Obstetrics: General Antenatal Care Flashcards

1
Q

Define the following:

  • Last menstrual period
  • Gestational age (GA)
  • Estimated delivery date (EDD)
  • Gravida
  • Primigravida
  • Multigravida
  • Para
  • Nulliparous ‘nullip’
  • Primiparorus
  • Multiparous ‘multip’
A
  • Last menstrual period: date of first day of last menstrual period
  • Gestational age: duration of pregnancy starting from date of last menstrual period
  • Estimated delivery date: estimated date of delivery (40 weeks)
  • Gravida: total number of pregnancies a woman has had
  • Primigravida: pt is pregnant for first time
  • Multigravida: pt is pregnant for at least second time
  • Para: number of times woman has given birth after 24 weeks gestation; regardless of whether fetus was alive or stillborn
  • Nulliparous ‘nullip’: never given birth after 24 weeks gestation
  • Primiparorus: technically refers to woman who has given birth after 24 weeks gestation once before BUT often used on labour ward to refer to woman who is due to give birth for first time
  • Multiparous ‘multip’: given birth after 24 weeks 2 or more times
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2
Q

Initially, EDD is based on date of last menstrual period which determines gestational age and hence EDD; however, after the booking scan the gestational age is more accurately assess and EDD is updated accordingly. True or false?

A

True

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3
Q

State the Naegele rule and what it is used for

A
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4
Q

Describe how gestational age is expressed (same as neonates)

A

Described in weeks & days e.g.:

  • 5 +0 = 5 weeks gestational age
  • 13 + 6 = 13 weeks and 6 days
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5
Q

Outline when the:

  • First
  • Second
  • Third

… trimester are from and to

A
  • First: 0 - 12 weeks gestation
  • Second: 13 - 26 weeks gestation
  • Third: 27 weeks until birth
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6
Q

When do fetal movements usually start?

A

~20 weeks then continue until birth

*NOTE: in multigravida woman movement may start a little earlier

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7
Q

Outline the antenatal care timetable

A

From weeks 25-42 routine care (BP, urine dipstick, SFH) is offered alongside other things that are appropriate at that time. E.g. at 28 weeks and 34 weeks give anti-D prophylaxis

**Of course, dependent on pregnancy woman may have more interaction with healthcare services

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8
Q

How many antenatal visits does NICE recommend for the following women:

  • First pregnancy uncomplicated
  • Second or more pregnancy if uncomplicated
A
  • First pregnancy “primip” uncomplicated: 10
  • Second or more pregnancy uncomplicated: 7
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9
Q

If a woman fits certain criteria she may have additional appointments. Discuss when during pregnancy following appointments would be done if they were required:

  • Oral glucose tolerance test for gestational diabetes
  • Anti-D injections
  • Additional ultrasound scan for women with placenta praevia
A
  • Oral glucose tolerance test for gestational diabetes: 24-28 weeks
  • Anti-D injections: 28 and 34 weeks
  • Additional ultrasound scan for women with placenta praevia: 32 weeks
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10
Q

State what is covered at each routine antenatal appointment

*HINT: this can be discussions, measurements, investigations

A
  • Discuss plans for the remainder of the pregnancy and delivery
  • Symphysis–fundal height measurement from 24 weeks onwards
  • Fetal presentation assessment from 36 weeks onwards
  • Urine dipstick for protein for pre-eclampsia
  • Blood pressure for pre-eclampsia
  • Urine for microscopy and culture for asymptomatic bacteriuria
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11
Q

What vaccines are offered to all pregnant women and when?

A
  • Whooping cough (pertussis): from 16 weeks gestation
  • Influenza: when available in autumn or winter

*NOTE: live vaccines e.g. MMR are avoided in pregnancy

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12
Q

Outline what happens during the booking clininc

A

Woman meets with midwife and purpose is to discuss and arrange plans for pregnancy.

