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P Level > Obstetrics > Flashcards

Obstetrics Flashcards

1
Q

The implantation of a fertilised ovum outside the uterus occurs most commonly in the

A. Cervix

B. Fallopian tubes

C. Abdomen

D. Uterine Wall

A

B. Fallopian tubes

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2
Q

You have delivered an infant who is limp, pale, and barely breathing. Your initial action will be to

A. Dry and warm the infant

B. Begin chest compressions

C. Administer 100% oxygen by NRB

D. Assist ventilation with BVM

A

A. Dry and warm the infant

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3
Q

PPE recommended during emergency child birth includes

A. Gloves and mask

B. Gloves, mask, gown

C. Gloves, mask and protective eye wear

D. Gloves, mask, gown and protective eye wear

A

D. Gloves, mask, gown and protective eye wear

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4
Q

The neck of the uterus through which menstrual flow passes and through which the fetus passes during labor and delivery is called the

A. Cervix

B. Vagina

C. Placenta

D. Perineum

A

A. Cervix

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5
Q

The birth canal consists of the lower part of the uterus and the

A. Cervix

B. Vagina

C. Urethra

D. Perineum

A

B. Vagina

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6
Q

The ______________ is a specialised structure of pregnancy expelled after delivery of a baby and is sometimes referred to as the afterbirth

A. Uterus

B. Placenta

C. Bloody show

D. Amniotic sac

A

B. Placenta

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7
Q

The dome shaped part of the uterus above the openings of the uterine tubes is called the

A. Body

B. Ishium

C. Fundus

D. Cervix

A

C. Fundus

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8
Q

If the umbilical cord is wrapped around the baby’s neck you should

A. Never cut the cord

B. Cut the cord immediately

C. Cut the cord as a last resort

D. Wait until the midwife arrives

A

C. Cut the cord as a last resort

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9
Q

A primagravida woman

A. Will deliver her second baby

B. Has had one abortion

C. Is pregnant for the first time

D. Has delivered one baby

A

C. Is pregnant for the first time

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10
Q

Commons signs of preclamsia include

A. Odema, Hypertension, and headache

B. Weight loss, Blurred vision, and diarrhoea

C. Ketones in urine, and rapid weight gain

D. facial swelling, dysuria, and chest pain

A

Odema, Hypertension, and headache

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11
Q

If a woman id gravid 3 and para 2

A. She has been pregnant 2 times

B. She has delivered 3 babies

C. She has been pregnant 5 times

D. She has delivered 2 babies

A

D. She has delivered 2 babies

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12
Q

A nulliparous woman

A. Has never had a miscarriage

B. Has never been pregnant

C. Has had at least one miscarriage

D. Has never delivered a baby

A

D. Has never delivered a baby

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13
Q

If a woman has been pregnant 3 times, had 2 spontaneous abortions, and carried one baby to term, you should document this as

A. G5A2P1

B. G3A2P1

C. G1A2P5

D. G1A2P3

A

B. G3A2P1

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14
Q

In contrast to gravida 3 mothers, gravida 1 mothers

A. Have delivered at least one baby

B. are at a lower risk for complications

C. will typically take more time to deliver

D. often experience a precipitous delivery

A

C. will typically take more time to deliver

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15
Q

The onset of eclampsia is marked by the presence of

A. Hypertension

B. Protein in the urine

C. Thrombocytopenia

D. Tonic-clonic convulsions

A

D. Tonic-clonic convulsions

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16
Q

When attending a woman you note there is a cord prolapse, you should ?

A. Request the attendance of a midwife

B. Proceed with the delivery of the baby as soon as possible

C. Keep cord warm and moist and transfer to hospital the cord

D. Clamp the cord

A

C. Keep cord warm and moist and transfer to hospital the cord

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17
Q

Vaginal bleeding after 24 weeks gestation is known as

A. Concealed haemorrhage

B. Antepartum haemorrhage

C. Threatened miscarriage

D. postpartum haemorrhage

A

B. Antepartum haemorrhage

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18
Q

Rupture of the membranes may result in

A. Hypertension

B. eclampsia

C. cord prolapse

D. anaemia

A

C. cord prolapse

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19
Q

Which of the following most accurately describes the condition known as prolapsed cord?

A. Collapsed cord after delivery

B. Umbilical cord is the presenting part before delivery of baby

C. Cord is not attached to baby at delivery

D. Cord is wrapped around babys neck

A

B. Umbilical cord is the presenting part before delivery of baby

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20
Q

The bleeding associated with placenta praevia is ?

A. Dark

B. Bright and recurrent

C. Seen after delivery of the baby

D. Not always revealed

A

B. Bright and recurrent

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21
Q

How much blood loss is required to diagnose postpartum haemorrhage?

A. >150mls

B. >400mls

C. >500mls

D. >300mls

A

C. >500mls

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22
Q

Primary postpartum haemorrhage is associated with ?

