OCN practice Questions Flashcards
1
Q
Example of health promotion that has a direct effect on cancer prevention,
A
Smoking cessation program
2
Q
Example of a secondary health prevention intervention is:
A
screening tests
3
Q
HTLV-1 is defined as:
A
virus that causes leukemia
4
Q
A PAP smear tests for:
A
cervical cancer
5
Q
Screens for prostate CA
A
CBC, CMP, PSA
6
Q
Ethnic group at highest for CRC
A
black males
7
Q
Recommended mammogram schedule?
A
Q year after 50
8
Q
Highest screening risk for CA development?
A
Positve BRAC1 BRAC2
9
Q
What is a side effect of EGFR inhibitors?
A
Acneiform rash
10
Q
What chemotherapy agent can cause hemorrhagic cystitis?
A
Cyclophosphamide
11
Q
What hormonal agent is an estrogen receptor antagonist?
A
Fulvestrant
12
Q
What type of adverse event is MOST common with checkpoint inhibitors?
A
Immune-related adverse events
13
Q
What antigen do CAR T-cell therapies target?
A
CD-19
14
Q
In what cell cycle phase do RNA synthesis and the creation of the mitotic spindle apparatus occur?
A
Gap 2
15
Q
What chemotherapy agent is considered an antimetabolite?
A
Capecitabine
16
Q
What is the function of checkpoints in healthy normal cells?
A
It prevents the immune system from overreacting and attacking healthy cells.
17
Q
What factor may increase the likelihood of a patient developing an anxiety disorder?
A
Functional limitations
18
Q
What medication can cause depressive symptoms?
A
interferon
19
Q
Which statement is true about financial issues for patients with cancer?
A
Patients with cancer are at risk for bankruptcy.
20
Q
______________________for cisplatin nephrotoxicity
A
Amifostine or sodium thiosulfate
21
Q
What is the cause of pleural effusion?
A
The increased negative pressure of the pleural space
22
Q
What laboratory value may be indicative of early DIC?
A
Decreased platelets
23
Q
symptoms are seen in a patient presenting with late-onset ICP?
A
Bradycardia, hypertension, and respiratory depression
24
Q
Your patient with metastatic breast cancer is experiencing acute flank pain while lying down. The pain is improved after sitting. What oncologic emergency do you suspect the patient might be experiencing?
A
Early symptoms of spinal cord compression
25
What type of malignancy is a major risk factor in developing SVCS?
Lung cancer
26
Who is at high risk for spinal cord compression?
A patient with breast cancer and bone metastasis
27
What is a PRIMARY treatment option recommended for cancer-related superior vena cava (SVC) syndrome?
Endovascular intervention
28
What malignancy can cause disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
Acute promyelocytic leukemia
29
What metabolic imbalances indicates tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) in a patient newly diagnosed with stage IV Burkitt's lymphoma?
Hyperuricemia, hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia
30
. What is the LATE effect of cancer surgery?
Premature menopause
31
A patient diagnosed with colorectal cancer is 170 cm tall and weighs 80 kg. The treatment plan includes irinotecan (Camptosar) 180 mg/m2 IV. What is the total dose of irinotecan that this patient will receive?
350 mg To calculate the body surface area (BSA), first, multiply 170 by 80. The result of 13600 is then divided by 3600, which equals 3.777. Next, take the square root of 3.777, which equals 1.94. The BSA of 1.94 is then multiplied by the dose of 180 mg, totaling 349.8 mg.
32
What type of infection is associated with an increased cancer risk?
Epstein Barr Virus (EBV)
33
What factors facilitate cancer development?
Epigenetics
34
What is a patient indicator of hereditary cancer risk?
Key indicators of hereditary cancer risk include early onset cancer. Other features related to hereditary cancer include an unusual presentation such as male breast cancer, rare tumor histology, and epithelial ovarian, fallopian tube, or primary peritoneal cancer.
35
What are the symptoms of treatment-related cardiac toxicity?
Symptoms of cardiac toxicity include hypertension, cough, and edema. Chest pain, shortness of breath, and palpitations are symptoms of acute myocardial infarction.
36
What type of cancer has the GREATEST incidence of malignant ascites?
Ovarian
37
What interventions are likely to be beneficial in preventing infectious complications after a hematopoietic cell transplant?
Antimicrobial therapy
38
What is the absolute neutrophil count for a patient with a white blood cell count of 2.5 K/ 0…8L with 15% polysegmented neutrophils and 5% bands?