  • Education
  • Give green book
  • Booking bloods (see separate FC)
  • Basic measurements (BMI [weight, height], BP, urine dipstick for protein, urine culture for asymptomatic bacturia)
  • Risk assessment
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13
Q

What would midwife discuss with woman as part of ‘education section’ in the booking clinic

A
  • What to expect at different stages of pregnancy
  • Lifestyle advice in pregnancy including supplements (see separate FC)
  • Plans for birth
  • Screening tests (e.g. Downs screening)
  • Antenatal classes
  • Breastfeeding classes
  • Discuss mental health
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14
Q

What general lifestyle advice is given to pregnant women?

A
  • Take folic acid 400mcg from before pregnancy to 12 weeks (reduces neural tube defects)
  • Take vitamin D supplement (10 mcg or 400 IU daily)
  • Avoid vitamin A supplements and eating liver or pate (vitamin A is teratogenic at high doses)
  • Don’t drink alcohol when pregnant (risk of fetal alcohol syndrome)
  • Don’t smoke (smoking has a long list of complications, see below)
  • Avoid unpasteurised dairy (e.g. camembert, brie) or blue cheese (risk of listeriosis)
  • Avoid undercooked or raw poultry (risk of salmonella)
  • Continue moderate exercise but avoid contact sports
  • Sex is safe
  • Flying increases the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE)
    • RCOG say flying is generally ok in uncomplicated pregnancies up to 37 weeks in single pregnancy and up to 32 weeks in twin pregnancy. Advise on wearing compression stockings. Airlines often require a note after 28 weeks gestation from midwife, GP, obstetrician to state pregnancy is healthy and no additional risks
  • Place car seatbelts above and below the bump (not across it)
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15
Q

Certain women, who are at increased risk of neural tube defects, should take an increased dose of 5mg of folic acid; state some examples of women who fall into this category

A

Certain women are at an increased risk of neural tube defects and thus should take an increased dose of 5mg folic acid. Women falling into this category include:

  • Previous child with NTD
  • Maternal or parental FH of NTD
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Women on antiepileptic
  • Obese (body mass index >30kg/m²)
  • HIV +ve taking antiretrovirals co-trimoxazole
  • Sickle cell
  • Thalassaemia
  • Coeliac disease
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16
Q

What bloods are included in the booking bloods?

A
  • FBC: anaemia
  • Blood group, red cell autoantibodies & rhesus D status: need to know if rhesus negative
  • Screening for haemoglobinopathies:
    • Thalassaemia ALL WOMEN
    • Sickle cell disease only women at HIGHER RISK
  • Infectious diseases:
    • HIV
    • Hepatitis B
    • Syphilis
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17
Q

During booking clinic, midwife will asses woman for risk factors for certain conditions in pregnancy so that additional measures/plans can be put in place. State some of the conditions the midwife will assess the risk of

A
  • Rhesus negative (book anti-D prophylaxis)
  • Gestational diabetes (book oral glucose tolerance test)
  • Fetal growth restriction (book additional growth scans)
  • Venous thromboembolism (provide prophylactic LMWH if high risk)
  • Pre-eclampsia (provide aspirin if high risk)
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18
Q

There is no safe level of alcohol in pregnancy. Greatest effects are in first trimester. State some potential complications of alcohol in early pregnancy

A
  • Miscarriage
  • Small for dates
  • Preterm delivery
  • Fetal alcohol syndrome
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19
Q

State some features (including visible characteristics and health problems) in fetal alcohol syndrome

A
  • Microcephaly (small head)
  • Thin upper lip
  • Smooth flat philtrum (the groove between the nose and upper lip)
  • Short palpebral fissure (short horizontal distance from one side of the eye to the other)
  • Learning disability
  • Behavioural difficulties
  • Hearing and vision problems
  • Cerebral palsy
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20
Q

State some potential complications/increased risks associated with smoking during pregnancy

A
  • Fetal growth restriction (FGR)
  • Miscarriage
  • Stillbirth
  • Preterm labour and delivery
  • Placental abruption
  • Pre-eclampsia
  • Cleft lip or palate
  • Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
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21
Q

All women are offered screening for Down’s syndrome, Patau & Edward’s syndrome; true or false?

What is the purpose of screening?

