OCS Flashcards

1
Q

Define ‘clearance limit’

A
  • aerodrome of first intended landing, significant point or airspace boundary
  • if intending to carry out instrument approaches at several aerodromes, clearance limit is the first aerodrome
  • MOA or other suitable point
  • if in and out of controlled airspace, clearance limit is the first aerodrome of intended landing. clearance only applies to portion inside controlled airspace, traffic info given for portion outside controlled airspace
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2
Q

What are the back coordination requirements for following sectors:
a) Brisbane b) Nadi c) Oakland d) Tahiti e) Santiago

A

10 minutes for all

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3
Q

Describe how controllers may extend a protected profile for an aircraft beyond it’s ETA at destination, including any provisos related to the procedure

A

issuing a clearance extending the route beyond current end point or to hold at end point. clearance must be issued before the aircraft reaches the end point

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4
Q

OCS does not detect conflicts with respect to holding pattern procedures. Describe how a controller may protect a holding aircraft and what guidance is provided with respect to holding pattern radius

A

creation of airspace reservation centred on the holding point. 20NM radius - provides additional 50NM separation

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5
Q

What shall controllers do when OCS detects a conflict between aircraft in uncontrolled airspace?

A

pass traffic information

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6
Q

What procedures should an oceanic controller follow so that OCS will detect conflicts with VFR flights?

A

enter an appropriate block altitude

  • F030 to F130 for unpressurised aircraft
  • F030 to F245 for pressurised aircraft
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7
Q

What rules are associated with the use of autoroute?

A
  • shall be selected on at all times
  • should be turned off following coordination
  • may be turned on as a reminder
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8
Q

What actions must a controller follow when MANUALLY cancelling or deleting a flight plan?

A
  • use FPEA window accessed from the datablock or strip

- prior to confirming deletion - check aircraft position on ASD

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9
Q

What is the agreed procedure when issuing levels to Southbound Antarctic flights?

A

different levels until preceding aircraft is beyond PSR time or ETA at DEST

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10
Q

May oceanic controller clear non-RVSM aircraft to climb or descend through the RVSM stratum within the Auckland Oceanic FIR?

A

yes

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11
Q

When procedure should be followed when OCS detects a conflict extending across and international FIR boundary?

A

if responsibility is being delegated the phraseology to be used is
YOUR SEPARATION ……..

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12
Q

What procedure should be followed when OCS detects a conflict contained wholly within an adjacent FIR?

A

If start or finish times are within 10 minutes of boundary:

“OCS SHOWS A CONFLICT BETWEEN ….. AT FLIGHT LEVEL………”

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13
Q

Detail the 3 occasions where non-RVSM civil aircraft may flight plan with the intention of operating in or transiting through the RVSM stratum

A
  • being delivered for initial acceptance, change of ownership or lease
  • was formerly RVSM, has experienced equipment failure and is being flown for repair/approval or transporting a spare engine/strut assembly externally
  • being utilised for mercy or humanitarian purposes
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14
Q

When may an RVSM level be used outside the RVSM stratum?

A

only as part of a block clearance

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15
Q

When is a revised non-RVSM clearance required to be issued to an aircraft operating within the RVSM stratum?

A
  • encountering weather turbulence that affects capability to maintain CFL
  • experiencing wake turbulence
  • experiencing distracting system alerts
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16
Q

Give an example of the descent clearance issued by air-ground for flights destined NCRG, NFTF, NIUE, NSFA and NSTU from above F245

A

WHEN READY/AT OR AFTER ….. DESCENT TO F250. EXPECT FURTHER DESCENT FROM ….. TOWER. AT …… CONTACT ……….

17
Q

What is provision of an alerting service to aircraft departing YSNF based on?

A

EOBT filed in flight plan

18
Q

What is the transfer of control (release) and RTF contact points for aircraft descending into NFTF from the auckland oceanic FIR?

A

F245

RTF top of descent time

19
Q

What is the transfer of control (release) and RTF contact points for aircraft descending into NSTU from the auckland oceanic FIR and to whom is it released?

A

F245
RTF top of descent time
released to Faleolo tower

20
Q

What is the transfer of control (release) and RTF contact points for aircraft departing NSFA and entering the auckland oceanic FIR?

A

common lateral boundary or F245

RTF passing F150

21
Q

What is the coordination point for flights proceeding from the Auckland Oceanic FIR into the NCRG TMA/Cook sector?

A

destination or first waypoint within the Rarotonga TMA or Cook Sector

22
Q

Explain the process to be followed when a PAC message is received from NSFA for an aircraft departing NSFA and entering NFFN airspace within 30 minutes of departure

A

a PAC is sent to Nadi with a climbing condition prior to departure. Auckland is to initiate verbal coordination if ACP is not received when aircraft is within 20 minutes of entering Nadi FIR

23
Q

With respect to an aircraft’s re-entry into the Auckland OCA, when is coordination considered to be complete for a hemstitch flight that vacates the Auckland OCA into the Nadi OCA and less than 30 minutes later re-enters the Auckland OCA?

A

when coordination for initial entry is completed

24
Q

State which of the following neighbouring states apply 50NM lateral separation between RNP10 aircraft
a) Brisbane b) Nadi c) Oakland d) Tahiti e) Santiago f) McMurdo

A

All of them

25
Q

Can Tahiti apply 30NM lateral separation between two RNP4 aircraft and are there any conditions?

A

Yes - meeting RCP240/RSP180

26
Q

Should an NDA message be sent prior to sending a CAD and if so why?

A

Yes - to avoid rejection of the connection request from the next controlling ATSU

27
Q

How should controllers respond to an emergency CPDLC message?

A

using voice or CPDLC
ROGER MAYDAY or
ROGER PAN

28
Q

When restarting the main OCS platform, what is the difference between a hot start and a cold start?

A

hot - restarted using the last system “snapshot” data

cold - using data recovered from the sync servers

29
Q

how are OCS failure conditions categorised?

A

partial failure

OCS main platform stall

30
Q

What procedure shall a controller follow when it is considered than an OCS main platform stall is likely, or a partial failure has occurred and OCS is operating without an operational standby workstation or FDP?

A
  • relocate if necessary to spare workstation and advise TC
  • if not redundancy of failed component, solve all conflicts including orange
  • notify TL if likely to affect operations
31
Q

Name the 3 OCS contingency phases

A
  • Recovery
  • Limited ATS
  • restoration of ATS delivery to the OCS
32
Q

State the objective of the OCS ‘Recovery’ phase

A

to ensure a safe air traffic environment until aircraft have vacated the area

33
Q

During the OCS ‘Recovery’ contingency phase, when are aircraft permitted to enter the Auckland OCA?

A
  • aircraft already coordinated, or
  • limited procedures are activated, or
  • either OCS main or reserve platform has been restored to service
34
Q

What is the objective of the OCS ‘limited ATS’ contingency phase? What restrictions apply to aircraft during this phase?

A

to provide a safe traffic environment to the extent possible given the circumstances and allow aircraft to operate within the Auckland oceanic FIR.

  • airspace is class A
  • flow management procedures apply
  • ATS fixed routes only