A. Prima Gravida

B. A large baby

C. Teenage mothers

D. Delivery at term

A

B. A large baby

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23
Q

Ruptured ectopic pregnancy is characterised by?

A. Abdominal pain

B. Amenorrhoea and pain

D. vaginal bleeding

C. abdominal pain, amenorrhoea and vaginal bleeding

A

C. abdominal pain, amenorrhoea and vaginal bleeding

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24
Q

Pre-eclampsia occurs most commonly ?

A. From the start of pregnancy

B. In the second half of pregnancy

C. In the third trimester

D. In the second trimester

A

C. In the third trimester

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25
Q

Pre-term labor is defined as labor that starts

A. before 36 weeks gestation

B. before 38 weeks gestation

C. before 37 weeks gestation

D. before 35 weeks gestation

A

C. before 37 weeks gestation

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26
Q

Miscarriage is most common ?

A. First 15 weeks

B. First 14 weeks

C. First 12 weeks

D. First 13 weeks

A

C. First 12 weeks

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27
Q

In threatened abortion there is

A. No placental separation only membranous rupture

B. Partial placental separation

C. full placental separation

D. dilation of the cervix and rupture of the membranes

A

B. Partial placental separation

28
Q

Surfactant responsible for lung compliance is produced in quantity from

A. 26-28 Weeks

B. 30-34 Weeks

C. 20-24 Weeks

D. 34-37 Weeks

A

B. 30-34 Weeks

29
Q

Mendelsons syndrome occurs

A. During delivery

B. Post delivery

C. When gastric aspirate is inhaled

D. At the end of pregnancy

A

C. When gastric aspirate is inhaled

30
Q

Primary postpartum hemorrhage occurs

A. within 12 hours of birth

B. within 48 hours of birth

C. within 24 hours of birth

D. within 36 hours of birth

A

C. within 24 hours of birth

31
Q

Abortion is defined as expulsion of the fetus, from any cause before the ________week of pregnancy

A. 18th

B. 20th

C. 24th

D. 28th

A

B. 20th

32
Q

A spontaneous abortion

A. affects 1 in 3 pregnancies and is typically idiopathic

B. Occurs naturally and may or may not have an identifiable cause

C. is generally preformed by a doctor to prevent maternal death

D. Is most often the result of a congenital abnormality of the placenta

A

B. Occurs naturally and may or may not have an identifiable cause

33
Q

When caring for a woman with an inevitable or incomplete abortion, you should be most concerned with what?

A. Bleeding and shock

B. Severe maternal infection

C. maternal emotional trauma

D. the risk of airway compromise

A

A. Bleeding and shock

34
Q

In contrast to an abruptio placenta, a placenta praevia

A. Typically presents with tearing abdominal pain

B. Is usually caused by maternal abdominal trauma

C. is associated with an absence of fetal heart tones

D. usually presents with painless vaginal bleeding

A

D. usually presents with painless vaginal bleeding

35
Q

Abruptio placenta is most accurately defined as

A. Separation of the placenta secondary to blunt maternal abdominal trauma

B. Premature separation of a normally implanted placenta from the uterine wall

C. a placenta that implants low in the uterus and partially or fully covers the cervix

D.

A

B. Premature separation of a normally implanted placenta from the uterine wall

36
Q

Uterine rupture most commonly occurs

A. During active labor

B. In primiparous women

C. During the third trimester

D. After the placenta delivers

A

A. During active labor

37
Q

The most common cause of abruptio placenta is

A. Trauma

B. Infection

C. Maternal drug use

D. Hypertension

A

D. Hypertension

38
Q

Pseudocyesis is

A. False pregnancy

B. False labor

C. Premature labor

D. delayed labor

A

A. False pregnancy

39
Q

whenever possible a a pregnant patient should be transported in which position to allow for sufficient circulation through the vena cava

A. Trendelenburg

B. Left lateral recumbent

C. Prone

D. High fowlers

A

B. Left lateral recumbent

40
Q

When a baby is presenting in breach position, which part of the baby is delivering first?

A. Buttocks

B. Head

C. Shoulder

D. Arm

A

A. Buttocks

41
Q

Average blood loss during the third stage of labor is approximately ?

A. 150ml

B. 250ml

C. 400ml

D. 500ml

A

A. 150ml

42
Q

When delivering multiple babies, you should clamp and cut the umbilical cord

A. After the placenta has delivered

B. only after the first baby delivers

C. following delivery of each baby

D. after all the babies have been delivered

A

C. following delivery of each baby

43
Q

By definition, a premature infant

A. weighs less than 3 kg

B. Is small for its gestational age

C. Has a larger surface to mass ratio

D. Is born before 37 weeks gestation

A

D. Is born before 37 weeks gestation

44
Q

During true labor

A. Analgesics often abolish contraction pain

B. the interval between contractions gradually shorten

C. the intensity of uterine contractions remains constant

D. Contractions are irregularly spaced from one to the next

A

B. the interval between contractions gradually shorten

45
Q

During the third trimester , pulse rate in pregnancy increases by

A. 5-10bpm

B. 15-20bpm

C. 10-15bpm

D. 20-25bpm

A

B. 15-20bpm

46
Q

What event occurs during the third stage of labor?