A
  • All women offered screening; woman’s choice if she wants to go ahead with screening.
  • Purpose is to to decide whether women should receive more invasive tests to establish a definitive diagnosis
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22
Q

There are 3 screening tests for Down’s syndrome; state the name of each and when during pregnancy it can be done

A
  • Combined test: 11 - 13 + 6 weeks gestation (FIRST LINE & MOST ACCURATE)
  • Triple test: 15 - 20 weeks gestation
  • Quadruple test: 15 - 20 weeks gestation
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23
Q

What is involved in the combined test (first line and most accurate) for Down’s syndrome?

A
  • Ultrasound to measure nuchal translucency: nuchal translucency=nuchal thickness. Positive if >6mm
  • Maternal blood tests:
    • beta-hCG: higher = greater risk
    • Pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A (PAPPA): lower = greater risk

*SUMMARY: Down’s syndrome is suggested by ↑ HCG, ↓ PAPP-A, thickened nuchal translucency

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24
Q

What is involved in the triple test for Down’s syndrome screening?

A

Only involves maternal blood tests:

  • Beta-hCG: higher = greater risk
  • Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP): lower = greater risk
  • Serum oestriol: lower = greater risk
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25
Q

What is involved in the quadruple screening test for Down’s syndrome?

A

Only involves maternal blood tests:

  • Beta-hCG: higher = greater risk
  • Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP): lower = greater risk
  • Serum oestriol: lower = greater risk
  • Inhibin-A: higher = greater risk
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26
Q

Screening tests for Down’s syndrome give a risk score for fetus having Down’s syndrome; at what risk score is a woman offered further testing?

A

Risk is > 1 in 150, woman is offered:

  • Invasive testing:
    • Chorionic villus sampling
    • Amniocentesis
  • Non-invasive prenatal nesting (NIPT) **NOTE: relatively new. Gradually being rolled out in NHS as alternative to invasvie testing. Not definitive, unlike invasive, but gives very good indication.
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27
Q

What is involved in each of the following and when during pregnancy can they be done:

  • Chorionic villus sampling
  • Amniocentesis
  • Non-invasive prenatal testing
A
  • Chorionic villus sampling: ultrasound guided biopsy of placental tissue. Done <15 weeks
  • Amniocentesis: ultrasound guided aspiration of amniotic fluid using needle & syringe. Used later in pregnancy once there is enough amniotic fluid to make it safer to take sample
  • Non-invasive prenatal testing: take blood test from mother. Works on basis that blood will contain fragments of DNA- some of which will come from placental tissue and hence represent fetal DNA
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28
Q

What is involved in each of the following and when during pregnancy can they be done:

  • Chorionic villus sampling
  • Amniocentesis
  • Non-invasive prenatal testing
A
  • Chorionic villus sampling: ultrasound guided biopsy of placental tissue. Done <15 weeks
  • Amniocentesis: ultrasound guided aspiration of amniotic fluid using needle & syringe. Used later in pregnancy once there is enough amniotic fluid to make it safer to take sample
  • Non-invasive prenatal testing: take blood test from mother. Works on basis that blood will contain fragments of DNA- some of which will come from placental tissue and hence represent fetal DNA
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29
Q

Explain why rhesus negative women need anti-D prophylaxis

A

When a woman that is rhesus-D negative becomes pregnant, we have to consider the possibility that her child will be rhesus positive. It is likely at some point in the pregnancy (i.e. childbirth) that the blood from the baby will find a way into the mother’s bloodstream. When this happens, the baby’s red blood cells display the rhesus-D antigen. The mother’s immune system will recognise this rhesus-D antigen as foreign, and produce antibodies to the rhesus-D antigen. The mother has then become sensitised to rhesus-D antigens.

Usually, this sensitisation process does not cause problems during the first pregnancy. During subsequent pregnancies, the mother’s anti-rhesus-D antibodies can cross the placenta into the fetus. If that fetus is rhesus-D positive, these antibodies attach themselves to the red blood cells of the fetus and causes the immune system of the fetus to attack them, causing the destruction of the red blood cells (haemolysis). The red blood cell destruction caused by antibodies from the mother is called haemolytic disease of the newborn.