500 K/µL The absolute neutrophil count can be calculated by adding polysegmented neutrophils and bands, multiplying this number by 10, and multiplying by white blood cell count (15+5 = 20) x 10 x 2.5 = 500 K/ µL.
39
What complementary therapy has shown to be beneficial in managing cancer pain?
Music therapy
40
What radiation side effect is MOST commonly experienced by patients?
Skin changes
41
Your patient is experiencing grade 2 diarrhea and abdominal pain after ipilimumab (Yervoy) administration. An infectious source has been ruled out. What drug do you anticipate receiving an order for, in the management of immune-related diarrhea?
Prednisone (Deltasone) Immune-related grade 2 diarrhea is treated with oral prednisone. Mild diarrhea or grade 1 is treated with loperamide or atropine/ diphenoxylate.
42
What is a disease-related risk factor for depression in patients with cancer?
Head and neck cancer
43
What external beam radiation dose increases the risk for endocrine dysfunction?
40 cGy
44
What is the significance of sarcopenia in advanced cancer?
Sarcopenia (age-related loss of muscle mass and strength) is associated with low-grade chronic inflammation and is an independent factor of poor prognosis.
45
What information is needed PRIOR to therapy initiation with Cetuximab (Erbitux) or panitumumab (Vectibix) in colorectal cancer?
KRAS mutation status
46
What are the side effects of antiandrogen therapy you should educate a patient about when starting treatment?
Insulin resistance, loss of libido, and decreased bone density
47
What is an indication for blood transfusion in a patient with leukemia diagnosed with anemia?
Sustained tachycardia and severe fatigue are indications for blood transfusion in hospitalized patients with anemia. Bradycardia and hypotension are not indications for blood transfusion to manage anemia.
48
What gene is involved in normal cell growth, and when mutated, it becomes an oncogene?
A proto-oncogene is a regular version of a gene, which if mutated, can become an oncogene that promotes and makes possible the growth of cancer cells. A pseudogene is a segment of DNA that resembles a gene but is incapable of coding for a protein.
49
You read the patient's pathology report and noticed that the patient is diagnosed with invasive ductal carcinoma in situ grade 2. What does the cancer grading mean?
Grade 2 means the cancer is moderately or intermediate grade. This means the cancer cells are growing at a speed between grades 1 and 3. Poorly differentiated or grade 3 means the cancer cells look very different from normal cells and grow faster.
50
Definition Apoptosis
programmed cell death, is a natural process where cells self-destruct, eliminating damaged or unnecessary cells without causing inflammation or harm to surrounding tissues.
51
Cervical cancer screening
Age 25–65: A primary HPV test every 5 years. If a primary HPV test is not available, a Pap test every 3 years or an HPV test with a Pap test every 5 years
Age 65+: Do not test if normal results for past 10 years
History of serious cervical precancer: Test for 25 years after diagnosis, even if testing goes past age 65
52
Colorectal cancer screening
Age 45–75: Annual physical examination and fecal occult blood test; colonoscopy every 3–5 years
53
Lung cancer screening
50–80 years: Annual low-dose helical CT
54
Ovarian cancer screening
Average risk: no recommendations
High risk: Transvaginal ultrasound plus CA-125 Test
55
Prostate cancer screening
Age 45 years: If high risk, discuss pros and cons of PSA blood test with/without DRE with healthcare provider
Age 50 years: Discuss pros and cons of PSA blood test with/without DRE with healthcare provider
56
tests available for testicular cancer
There are no specific screening tests available for testicular cancer; however, it is highly recommended that men practice self-testicular examination as well as have an annual physical exam.
57
Which genetic screening test is useful in determining the risk of recurrence in prostate cancer?
Prolaris
58
Question
Which of the following patients is MOST LIKELY to require a bone marrow transplant?
A.An 80-year-old male with ALL in remission
B.A 35-year-old female with AML, normal cytogenetics
C.A 60-year-old female with AML, TP53 mutation
D.A 45-year-old male with CML in remission
A 60-year-old female with AML, TP53 mutation
59
Question
Which treatment medications interfere with cross-matching and red blood cell antibody and red blood cell antibody screening and require a type and screen drawn prior to initiating treatment
Daratumumab and Isatuximab-Irfc
60
Paclitaxel can cause which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Paclitaxel can cause type 1 allergic/hypersensitivity reaction. It is an acute-onset allergic reaction that can manifest within minutes. Signs and symptoms include facial flushing, hives, itching, shortness of breath, chest pain, and swelling (angioedema). Reactions can be caused by chemotherapy (taxanes such as paclitaxel, l-Asparaginas, Bleomycin) and biotherapy agents (monoclonal antibodies).