A. Crowning

B. Delivery of the placenta

C. Delivery of the baby

D. Expulsion of the mucous plug

A

B. Delivery of the placenta

47
Q

A woman is in the second stage of labor when

A. she feels a strong urge to move her bowels

B. The cervix is fully effaced and partially dilated

C. A gush of amniotic fluid pours from the vagina

D. Contractions occur in 5-10 min intervals

A

A. she feels a strong urge to move her bowels

48
Q

Crowning is most accurately defined as

A. Bulging of the babys head from the vaginal opening

B. passage of the baby through the fully dilated cervix

C. the presenting part of the baby at the vaginal opening

D. the thinning and shortening of the cervix during labor

A

C. the presenting part of the baby at the vaginal opening

49
Q

During the second stage of labor

A. Amniotic fluid typically gushes out of the vagina

B. The baby’s head begins to bulge through the cervix

C. Delivery in a multiparous woman occurs in few hours

D. Contractions become more intense and frequent

A

D. Contractions become more intense and frequent

50
Q

The term meconium refers to

A. Expulsion of the placenta

B. events after labor

C. green stools initially passed by a baby

D. neonatal death

A

C. green stools initially passed by a baby

51
Q

The APGAR Score refers to

A. The score to assess infant injury

B. The score to assess condition of the baby after birth

C. The score to assess Pediatric conscious level

D. The score to assess birth injury

A

B. The score to assess condition of the baby after birth

52
Q

After the delivery of the baby’s head your next action should be to

A. Observe the baby’s color

B. Apply downward traction

C. Check the Cord

D. Deliver the shoulders

A

C. Check the Cord

53
Q

Delivery of the placenta and membranes will normally occur within

A. 5 min

B. One hour

C. Immediately after birth of child

D. within 30 mins

A

D. within 30 mins

54
Q

When caring for the umbilical cord, you should clamp it

A. As soon as the baby is delivered

B. When it has stopped pulsating

C. When it is prolapsed

D. After the placenta has been delivered

A

B. When it has stopped pulsating

55
Q

The second stage of labor

A. Lasts only a few minutes

B. Lasts one to three hours

C. Lasts from a few minutes to two hours

D. Is always below an hour

A

C. Lasts from a few minutes to two hours

56
Q

The placenta is regarded as retained and intervention is required

A. It remains inside for >30min

B. It remains inside for >45min

C. It remains inside for >60min

D. It remains inside for >90mon

A

A. It remains inside for >30min

57
Q

The preferred position for transporting a patient with a prolapsed cord is

A. Exaggerated sims position

B. Fowler’s position

C. Mc Roberts position

D. Lithotomy position

A

A. Exaggerated sims position

58
Q

The developing fetus is enclosed in a thin membranous tissue known as the

A. Umbilicus

B. Placenta

C. Amniotic sac

D. Uterus

A

C. Amniotic sac

59
Q

The skin between the vulva and the anus is known as the

A. Peritoneum

B. Perineum

C. Sacrum

D. Vagina

A

B. Perineum

60
Q

A prolapsed cord means the cord

A. Is wrapped around baby’s neck

B. Does not have a pulse

C. Presents first

D. Is no longer attached to the baby

A

C. Presents first

61
Q

A defect in the structure or function of an organ system that is preenst at birth is known as (an) ______defect

A. Acute

B. Chronic

C. Episodic

D. Congenital

A

D. Congenital

62
Q

Normal head first delivery is called

A. Cephalic delivery

B. Breech delivery

C. Ectopic delivery

D. Prolapsed delivery

A

A. Cephalic delivery

63
Q

If the amniotic sac is intact when the babies head is delivered the paramedic should

A. Prepare to slip cord over the baby’s head

B. Rupture only if it does not tear when the rest of the baby delivers

C. Rupture and remove only after the baby has been delivered

D. Rupture it and remove from babies face

A

D. Rupture it and remove from babies face

64
Q

Decreased peripheral resistance makes pregnant women susceptible to

A. Peripheral cyanosis

B. Postural hypotension

C. postural hypertension

D. Pre-eclampsia

A

B. Postural hypotension

65
Q

You have delivered the baby successfully. you noteblood oozing from the umbilical cord despite the clamps. you should

A. Clamp distal to all previous clamps

B. Apply a pressure dressing

C. Place another clamp proximal to previous clamp

D. Remove all clamps

A

C. Place another clamp proximal to previous clamp

P Level (31 decks)

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