Copied straight from ZtoF

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30
Q

Discuss the management of rhesus incompatibility during pregnancy (include both prophylactic & sensitisation management)

A

Prophylactic management

Prophylactic intramuscular injections of anti-D. NICE recommend giving at:

  • 28 weeks
  • 34 weeks

Evidence suggest there is little difference in efficacy between single dose at 28 weeks and double dose regimes at 28 and 34 weeks; hence, RCOG advise either regime can be used.

Sensitisation event management

Intramuscular injections of anti-D should be given ASAP (at most within 72hrs) following possible sensitisation event. If sensitisation occurs in 2nd or 3rd trimester larger doses given.

  • Termination of pregnancy
  • Miscarriage if gestation >12 weeks
  • Intrauterine death
  • Ectopic pregnancy if managed surgically
  • External cephalic version
  • Antepartum haemorrhage
  • Amniocentesis, CVS, fetal blood sampling
  • Abdominal trauma
  • Birth (if baby is rhesus +ve, do Kleihauer test to see how much anti-D to give)
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31
Q

What test is done, after 20 weeks gestation, following a rhesus sensitisation event?]

Why is it done?

What does it involve?

A
  • Kleihauer (also know as feto-maternal haemorrhage test)
  • Assesses how much fetal blood has entered maternal circulation. Used after any sensitising event after 20 weeks gestation to determine how much anti-D immunoglobulin should be given
  • The Kleihauer test involves adding acid to a sample of the mother’s blood. Fetal haemoglobin is naturally more resistant to acid, so that they are protected against the acidosis that occurs around childbirth. Therefore, fetal haemoglobin persists in response to the added acid, while the mothers haemoglobin is destroyed. The number of cells still containing haemoglobin (the remaining fetal cells) can then be calculated.
32
Q

What tests should be done following delivery of baby in rhesus negative mother and why?

A
  • Rhesus status of baby
  • IF baby is rhesus positive, Kleihauer test should be performed to determine how much anti-D mother should be given after birth (within 72hrs)

**NOTE: Passmed says all babies born to rhesus negative mother should have cord blood taken at delivery for FBC, blood group and rhesus status & direct Coombs test.

33
Q

How does anti-D medication work?

A

Anti-D immunoglobulin binds to rhesus-D antigens on fetal RBCs in mothers circulation causing them to be destroyed and hence prevents mothers immune system recognising antigen and creating antibodies against it. (It prevents sensitisation)

34
Q

Remind yourself how a baby with haemolytic disease of newborn will present

A
  • oedematous (hydrops fetalis, as liver devoted to RBC production albumin falls)
  • jaundice, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly
  • heart failure
  • kernicterus
  • treatment: transfusions, UV phototherapy
35
Q

Why has incidence of multiple pregnancies increased?

A

Development of fertility treatments

36
Q

Define the following:

  • Monozygotic
  • Dizygotic
  • Monoamniotic
  • Diamniotic
  • Monochorionic
  • Dichorionic
    *
A
  • Monozygotic: identical twins (from a single zygote)
  • Dizygotic: non-identical (from two different zygotes)
  • Monoamniotic: single amniotic sac
  • Diamniotic: two separate amniotic sacs
  • Monochorionic: share a single placenta
  • Dichorionic: two separate placentas

The best outcomes are with diamniotic, dichorionic twin pregnancies, as each fetus has their own nutrient supply.

37
Q

State and describe the 3 types of twins a woman can have

A
  • dichorionic diamniotic (DCDA) twins – each has their own separate placenta with its own separate inner membrane (amnion) and outer membrane (chorion)
  • monochorionic diamniotic (MCDA) twins – share a single placenta with a single outer membrane and 2 inner membranes
  • monochorionic monoamniotic (MCMA) twins – share both the inner and outer membranes
38
Q

Discuss whether fetuses will be identical twins based on amnion and chorion

A
  • Non-identical twins= all are dichorionic diamniotic
  • Identical twins:
    • ⅓ are dichorionic diamniotic
    • ⅔ monochorionic diamniotic
    • 1 in 100 are monochorionic monoamniotic

In summary, if share a placenta they will be identical. If they don’t share a placenta, you cannot tell.