61
Administer antinausea medications
Ifosfamide (Ifex) can cause acute and delayed nausea, so the nurse should administer antinausea medications. Ifosfamide (Ifex) causes diarrhea, not constipation. Fluids should be encouraged to protect the kidneys. Pain medication is not indicated for this chemotherapy.
62
Radioembolization utilizes which radioisotopes to cause tumor necrosis?
Yttrium-90 is used with radioembolization of the liver to cause tumor necrosis. Mylotarg is used in lymphoma patients, I-131 is used for thyroid malignancies. Yttrium-35 is used to make microwaves; it is not used in healthcare
63
Which biomarker is required for the diagnosis of multiple myeloma?
Clonal bone marrow plasma cell percentage ≥60%
64
Question
The correct order of the stages of carcinogenesis is:
Initiation, promotion, transformation, progression
65
Question
A patient presents with a 2-cm scaly red bleeding lesion on the right side of the face, close to the ear, which will not heal. The nurse suspects:
Squamous cell carcinoma
Red rough scaly patches that bleed, become crusty, and do not heal are indicative of squamous cell carcinoma. Melanoma is not isolated to the face and follows the ABCDE rule. Basal cell carcinoma is usually located closer to the forehead. Merkel cell cancer can be normal skin color or have hues of red, blue, and purple.
66
Mohs Surgery
Invasive surgery performed with larger and/or recurrent skin cancers. The procedure allows the provider to remove each layer of skin at a time and stop when no more cancer cells are identified. Usually used on delicate areas on the face or nose
67
Stereotactic Radiosurgery (SRS; also known as Gamma Knife):
Delivers high doses of radiation to specific parts of the brain; used to treat brain metastases.
68
Common risk factors for both HL and NHL include:
Age, gender, family history, and genetic mutations
69
radioisotope used in lymphoma?
Mylotarg
70
radioisotope used for thyroid malignancies.
I-131
71
previous chemo or radiation
72
Which system is used to stage lymphomas?
Lugano Classification
The Lugano Classification is used to stage lymphomas. It is based on the Ann Arbor system. TNM is used to stage solid cancers, and grading is a pathology system.
73
pancreatic CA marker
Ca 19.9
74
The Child-Pugh score
measures liver function, especially in people with cirrhosis. A patient with a score of B is usually not recommended for surgery. A patient with an A score typically has enough liver function to undergo surgery and recover without complications
75
Tumor Markers for Testicular Cancer
alfa feta protein AFP) and human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG).
76
Exposure to trichloroethylene (TCE)
A risk factor for renal cell carcinoma
77
Which agents are used prophylactically against radiation pneumonitis?
Amifostine and clarithromycin
78
Patient Education for the Use of I-131
Drink water hourly during the first 8 hours
Urination and use of bathroom
Sit while urinating (men and women)
Flush toilet twice
Use a private bathroom
Maintain social distancing of at least 3 feet from family and friends
Avoid public areas
Do not share the following:
Eating utensils
Towels and washcloths
Bed linens
Clothing
Sleep alone for 7 days
Avoid contact with pregnant women and small children for 7 days
79
Which treatment will the nurse anticipate for a patient with stage I medullary thyroid cancer status post thyroidectomy?
I-131 is the most common treatment following a thyroidectomy. Chemotherapy, radiation, and carboplatin are used in advanced stages.
80
The International Staging System was revised in 2015 to include which two prognostic indicators?
Serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and high-risk chromosomal abnormalities acquired from the bone marrow biopsy
81
Which of the CRAB symptoms is the most common symptom present when multiple myeloma is diagnosed?
Anemia
At time of diagnosis, approximately 73% of patients present with symptoms of anemia, 67% present with symptoms of bone pain, and 32% present with fatigue or generalized weakness. Neuropathy is not a common presenting symptom
82
Which of these education points should be addressed when a patient is being discharged from receiving internal cervical radiation therapy?
Tell the patient to avoid direct contact with small children
Patients who receive internal radiation need to avoid children and pregnant women for a specific time frame. Internal radiation therapy does have restrictions. Blood counts are typically affected with chemotherapy, not radiation therapy. Radiation badges are used only by healthcare providers.
