered by “A FLOOR”?

A

MATCH the TLs to TOGA thrust, MASH the A/THR button, reset the TLs to CLB, re-engage A/THR.

75
Q

How many wing walkers are required to park the plane at the gate?

A

2, however

Parking an aircraft at the gate or within close proximity to equipment or structures requires a marshaller to guide the aircraft. One or more wing walkers may be used at the discretion of the marshaller, or the marshaller may determine wing walkers are unnecessary.

76
Q

How must an approach be conducted when visibility is 1⁄2 mi or RVR 2400 ft or less?

A

The approach must be briefed and flown as an autoland with the captain acting as the pilot flying

CAT II or CAT III runway available

The aircraft is autoland capable

Both crewmembers are trained for autoland

77
Q

First flight of the day: The electric system is supplied with AC power. Is the bat voltage check required?

A

No, if the aircraft is supplied with AC power

78
Q

How do we compute landing distance? Normal procedures. Alternate procedure.

A

Normal Procedures - AOC

Alternate Procedure

QRH for RFL

Vol II for Approach Climb limit

Notes

MEL correction factors do not necessitate use of “with failure” tables

79
Q

Who is the pilot flying on the ground?

A

Captain is the PF on the ground for the purpose of ECAM actions.

80
Q

During cockpit preparation, when setting QNH on the FCU, what is the max altitude difference between PFD 1 & 2?

A

20’

100’ either PFD to ISIS

300’ either PFD to mechanical

81
Q

Who normally performs the Engine Fire Warning test on the preliminary set up flow?

A

FO normally performs these tests, but the Captain can also complete them

82
Q

How must an approach be flown if visibility is below 3/4sm or 4000 RVR?

A

Autopilot coupled, add 15% to landing distance

83
Q

Who has the authority to cancel a flight?

A

Only Systems Operations Control (SOC) has the authority to cancel a flight.

84
Q

When is a crew briefing required?

A
  • Prior to the first flight of the day.

If a crewmember change occurs, the Captain should complete an additional crew briefing with the new crewmember prior to that flight.

If a crew briefing cannot be accomplished prior to the first flight of the day or prior to the flight in the event of a crewmember change, the Captain should ensure that at least the FO and preferably the “A” FA have received the crew briefing. The briefed FA will then be responsible for briefing the other FAs in this situation, and those FAs who were not briefed by the Captain should try to stop by the flight deck prior to departure to identify themselves as crewmembers to the Captain.

85
Q

Discuss Captain/Dispatcher responsibility

A

The Captain and Dispatcher are jointly responsible for the preflight planning of each flight and shall determine the suitability of the weather, field, traffic and airway facilities on that particular flight. Both the Captain and the Dispatcher have the authority to delay the flight. If during the course of operations, the PIC or Dispatcher determine the flight cannot be completed safely, the PIC may not allow the flight to continue to the planned destination.

86
Q

In-flight landing distance problem (with single failure).

A
  • If the inop item is under MEL, use “without failure” flow chart.

MEL CONSIDERATIONS

Some MEL items may affect landing distance. For these items, the MEL provides a coefficient that the flight crew must apply on top of the computed In-Flight Landing Distance. AN MEL IS NOT AN IN-FLIGHT “FAILURE.” THEREFORE, IF NO QRH PROCEDURE HAS BEEN APPLIED IN FLIGHT, AND AN MEL IS PRESENT, USE THE “WITHOUT FAILURE” QRH COMPUTATIONS.

GENERAL FORMULA OF THE LANDING DISTANCE ASSESSMENT

Taking the above into consideration, the flight crew should determine the landing distance (either with or without failure), called the Factored Landing Distance in the QRH, following the below general formula:

The QRH now contains two flow diagrams designed to simplify/clarify the Landing Performance computation procedures:

  • METHOD TO DETERMINE AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE AT LANDING WITHOUT OR WITH FAILURE
  • METHOD TO DETERMINE AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE AT LANDING WITH SEVERAL FAILURES

ABNORMAL OPERATIONS

The calculations for Vapp and Landing Distance with “failure” are similar to the “without failure” computations as described above. The “METHOD TO DETERMINE AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE AT LANDING WITHOUT OR WITH FAILURE” flow chart should be used unless there are multiple failures affecting landing performance. For multiple failures, use the “METHOD TO DETERMINE AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE AT LANDING WITH SEVERAL FAILURES” flowchart (This chart is to be used for separate failures affecting landing performance, not Secondary failures that are a part of the Primary failure. The impact of Secondary failures is included in the landing performance tables for the Primary failure).

87
Q

When do we use the FPV/director for approaches?

A

For Managed/Selected and Selected/Selected NPAs, the flight path director (TRK-FPA) will be used because it allows the pilot to set the desired FPA for approaches that use selected vertical guidance and enables the FPV (“bird”) when the flight directors are turned off for the visual transition to landing.

88
Q

When is the AP required for an approach?

A

< 3/4 SM or 4000 RVR

Autopilot available

115% of LFD must be available

89
Q

Direct Law

A

Multiple computer failures.

Amber USE MAN PITCH TRIM on PFD

Pilot control inputs are transmitted unmodified to the control surfaces, providing a direct relationship between sidestick and control surface.

Control sensitivity depends on airspeed and NO auto trimming is available.

If the flight controls degrade to Alternate Law, Direct Law automatically becomes active when the LG is extended, if no AP is engaged. If an autopilot is engaged, the airplane will remain in Alternate Law until the autopilot is disconnected.

There are no protections provided in Direct Law. However, overspeed and stall aural warnings are provided.

The PFD airspeed scale remains the same as in Alternate Law.

FMA displays amber MANUAL PITCH TRIM ONLY

Behaves like conventional aircraft

No auto trim

Rudder pedals required for TC

Alternate Law pitch reverts to Direct Law with LG down and AP off

90
Q

What is the lowest authorized RVR for takeoff?

A

5/5/5, with HIRL and CL

91
Q

What do you do if the aircraft starts to move with the parking brake on?

A

If the aircraft starts to move with the parking brake on, immediately release the parking brake and restore braking with the pedals

92
Q

When is a logbook entry required for a computer reset?

A

A successful reset must be entered into the aircraft logbook as a “CR” (Computer Reset) item.

If a computer/system cannot be successfully reset, it must be entered into the aircraft logbook as a discrepancy.

93
Q

When may we fly to a published MDA?

A

Never: Whenever an MDA or MDH is published for an approach, we must use a DDA and constant FPA/descent to the DDA.

Frontier (6 decks)

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