39
Q

How, on ultrasound scan, can you determine the type of twins?

A
  • Dichorionic diamniotic: membrane between twins with a lambda or twin peak sign
  • Monochorionic diamniotic: membrane between twins with a T sign
  • Monochorionic monoamniotic: no membrane separating twins
  • *Lambda or twin peak sign refers to triangular appearance where membrane between twins beets the chorion as the chorion blends partially into the membrane- separate placentas*
  • *T sign refers to where the membrane between twins abruptly meets chorion giving T appearance- single placenta*
40
Q

Multiple pregnancy has associated risk/complications; state some potential complications for the mother

A
  • Anaemia
  • Polyhydramnios
  • Hypertension
  • Malpresentation
  • Spontaneous preterm birth
  • Instrumental delivery or caesarean
  • Postpartum haemorrhage
41
Q

Multiple pregnancy has associated risk/complications; state some potential complications for the fetuses & neonates

A
  • Miscarriage
  • Stillbirth
  • Fetal growth restriction
  • Prematurity
  • Twin-twin transfusion syndrome
  • Twin anaemia polycythaemia sequence
  • Congenital abnormalities
42
Q

For twin-twin transfusion syndrome, discuss:

  • When it occurs
  • What it is
  • Consequences for fetuses
  • Management
A
  • Occurs in fetuses who share a placenta (called feto-fetal transfusion syndrome in pregnancy with >2 fetuses)
  • Connection between the blood supplies of the fetuses. One fetus (recipient) receives majority of blood from placenta while other fetus (donor) is starved of blood
  • Consequences:
    • Recipient: fluid overloaded with HF & polyhydramnios
    • Donor: growth restriction, anaemia, oligohydramnios
  • Refer women to tertiary specialist fetal medicine centre. Severe cases may have laser treatment to destroy connection between blood supplies
43
Q

What is twin anaemia polycythaemia sequence?

A

Similar to twin-twin transfusion syndrome but less acute. One twin (recipient) develops polycythaemia while other (donor) develops anaemia.

44
Q

Who manages women with multiple pregnancies?

A

Specialist multiple pregnancy obstetric team

45
Q

What additional blood monitoring is required for women with multiple pregnancy?

A

All women have FBC to test for anaemia at booking clinic and at 28 weeks. Additional anaemia screening should be performed between 20-28 weeks in women with multiple pregnancy

46
Q

What additional ultrasound scans are required for women with multiple pregnancy and when? (think about if this differs for different types of twins)

A

Additional ultrasound required to monitor for fetal growth restriction, unequal growth & twin-twin transfusion syndrome

  • Monochorionic twins: 2 weekly scans from 16 weeks onwards
  • Dichorionic twins: 4 weekly scans from 20 weeks onwards
47
Q

Planned birth is often offered for women with multiple pregnancies dependent on type of twins & any complications; true or false?

A

True

Planned birth is offered between:

  • 32 and 33 + 6 weeks for uncomplicated monochorionic monoamniotic twins
  • 36 and 36 + 6 weeks for uncomplicated monochorionic diamniotic twins
  • 37 and 37 + 6 weeks for uncomplicated dichorionic diamniotic twins
  • Before 35 + 6 weeks for triplets

*NOTE: timing may change if there are complications

48
Q

What is given to mother to help mature fetal lungs in premature planned birth/delivery?

A

Corticosteroids

49
Q

Discuss how twins should be delivered

A
  • Monoamniotic twins: caesarean section between 32 and 33+6 weeks
  • Diamniotic:
    • Vaginal delivery possible if first/presenting baby has cephalic presentation
    • Caesarean section may be required for second baby after successful birth of first baby
    • Elective caesarean section when presenting twin is not in cephalic presentation
50
Q

What happens to levels of thyroid hormone in pregnancy?