83
Alkylating Agents * Antitumor Antibiotics (Vesicants) extravasation Tx
Anthracycline: Doxorubicin, daunorubicin, epirubicin
Miscellaneous: Mitoxantrone, bleomycin
Nitrogen mustards: Chlorambucil, cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide, melphalan
Nitrosoureas: Carmustine, lomustine, streptozocin
Alkyl sulfonates: Busulfan
Triazines: Dacarbazine
Ethylenimines: Thiotepa
Cold compress
Sodium thiosulfate
84
Antitumor Antibiotics (Vesicants) Antitumor Antibiotics (Vesicants) extravasation Tx
Anthracycline: Doxorubicin, daunorubicin, epirubicin
Miscellaneous: Mitoxantrone, bleomycin
Anthracycline: Doxorubicin, daunorubicin, epirubicin
Miscellaneous: Mitoxantrone, bleomycin
Cold compress
Dexrazoxane for 3 days (anthracyclines)
85
Taxanes (Plant Alkaloids) extravasation Tx
Paclitaxel, docetaxel
Cold compress
Hyaluronidase
86
Vinca Alkaloids (Vesicants) extravasation Tx
Vinblastine, vinorelbine, vincristine
Warm compress
Hyaluronidase
87
The first-line treatment for a patient experiencing photoallergic reactions is:
Topical steroids
Topical steroids are the first-line treatment for photoallergic reactions. Systematic therapy is used for other skin reactions, such as hypersensitivity reactions.
88
The International Staging System was revised in 2015 to include which two prognostic indicators?
Serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and high-risk chromosomal abnormalities acquired from the bone marrow biopsy
The ISS Revised Staging System is a simple and reliable prognostic staging system that stratifies MM patients using LDH and high-risk chromosomal abnormalities which helps guide risk adapted treatment. It was revised in 2015 to include serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and high-risk chromosomal abnormalities acquired from the bone marrow biopsy.
89
Tumor Lysis Syndrome S/S
fatigue/weakness, peripheral neuropathy, irritability, nausea/ vomiting, decreased cloudy urine production, muscle cramping, and pain.
90
Tumor Lysis Syndrome TX
Hydration: Increase fluids to flush the kidneys and excrete the toxins released from the tumor lysis.
Allopurinol: It is normally initiated as a preventive measure in high-risk patients 2 to 3 days prior to the commencement of therapy. Allopurinol blocks the formation of uric acid and crystals; however, it is not the drug of choice in the treatment of acute TLS because it is slower acting.
Diuretics: Used to increase urine production and the renal secretion of potassium. Most commonly diuretics used are furosemide (Lasix) and mannitol (Resectisol).
Rasburicase: Oxidizes uric acid into allantoin, which is more easily excretable. In addition, it usually lowers uric acid levels within 24 hours; therefore, it is the drug of choice in the treatment of acute TLS.
Dialysis: May be prescribed if the above treatments are ineffective and the kidneys are not functioning.
91
7th cycle Tx reaction agent
carboplatin
92
type of testicular CA responsive to radiation Tc
seminomas
93
Ixempra (ixabepilone) is used to treat metastatic:
breast CA
94
Which medications can increase risk for blood clots?
Tamoxifen (Nolvadex), lenalidomide (Revlimid), thalidomide
95
Which of the following treatments is MOST appropriate for a 24-year male patient with acute myeloid leukemia who just completed induction therapy?
Allogeneic stem cell transplant
96
A patient newly diagnosed with acute myeloid leukemia is admitted for emergent induction therapy. The nurse anticipates that which of the following interventions will be prescribed?
Cytarabine and an anthracycline
Cytarabine and anthracycline will most likely be prescribed for a patient with acute myeloid leukemia admitted for emergent induction therapy. Radiation would not be used as single agent, nor would cytarabine. A stem cell transplant may be recommended but not for induction therapy.
97
Photodynamic therapy is used to treat:
Squamous cell cancer and basal cell cancers
98
A site participating in a multicenter treatment trial reports a serious adverse event to the sponsor within 24 hours of occurrence. The sponsor must report the serious adverse event to the FDA within:
15 days of notification
99
The MOST significant risk factor for melanoma is:
Personal history of atypical nevus syndrome
100
late signs or symptoms of lung cance
Late signs and symptoms of lung cancer include weight loss, loss of appetite, headaches, bone pain or fractures, and blood clots.
101
A screening test with a specificity of 90% indicates that:
. 90% of those who do not have the disease will test negative
Specificity is the ability of a test to correctly identify people without the disease. Essentially, it is the percentage of true negatives. A specificity of 90% indicates that 90% of those who do not have the disease will test negative. Sensitivity is the ability of a test to correctly identify people with the disease—percentage of true positives. A sensitivity of 90% indicates that 90% of those who do have the disease will test positive.
102
Chemotherapy-induced alopecia typically occurs:
7 to 10 days after exposure to chemotherapy
103
ABCDE rule
The ABCDE rule is used to assess melanoma. A is for Asymmetry, B is for Border, C is for Color, D is for diameter, and E is for evolving.
104
What is the difference in taste alterations associated with chemotherapy administered every 3 weeks versus weekly?
Taste alterations are more pronounced with chemotherapy administered every 3 weeks
Taste cells regenerate approximately every 20 days. Patients who receive chemotherapy every 21 days start to recover their taste cells by the time they start the next cycle, so the fluctuations in taste changes can be more noticeable and distressing. The taste cells in patients receiving weekly chemo do not have time to recover, so the taste alternation is more consistent with no fluctuation, making it less pronounced.
105
While walking to the bathroom, a patient’s chest tube becomes dislodged. The nurse’s INITIAL intervention is to:
Apply a sterile gauze and dressing at the insertion site
106
Which chemotherapy agent requires monitoring of drug blood levels?
Methotrexate
Leucovorin is administered with methotrexate to reduce the risk of renal side effects. Drug blood levels must be monitored properly to dose leucovorin.
107
The term comedocarcinoma is used to describe:
Higher grade ductal carcinoma in situ of the breast
108
A patient presents at the clinic with a crusted and oozing facial wound that will not heal and continues to bleed every morning. The nurse suspects that the patient has:
Basal cell carcinoma
Basal cell cancer is characterized by wounds that do not heal and continue to bleed for an extended period. The wounds may be crusting and oozing and are often found on the face and back. Squamous cell carcinoma is characterized by red, rough, scaly patches that can bleed and become crusty. Acneiform rash can be caused by cancer drugs and is characterized by small, raised, acne-type bumps on the face, scalp, chest, and upper back. They can be filled with pus and crust over; however, they do not bleed. Actinic keratosis are precancerous rough, scaly patches that develop from prolonged sun exposure. They are commonly found on the face, lips, and ears.
109
The nurse is caring for a patient with multiple myeloma who was admitted for increased shortness of breath. The patient was treated with an autologous transplant and is day +34. The nurse recognizes that the patient’s shortness of breath is MOST likely caused by:
Melphalan
Melphalan is a chemotherapy agent that is commonly given as the conditioning regimen for patients with multiple myeloma prior to autologous stem cell transplant. Melphalan causes respiratory complications such as shortness of breath.
110
oncologic diseases causes the highest risk for deep vein thrombosis?
Although all cancers can cause blood clots and resulting deep vein thrombosis, the highest risk cancers include brain, liver, kidney, lung, ovarian, pancreatic, and uterine, as well as lymphomas, leukemias, and multiple myeloma
111
Which strains of the HPV virus are targeted with the HPV vaccine?
HPV 16–18
112
common symptoms of tumor lysis syndrome,
nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle cramps or twitches, weakness, numbness or tingling, fatigue, decreased urination, irregular heart rate, confusion, restlessness, irritability, delirium, hallucinations, and seizures. Other clinical manifestations of tumor lysis syndrome include syncopal attack, lethargy, pitting edema, facial edema, abdominal distention, and other sign of fluid overload. Dyspnea is not a common symptom of TLS.
113
Which drug classification has the highest risk for reactivation of hepatitis B virus?
Immunotherapy agents
114
Which of the following transplants is used to treat aggressive multiple myeloma?
Autologous stem cell transplant
Autologous stem cell transplant is used to treat multiple myeloma, lymphoma, and autoimmune disorders. In autologous stem cell transplantation, the donor cells come from the patient. In allogeneic stem cell transplantation, the donor cells come from a person other than the patient, such as a related or unrelated donor. Allogeneic transplants are used to treat leukemias. Cord blood transplantation uses cord blood collected from the umbilical cord and placenta of healthy newborns. It is used to treat some leukemias and lymphomas. A syngeneic transplant is an allogeneic transplant in which the donor cells are provided by an identical twin.