A
  • Increase in thyroid hormones
  • But also increase in thyroid binding globulin
  • Hence free thyroid hormone levels don’t increase but total does
51
Q

For pregnant women with existing hypothyroidism, discuss:

  • Potential complications of untreated or under-treated hypothyroidism in pregnancy
  • Pharmacological management
A
  • Complications of untreated or under-treated hypothyroidism in pregnancy:
    • Miscarriage
    • Anaemia
    • SGA
    • Pre-eclampsia
  • Management:
    • Levothyroxine titrated based on TSH level (aim for low-normal). Dose has to be increased in pregnancy usually by at least 25-50mcg

*NOTE; levothyroxine can cross placenta and provide thyroid hormone to developing fetus

52
Q

For pregnant women with existing hyperthyroidism, discuss:

  • Potential complications of untreated thyrotoxicosis
  • Management in pregnancy
A
  • Potential complications of untreated thyrotoxicosis: IUFD, premature labour, maternal heart failure
  • Management in pregnancy:
    • 1st trimester use propylthiouracil (as carbimazole associated with increased risk of congenital abnormalities)
    • At beginning of 2nd trimester switch to carbimazole
    • Titrate based on maternal free thyroxine, DO not block & replace
    • Radioactive iodine contraindicated
53
Q

In women with existing hypertension, what antihypertensive medications should be stopped due to risk of congenital abnormalities? (4)

A
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Angiotensin receptor blockers
  • Thiazides
  • Thiazide-like diuretics
54
Q

What medications are used for hypertension in pregnancy?

A
  • 1st line= labetalol
  • 2nd line= nifedipine (modified release)
  • 3rd line= methyldopa (needs to be stopped within 2 days of birth)
55
Q

Pregnancy can worsen seizure control in epilepsy but are not known to be harmful to pregnancy other than risk of physical injury; true or false?

A

True

56
Q

Which antiepileptics are safer in pregnancy?

Which antiepileptics are not safe/avoided in pregnancy and why?

A

Safer

  • Levetiracetam
  • Lamotrigine
  • Carbamazepine

Not safe/avoided

  • Sodium valproate (neural tube defects & developmental delay)
  • Phenytoin (cleft lip & palate)
57
Q

RA will often get better during pregnancy and may flare after delivery. What drugs are considered safe in pregnancy and which are avoided and why?

A

Considered safe

  • Hydroxychloroquine (often 1st line)
  • Sulfasalazine
  • Corticosteroids can be used in flares

Contraindicated/not safe/avoided

  • Methotrexate (teratogenic causing congenital abnormalities & miscarriages)
58
Q

State some commonly used drugs that can cause complications during pregnancy

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Beta blockers
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Angiotensin receptor blockers
  • Thiazides & thiazide like diuretics
  • Opiates
  • Warfarin
  • Sodium valporate
  • Lithium
  • SSRIs
  • Isotretinoin

*NOTE: doesn’t mean they wont be used but should be avoided where possible

59
Q

Explain why NSAIDs are avoided in pregnancy

A
  • Inhibit prostaglandins and prostaglandins have numerous roles:
    • Maintain ductus arteriosus
    • Soften cervix & cause uterine contractions in delivery
  • Can also delay labour

***Generally avoided in pregnancy but particularly in 3rd trimester as can cause premature closure of ductus arteriosus

60
Q

State 3 reasons why beta blockers, aside from labetalol which is first line for hypertension in pregnancy, are avoided in pregnancy

A
  • Fetal growth restriction
  • Hypoglycaemia in the neonate
  • Bradycardia in the neonate
61
Q

State 5 reasons why ACE inhibitors and ARBs are avoided in pregnancy

A

Can cross placenta and affect fetal kidneys reducing production of urine and hence amniotic fluid.

  • Oligohydramnios (reduced amniotic fluid)
  • Renal failure in the neonate
  • Hypotension in the neonate
  • Miscarriage or fetal death
  • Hypocalvaria (incomplete formation of the skull bones)
62
Q

Explain why opiates are avoided in pregnancy

A

Can cause neonatal abstinence syndrome

***3 – 72 hours after birth with irritability, tachypnoea (fast breathing), high temperatures and poor feeding

63
Q

State 3 reasons why warfarin is avoided in pregnancy

A
  • Fetal loss
  • Congenital malformations, particularly craniofacial problems
  • Bleeding during pregnancy (e.g. postpartum haemorrhage, fetal haemorrhage and intracranial bleeding)
64
Q

State 2 reasons why sodium valproate is avoided during pregnancy

A
  • Neural tube defects
  • Developmental delay
65
Q

State a potential complication of lithium use- particularly in 1st trimester

Can lithium be used in pregnancy?

Can women taking lithium breastfeed?

A
  • Congenital cardiac abnormalities in particular Ebstein’s anomaly (**tricuspid valve is set lower on the right side of the heart (towards the apex), causing a bigger right atrium and a smaller right ventricle)
  • If it must be used as other options failed, then needs close monitoring (4 weekly, then 1 weekly from 36 weeks)
  • No, it enters breast milk and is toxic to infant
66
Q

Can SSRIs cross placenta?

A

Yes. hence risks need to be balanced against the benefits of treatment

67
Q

State some potential complications of SSRI use in pregnancy

*HINT: think about different trimesters

A
  • First-trimester use has a link with congenital heart defects
  • First-trimester use of paroxetine has a stronger link with congenital malformations
  • Third-trimester use has a link with persistent pulmonary hypertension in the neonate
  • Neonates can experience withdrawal symptoms, usually only mild and not requiring medical management
68
Q

Isotretinoin is highly teratogenic, causing miscarriage and congenital defects. How long after stopping isotretinoin do women need to take reliable contraception for?

A

1 month

69
Q

What is the name of the pathogen in GBS?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

70
Q

Routine GBS screening is not done in the UK; discuss who should be screened and/or treated for GBS

A
  • GBS detected in previous pregnancy- inform them that risk of GBS carriage in this pregnancy is 50% and offer either:
    • Intrapartum abx prophylaxis
    • Testing between 35-37 weeks or 5 weeks prior to delivery
  • IAP should be given to women with previous baby with early- or late- onset GBS
  • Women in preterm labour (regardless of GBS status)
  • Women with pyrexia during labour
  • Women with ROM >18hrs
71
Q

What antibiotic is used for GBS prophylaxis?

A

Benzylpenicilin

72
Q

If there is rupture of membranes in a woman of >37 weeks gestation known to be GBS positive, she will be induced immediately (to reduce the amount of time the fetus is exposed); true or false?

A

True

73
Q

Are antibiotics required if a woman, who would need IAP if having vaginal birth, has a caesarean section?

A

No; as it is the rupture of membranes that exposes the baby to GBS

74
Q

Discuss the management of reflux in pregnancy

A
  • First line= lifestyle measures
    • Keep dairy and avoid triggers (common ones include caffeine, alcohol, chocolate, spicy foods)
    • Eat small meals frequently
    • Keep upright after eating
    • Raise head when sleeping
    • Stop smoking
  • Second line= antacids & alginates
    • Antacids containing magnesium & aluminum
    • Alginates e.g. Gaviscon
  • Third line= PPI or H2 agonist
75
Q

How does pelvic girdle dysfunction in pregnancy commonly present?

A
  • Pain in pelvis (can be anterior, posterior, affect hips & thighs)
  • Pain worse on walking, climbing stairs & turning over in bed, moving knees apart (like when getting out car), sexual intercourse
  • Clicking or grinding sensation in pelvic area
76
Q

If you suspect pelvic girdle dysfunction, who should you refer woman to?

A

Physiotherapists

77
Q

Discuss the management of pelvic girdle dysfunction in pregnancy

A
  • Lifestyle measures
    • Balance of keeping active and rest
    • Changing position frequently (don’t stay in 1 position >30 mins)
    • Put equal weight on each leg
    • Using pillow under bump and between legs for extra support
    • Warm baths
    • Heat or ice packs
  • Conservative
    • Manual therapy (**hands-on treatment to gently mobilise or move the joints to get them back into position, and help them move normally again. This should not be painful.)
    • Hydrotherapy
    • Aids e.g. crutches, wheelchairs
  • Pharmacological
    • Paracetamol
    • Can have stronger painkillers (e.g. morphine as in antenatal clinic)