115
Peutz-Jegher syndrome is associated with which types of cancer?
Peutz-Jegher syndrome is an inherited condition that increases risk of developing hamartomatous polyps in the digestive tract. Individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome are at a greater risk of developing colorectal, breast, cervical, uterine, ovarian, pancreatic, and lung cancers. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome does not increase risk for renal or prostate cancers, leukemias, or lymphomas.
116
The nurse is preparing to review the side effects of interferon with a patient newly diagnosed with melanoma. The nurse will include which of the following teaching points?
. The drug can cause flu-like symptoms and depression
Interferon is an immunotherapy agent used to treat certain kinds of cancers. The nurse should advise the patient that it can cause flu-like symptoms and depression. It does not generally cause severe nausea and vomiting. Grapefruit juice does not interfere with the mechanism of action of interferon, so the patient does not have to avoid grapefruit juice during treatment. The patient can continue to use salt substitutes and eat high-potassium foods.
117
The nurse is planning care for a patient who has been diagnosed with follicular lymphoma and is 5 days post treatment with Bendamustine and Rituxan. The nurse’s priority intervention is to:
Monitor neutrophil count
The nurse’s priority intervention is to monitor neutrophil count. Depending on how much treatment the patient has had, the neutrophil count can be affected, and the patient is at risk for infection
118
Schwannomas
Acoustic neuromas are the most common form of schwannomas and involve the eighth cranial nerve (vestibular). Even though it is a benign tumor, this type of lesion can be fatal due to the amount of pressure that is placed on specific nerves
119
What risk factor is associated with an increased risk of developing cervical cancer?
HPV
120
Per the USPSTF, when should a patient with a cervix be screened for cervical cancer?
Over the age of 21, with or without a family history of cervical cancer
121
What alternate screening method can be used if HPV testing is not available?
Cytology
122
Based on the USPSTF guidelines, which cervical cancer screening should be performed between the ages of 21 and 29?
The correct answer is cytology alone every 3 years. Annual Pap smears are not recommended nor are they covered by medical insurance.
123
A 50-year-old patient presents for a gynecological exam/Pap test. They are new to your practice and mention undergoing a total hysterectomy 5 years ago due to a benign condition. Based upon ASCCP guidelines, what would you advise for this patient?
The correct answer is that a pap screening is no longer necessary. The 2019 ASCCP guidelines do not recommend a Pap for a patient without a prior history of abnormal Pap results. Cytology is recommended for patients who had a hysterectomy and had abnormal results.
124
What is the definition of FIGO stage II carcinoma?
Cancer that has spread beyond the cervix and uterus.
125
What is the best time during a menstrual cycle to obtain the Pap test?
Just before ovulation
126
Cowden syndrome
also known as the gene PTEN. Increases the lifetime risk for breast, thyroid, renal cell, endometrial, and colorectal cancers.
127
Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
common genes include APC and MUTYH. FAP increases the lifetime risk of developing colorectal cancer to 100%. Also linked to duodenal, pancreatic, papillary thyroid cancers, and hepatoblastoma.
128
Hereditary breast-ovarian cancer syndrome (HBOC)
is associated with BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes. Founder mutations are associated with increased cancer risk in Ashkenazi Jewish people, Iceland, and Mexican populations. It is associated with an increased lifetime risk for breast (including early-onset and male breast cancer), ovarian, fallopian, and primary peritoneal cancers.
129
What are the two most significant risk factors for breast cancer?
Biological Sex and Age
130
Lynch syndrome
also known as hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC), is an inherited disorder that significantly increases the risk of developing various cancers, particularly colorectal cancer. It's caused by a genetic mutation in mismatch repair genes that are responsible for fixing errors in DNA, leading to an increased risk of cancer development.
131
What is the difference between competence and competency?
Competency demonstrates performing the standard of practice, while competence is the ability to perform the practice
Competency demonstrates performing the standard of practice for oncology nurses, while competence is the ability itself. Nurses who are competent may not necessarily have competency in one area of practice.
132
Acute Complications Post HCT: Hepatic Sinusoidal Obstructive Syndrome
The conditioning regimen causes damage to the sinusoids of the liver, leading to obstruction of the sinusoidal flow. Additionally, cytokine release activates the coagulation and fibrinolytic pathways, precipitating coagulopathy. Diagnostic criteria include at least two of the following: weight gain, elevated bilirubin, and right upper quadrant pain.
